DM Week 4/Review for Exam Flashcards

1
Q

A 4 year old boy with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) is prescribed an enzyme transfusion as part of his treatment regimen. Which of the following enzymes was most likely given to this patient?
A. Glutaminase
B. Glutamine synthetase
C. Asparaginase
D. Glutamate dehydrogenase
E. Aspartate transaminase
F. Alanine transaminase

A

C. Asparaginase. This reduces the asparagine levels to starve the tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Mechanism of fructose transport

A

Facilitated transport with the gradient and GLUT-5 in the small instestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Nearly all binding of cobalamin (vitamin B12) to intrinsic factor occurs in which organs?

A

Duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Absorption of fat-soluble vitamins requires which of the following?
A. intrinsic factor
B. chymotrypsin
C. pancreatic lipase
D. pancreatic amylase
E. secretin

A

C. Pancreatic lipase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Glucagon activates glycogen degradation and gluconeogenesis in the liver. What is the action of cortisol?

A

Activation of PEP carboxykinase by enzyme induction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Poisoning with ethylene glycol is due to:

A

Highly toxic glycoaldehyde which leads to glycolic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Poisoning with moonshine is due to:

A

Methanol Toxicity, Highly toxic formaldehyde inside the cells of liver, neurons and retina. Causes blindness due to formic acid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Mechanism of action of disulfiram

A

Inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are two treatment options of acquired hyperammonemia?

A

-Lactulose
-Neomycin (antibiotic treatment)
-Low protein/high carb diet (less N ingested)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the synthetic form of BH4?

A

Sapropterin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Symptoms of Maternal PKU

A

Similar to fetal alcohol syndrome:
-Microcephaly
-Severe neurological problems
-Congenital heart defects
-Facial dysmorphology: long philtrum, epicanthal folds, micrognathia, short nose, microphthalmia flat midface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Embryological origin of the faliciform ligament

A

Ventral Mesentery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Embryological origin of the spleen

A

Dorsal Mesentery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What can be given to prevent toxic accumulation of metabolites in Tyrosinemia Type 1?

A

Nitisinone: inhibits 4-OH-phenylpyruvate dioxygenase (PDO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Manifestations include:
-Liver failure
-Renal Failure
-Cabbage like odor of the urine

A

Tyrosinosis (Tyrosinemia Type I)
-Deficiency of fumarylacetoacetate hydrolase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Therapy that can be beneficial for disorder involving increased methionine synthesis:

A

Homocysteinuria:
-Pyridoxine (Vitamin B6)
-Restrict dietary protein
-Supplement with methionine free medical food
-Oral Betaine-HCl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Reabsorption defect in neutral amino acids

A

Hartnup Disease: low tryptophan concentrations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How is trypsinogen activated?

A

It is released by the pancreas and is cleaved to trypsin only after it reaches the lumen of the duodenum by the activated enteropeptidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How are amino acids absorbed? Through which mechanism?

A

The uptake of dietary amino acids is mainly performed by secondary active transport with cotransport of sodium ions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The activation of pepsinogen to pepsin is dependent on what?

A

An acidic pH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Substrates needed for heme synthesis:

A

Succinyl CoA + Glycine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Acetaminophen degrades into which 2 products?

A

Acetaminophen glucuronate (urine)
Acetaminophen sulfate (urine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Hepatic steatosis (fatty change) is a consequence of chronic alcohol intake due to:

A

Acetaldehyde Toxicity–the high levels of cytosolic NADH lead to TAG synthesis and the release of VLDL is inhibited, lipid droplets accumulate inside hepatocytes. **Tubulins are damaged.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

ALT»>AST levels

A

Acute liver disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

AST»>ALT levels

A

Chronic liver disease due to chronic alcoholic cirrhosis (2:1 or higher)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Risk factor for pyridoxine deficiency

A

Isoniazid therapy (anti-tuberculosis drug)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Oral rehydration therapy with glucose targets which transporters for the treatment of osmotic diarrhea?

A

SGLT1 Transporter in the GIT
-Secondary active transporter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Refsum disease causes an accumulation of which metabolite?

A

Phytanic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Organic Aciduria involves which amino acids?

A

Valine and odd chain fatty acids
-Symptoms include:
Hypoglycemia, metabolic keto acidosis, problems with the conversion of propionyl CoA to methylmalonyl CoA mutase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Acute phase proteins

A

Stimulated by the liver after inflammation: c-reactive protein, alpha-1-antitrypsin, ceruloplasmin, haptoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Inherited defect in dietary copper absorption

A

Menkes syndrome

32
Q

In iron overload, does total binding capacity (TIBC) increase or decrease?

A

Decreases
Clinical Correlate: Hemochromatosis

33
Q

In iron deficiency anemia, does total binding capacity (TIBC) increase or decrease?

A

Increases

34
Q

Microcytic anemia is seen in which conditions?

A

Iron Deficiency
Pyridoxine deficiency
Copper Deficiency
**Due to reduced heme synthesis

35
Q

Macrocytic anemia is seen in which conditions?

