Dog and Cat 9 Flashcards

1
Q

Diagnostic investigation round 1 for nasal discharge

A
1. Cytology/culture - NOT HELPFUL 
○ Except if cryptosporidium (uncommon)
2. FNA
○ Facial swellings
○ SM lymph nodes
3. Haematology/biochemistry
4. Aspergillus titres (dogs) - screen for fungal infections 
5. LCAT (cats)
6. Thoracic radiographs
7. +/-PCR for feline URTI pathogens
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2
Q

Diagnostic investigation round 2 for nasal discharge what achieves and the techniques

A
  • Requires anaesthesia
  • Required for definitive diagnosis in most cases
    1. Oral cavity exam
    ○ Probe tooth roots
    2. Imaging - GOOD
    ○ Nasal radiography
    ○ CT scan or MRI
    3. Rhinoscopy - GOOD
    ○ antegrade (rigid) and retrograde (flexible)
    ○ +/-sinusotomy and sinusoscopy
    ○ Limited as can only go into the main air passages -> should pair with imaging
    4. Biopsies
    ○ histopathology and
    ○ bacterial and fungal culture
    ○ Swabs for viral isolation/PCR (CATS)
    If don’t get specific diagnosis -> just inflammatory
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3
Q

Diagnostic investigation round 3 and round 4 for nasal discharge what techniques done

A
Round 3
- Advanced imaging, if not done initially.
- + repeat rhinoscopy and sampling.
- + include frontal sinus (if involved).
- Wait 1-2 months and repeat testing.
Round 4
- Exploratory rhinotomy
- +/-sinusotomy 
- +/-turbinectomy - generally don't do - RARE 
○ Remove the normal physiological
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4
Q

nasal foreign body clinical signs and diagnosis/removal

A
- Acute paroxysmal sneezing
○ Subsides with time
- Gag/retch (cats)
- Unilateral nasal discharge
○ Serous > MP +/-blood
Diagnose/remove:
- Otoscope cone + spey hook/dental mirror -> to see around the back of the nose -> occurs commonly in cats 
- Flush
- Rhinoscopy
- Advanced imaging/rhinoscopy -> if more chronic foreign body if buried within mucous or tissue
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5
Q

Feline upper respiratory tract infection which cats occur in and presentation

A
Which cats?
- Young
- Stressed
- Immunosuppressed
-> Breeding/boarding catteries, shelters
Presentation:
- acute sneezing
- serous to MP oculonasal discharge - differentiate from foreign body 
- conjunctivitis
- hypersalivation (oral ulceration)
- fever
- anorexia
- dehydration
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6
Q

Feline upper respiratory tract infection what are the 4 main causes, transmission, signs

A

1) feline herpes virus - carrier state, relapse with stress - kittening transmit this dsease, ulcerative keratitis, eosinophilic facial dermatitis, major shelter pathogen
2) feline calicivirus - carrier state, shed continuously, more oral involvement - ulcers on nose, tongue, lips, predominates in stable multicat environments
3) chlamydia felis - conjunctivitis, URT
4) bordetella bronchiseptica - purulent rhinitis, cough, pneumonia

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7
Q

Feline upper respiratory tract infection does it matter the cause, treatment and diagnosis

A
- Usually not!
○ Self-limiting
○ Lack of specific therapy
○ Mixed infections
- Treatment generally symptomatic and supportive
- Diagnosis usually presumptive
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8
Q

Feline upper respiratory tract infection general treatment

A
- Address hydration:
○ SQ or parenteral fluids
- Address nutrition: - rare 
○ warm, soft, fishy foods.
○ Appetite stimulants?
○ Oral care
○ Feeding tube
- Clear oculonasal discharge:
○ Moist cotton balls
○ Humidification
○ Decongestants? - don't use 
- Treat 2°bacterial infections:
○ Doxycycline
○ Amoxicillin
○ Topical antibiotic ocular therapy
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9
Q

Feline upper respiratory tract infection treatment for herpesvirus, calicivirus and chlamydia

A
  • Herpesvirus
    ○ Oral famcyclovir - possible to reduced severity of clinical signs
    ○ Topical (ocular) antivirals
  • Calicivirus
    ○ Recombinant feline IFN-ωfor chronic gingivostomatitis
    ○ Nothing for acute upper respiratory tract infection
  • Chlamydia
    ○ Treat ALL in contact cats
    ○ Doxycycline at least 4 weeks - 1-2 weeks treatment beyond clincial signs resolving
    ○ Topical (ocular) tetracycline
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10
Q

Feline upper respiratory tract infection prevention

A
1. Avoid exposure
○ Housing
○ Hygiene and disinfection
○ Limit overcrowding
○ Isolate new arrivals
○ Isolate kittening queens
○ Early weaning
○ Early vaccination
2. Strengthen specific immunity
○ Vaccination
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11
Q

Bacterial rhinitis what is important about it and treatment

A
  • NOT a primary condition! - NEED TO IDENTIFY AND TREAT PRIMARY DISEASE
    ○ COMMON secondary to primary nasal diseases (most chronic)
    § 7-10 d empiric antibiotic course acutely -> if also treating the primary disease
    (amoxicillin, clindamycin, TMS, doxycycline)
    DO NOT use multiple or prolonged antibiotic courses without investigating the nasal disease!
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12
Q

canine nasal mites transmission, signs, treatment

A
  • Pneumonyssoides caninum
  • 1 mm, white
  • Direct transmission
  • Frontal sinuses, caudal nose
  • Acute rhinitis signs
  • Ivermectin, milbemycin or selamectin 2-3 x
  • Treat in-contact dogs
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13
Q

Allergic rhinitis causes, signs, findings and management

A
  • Poorly characterised
  • Hypersensitivity to inhaled nasal allergens?
  • +/-food allergens
  • Reaction to local nasal allergens
  • Irritant vs. allergen?
    Signs
  • Acute or chronic
  • Sneezing
  • Serous to MP bilateral DC
    Findings
  • Eosinophilic to mixed inflammation
  • Not destructive!
    Management
  • Remove allergen
  • Antihistamines
  • Anti-inflammatory glucocorticoids (inhaled - not systemic)
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14
Q

The nose imaging what is involved

A

1) radiograph
- lateral
- open mouth dorsoventral - good
- (Dorsoventral/ventrodorsal) -> superimposition of mandible over the nose - not as useful
- Rostrocaudal frontal sinuses
2) computed tomography
3) MRI

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15
Q

Radiographic changes for nasal cavity diseases

A
  1. Assess location of change
    a. Uni vs bilateral
    b. Rostral vs caudal
  2. Alterations in opacity
    ○ Addition of soft tissue opacity or:
    ○ Bony destruction (vs proliferation)
    ○ Combination
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16
Q

What are 5 main general patterns with nasal disease and causes

A
  1. Normal radiographic appearance of both nasal passages - foreign body, rhinitis
  2. Areas of increased soft tissue opacity superimposed over normal turbinate pattern - rhinitis, foreign body
  3. Areas of increased soft tissue opacity superimposed over areas of turbinate destruction - typically aspergillosis - MOST COMMON
  4. Areas of decreased opacity due to turbinate destruction without accompanying soft tissue opacity - after treatment of aspergillosis
  5. Mixed pattern of turbinate destruction and superimposed soft tissue opacity interspersed with areas of turbinate destruction alone
    ○ Most common in aspergillosis or neoplasia
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17
Q

Altered trachea diameter how to measure and differences in size, what is normal

A
Normal size as ratio at thoracic inlet: -> if large fine but if small BAD 
- ≥0.2 Normal non brachycephalic breeds
- 0.16 Normal non bulldog brachycephalic
- 0.13 Normal bulldog
○ Tracheal hypoplasia common in
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18
Q

Positioning for good quality thoracic radiograph, how position and how know it is rotated

A
  • Pull the forelimbs forward with sand bags or ropes so triceps muscle and forelimb aren’t superimposed on the chest
  • Thorax rotates if lie on side sternum flops down - heart looks like cardiomegaly
  • Wedge under the sternum so the thorax is parallel with the cassette
    Know rotated
    1. Costochondral junctions straight - level
    2. Forelimbs pulled forward so not superimposed
    3. All pulmonary parenchyma lung fields
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19
Q

what do you need 3 views of the thorax and what is the main thing you are looking for