A

Vitamin B12
Folic acid deficiency
**Due to reduced cell division

36
Q

Mucopolysaccharidoses

A

Hunter and Hurler Syndromes

37
Q

Iduronidase deficiency

A

Hurler Syndrome

38
Q

Accumulation of dermatan sulfate and heparan sulfate

A

Hurler syndrome

39
Q

Iduronate sulfatase deficiency

A

Hunter Syndrome

40
Q

beta-hexosaminidase A deficiency

A

Tay-Sachs

41
Q

Accumulation of gangliosides

A

Tay-Sachs

42
Q

Onion shell inclusions in lysosomes, cherry-red spot on macula

A

Tay-Sachs

43
Q

beta-glucosidase deficiency

A

Gaucher disease

44
Q

Bone crisis, distal femur in the shape of an erlenmeyer flask, crumpled tissue paper appearance of foam cells

A

Gaucher disease

45
Q

deficiency of alpha-galactosidase

A

Fabry disease

46
Q

Accumulation of globoside (ceramide trihexoside)

A

Fabry disease

47
Q

Skin rash with “bathing trunk distribution” and peripheral neuropathy

A

Fabry disease

48
Q

Deficiency of sphingomyelinase

A

Niemann-Pick disease

49
Q

Accumulation of sphingomyelin

A

Niemann-Pick disease

50
Q

Hepatomegaly and cherry-red spot on macula, foamy cell appearance

A

Niemann-Pick disease

51
Q

Deficiency of Aryl sulfatase A

A

Metachromatic leukodystrophy

52
Q

Accumulation of sulfatide

A

Metachromatic leukodystrophy

53
Q

Progressive paralysis and demyelination

A

Metachromatic leukodystrophy

54
Q

Deficiency of lysosomal acid maltase (alpha 1-4 glucosidase)

A

Pompe disease

55
Q

Deficiency of N-acetylglucosamine 1-phosphate transferase

A

I-cell disease

56
Q

A man has a history of peptic ulcer disease. A gastroscopy shows a perforating ulcer in the posterior wall of the stomach. Which of the following locations will peritonitis most likely develop initially?

A

Omental bursa (lesser sac)

57
Q

A CT scan shows part of the bowel is being compressed between the abdominal aorta and superior mesenteric artery. Diagnosis of “nutcracker syndrome” is made. Which of the following intestinal structures is most likely being compressed?

A

Third part of the duodenum

58
Q

Which artery would most likely provide collateral supply to the descending colon?

A

Middle colic

59
Q

Which of the following anatomic features are the most useful to distinguish the jejunum from the ileum?

A

Jejunum has less mesenteric fat compared with the ileum

60
Q

Massive bleeding from the descending colon. What is the most likely source of the hemorrhage?

A

Left colic artery (branch of the inferior mesenteric artery)

61
Q

A 4 month old baby girl is brought to the ED. X ray of abdomen shows a posterolateral defect of the diaphragm and abdominal contents in the left pleural cavity. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this defect?

A

Failure of pleuroperitoneal fold to close

62
Q

Which vessels will most likely provide collateral circulation between the celiac trunk and superior mesenteric artery?

A

Superior and inferior pancreaticoduodenal

63
Q

In which of the following locations will blood be detected with an ultrasound exam if the patient stands up (male)?

A

Rectovesical space

64
Q

Which lymph node initially drains the pyloric antrum?

A

Celiac nodes

65
Q

A diagnosis of esophageal varices is made. Which surgical anastomosis is most commonly used to relieve these symptoms?

A

Splenic to left renal vein (portal to caval system)

66
Q

Which of the following structures would most likely be identified and ligated within the triangle of Calot?

A

Cystic Artery

67
Q

Ethylene glycol poisoning can cause the accumulation of which toxic metabolite?

A

Oxalate

68
Q

Clinical features of Anderson disease

A

Hepatomegaly and cirrhosis

69
Q

Glycogen storage disease that can lead to muscular dystrophy later in life

A

Cori disease

70
Q

Central role of glucose-6-phosphate in glycogen metabolism and glycolysis

A

Used to form glucose 1 phosphate during glycogen synthesis

71
Q

During strenuous activity, how is glycogen phosphorylase kinase activated?

A

By calcium ions

72
Q

What is the regulatory enzyme of ketogenesis?

A

Mitochondrial HMG CoA synthase

73
Q

Are weak acids and reduce serum bicarbonate levels during fasting

A

3-hydroxybutyrate and acetoacetate

74
Q

Which of the following substances has a paracrine action in producing smooth muscle relaxation?
A. Secretin
B. Gastrin
C. CCK
D. VIP
E. Gastric Inhibitory peptide

A

D. VIP

75
Q

What are the boundaries of the triangle of Calot?

A

Inferior border of the left ventricle (LV), cystic duct, common hepatic duct

76
Q

Absorption of fat soluble vitamins requires which of the following?

A

Pancreatic lipase

77
Q
A