A

About how lungs respond to compression
- Need air around the soft tissue opacity -> maximum amount of air around the abnormalities
○ Left lateral recumbency - atelectasis of dependent lung lobes (ones laying down)
§ Will see lesions within the right side (air filled as facing upwards) but not on the left side (atelectasis as laying on the table and being compressed)
And vice versa -> Right lateral recumbent will see the left lung fields
What are we looking for?
- Change in opacity - MOST IMPORTANT
○ Can you see the blood vessels (surrounded by air) -> if not possibly surrounded by fluid or soft tissue - as they are the same opacity - NO CONTRAST

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20
Q

List the 4 main patterns and 5 main distributions for lung radiographs and describe the patterns

A

PATTERN
1. Interstitial - Vessels are harder to see - Can look if artefacts - such as expiration
2. Alveolar - Black tubes on a white background (airbronchograms)
- Soft tissue opacity within the lung and displaces the air and so alveolar soft tissue opacity and only air is the air within the bronchi
3. Bronchial - - Change at the level of the bronchial wall - thickening
- Tram track (longitudinal) or donuts (transversely cut)
4. Vascular
DISTRIBUTION - MOST IMPORTANT (not pattern)
1. Cranioventral
2. Caudodorsal
3. Diffuse
4. Focal
5. Multifocal

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21
Q

List differentials for lesions in cranioventral and diffuse area of lung

A
Cranioventral 
- Aspiration pneumonia (alveolar pattern)- most common 
- Haemorrhage 
- Neoplasia
- Bronchitis 
Diffuse/multifocal 
- Cardiogenic pulmonary oedema 
- Haemorrhage 
- Pneumonia 
- Neoplasia - pulmonary metastasis (well defined margins need to be greater than 0.5-1cm in diameter 
- Bronchitis 
- Fibrosis
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22
Q

List differentials for lesions in the caudodorsal area of the lung

A
- Non cardiogenic pulmonary oedema 
○ Upper airway obstruction, head trauma etc. 
- Cardiogenic pulmonary oedema - dog most common
○ Not in cat 
- Haemorrhage 
- Pneumonia 
- Neoplasia 
- Bronchitis 
	- Fibrosis
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23
Q

What are the main causes of blood, pus, water and cells and another cause of increased lung opacity

A
  • Blood - (Trauma, Coagulopathy)
  • Pus - (Pneumonia-aspiration, bronchopneumonia-bacterial viral, mycoplasmal, fungal; parasitic; lipid; inhalation)
  • Water - (Cardiogenic & Non Cardiogenic Pulmonary Oedema)
  • Cells - (Neoplasia, Inflammatory, Fibrosis, eosinophilic bronchopneumopathyetc)
  • (Atelectasis)
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24
Q

Bronchial pattern what are the 3 most common differentials

A

1) feline asthma
2) lungworm
3) neoplasia
commonly bronchointerstitial pattern

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25
Q

Interstitial pattern multifocal and solitary list differentials

A
Multifocal:
- Pulmonary metastases
- Granulomatous disease
- Haemorrhage
Solitary: - CHANG
- Cyst
- Haematoma
- Abscess
- Neoplasia (primary lung tumour)
- Granuloma
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26
Q

What are the 4 important things to avoid getting confused with nodules on lung radiograph

A
  1. End on vessels
    - Close to & same size as longitudinal vessels
    - More opaque
    - ↓ size and number towards the periphery
  2. Calcified plaques “pulmonary osteomas”
    - Diffuse
    - Irregularly margined - don’t tapper towards periphery (vessels)
    - Mineralised (2-4mm)
  3. Nipples -> markers you can use and place on the
    nipples
  4. Subcutaneous masses
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27
Q

Border effacement/obliteration or “silhouette sign” what is it, how associated with lungs and when occurs

A
  • If two or more (or more) structures of the similar radiopacity are in direct contact with each other they will be projected as one merged silhouette on a radiograph leading to the disappearance of the individual silhouettes
  • Normal thorax can see the heart as surrounded by the air filled lungs
    Effusion -> won’t be able to see the outline of the heart or diaphragm
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28
Q

Leafing on chest radiograph what does it result from and what other information can it tell you

A
  • When there is fluid in the pleural space get atelectasis as well as retracting of the lung from the thoracic wall -> due to soft tissue opacity between lung and thoracic wall
  • Particularly can see in the ventrodorsal projection
  • Need to assess the margins of the lung lobes -> if sharp more acute, if rounded more chronic
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29
Q

pleural effusion what are the 3 signs on radiograph

A

1) boarder effacement “silhouette sign”
2) leafing
3) fissure lines - fluid moves up the fissure lines between the lung lobes - fat animals can have fat that looks like this as well

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30
Q

What occurs with pleural fluid in sternal and dorsal recumbency and how to determine type of fluid and if fluid or air

A

Sternal recumbency
- Fluid around the cardiac silhouette
Dorsal recumbency
- Heart sits up out of the fluid, can see the margins better
- Small volume due ventrodorsal -> best
Which fluid - need to sample - thorcocentesis
Ultrasound examination
- Able to differentiate between the fluid - cellular or non-cellular
- Pneumothorax - need to confirm with thoracic radiograph anyway

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31
Q

What are the 4 main techniques for ultrasounding the thorax

A
  1. TFAST3
    = Thoracic Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma, Triage and Tracking
    a. Used to detect pneumothorax and pleural effusion
    b. Also assess pulmonary parenchyma
  2. AFAST3
    = Abdominal Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma, Triage and Tracking
  3. CFAST3
    =Combo FAST3:both AFAST3and TFAST3
  4. Vet blue
    - Put probe on patient in 4 different sites
    Caudodorsal lung, perihilar, Middle lung, cranial lung
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32
Q

TFAST3 ultrasound examination how to perform

A
  1. Patient right lateral recumbency
  2. Ultrasound probe longitudinal plane dorsally
    - Watch pulmonary parenchyma moving backwards and forwards
  3. Then move ventrally to the PCS (pericardial centesis site)
  4. Then move to the DH (diaphragmatic site)
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33
Q

In terms of pleural effusion or pneumothorax what 3 things on ultrasound can help differentiate

A
  • Look for “slide sign” of normal pulmonary-pleural interface moving with respiration - will be absent
  • Presence of comet tail artefacts that move with inspiration and expiration rule out PTX
  • If lung not air filled then the sound will be transmitted into the lung -> won’t have the reverberation artefact
    ○ Pleural fluid
    ○ Pericardial fluid
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34
Q

pneumothorax what are the main radiographic findings

A
  • Increased radiolucency within the pleural space
  • Retraction of the lung lobes from thoracic wall but air between the lung and thoracic wall this time 0 leafing with air
  • Heart drops into thorax and shifts away from the sternum - Projects the separation as a gap -> isn’t ELEVATED just displaced from the sternum
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35
Q

How to tell when there is mediastinal widening and what occurs with a mediastinal (heart) shift

A

Width - Should be <2 x width of the vertebral column
Mediastinal shift (heart shift (main structure within the mediastinum))
- Mass shift is AWAY from lesions
- Loss of volume shift is TOWARDS the lesion

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36
Q

What are the 5 main locations on the mediastinum and what structures often affected there

A
  1. Cranioventral - where most commonly see changes
    ○ Lymph nodes and thymus within -> diseases here
  2. Craniodorsal
    ○ Rare often related to oesophagus
  3. Perihilar/hilar
    ○ Related to the oesophagus -> where foreign bodies will stop
  4. Caudodorsal
    ○ Often oesophagus
  5. Caudoventral
    ○ Rare and often related to the diaphragm
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37
Q

Pneumomediastinum what is it, when visible , what may progress to and causes

A
  • Air in the mediastinum
  • Individual mediastinal structures visible
  • Air may extend to fascia of neck +/-retroperitoneum
  • Most visible on lateral projection
  • May progress to pneumothorax and dyspnoea
    Causes
  • Escape of air from bronchi or alveoli
  • Extension from fascial planes of neck
  • Cranial extension from retroperitoneum
  • Gas producing organisms - bacteria
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38
Q

Respiratory neuromuscular anatomy what works with inspiration, expiration and what does parasympathetic and sympathetic

A

○ Inspiration - ACTIVE
§ Diaphragm – innervated by phrenic n.
§ External Intercostals – innervated by intercostal nn.
○ Expiration - PASSIVE (dogs, cats, humans) (muscles when process becomes active - horses)
§ Internal Intercostals – innervated by intercostal nn.
§ Abdominal Muscles
○ Parasympathetic
§ Bronchoconstriction
§ Pulmonary Vasodilation
§ Increased Respiratory Secretions
○ Sympathetic
§ Bronchodilation
§ Decreased Respiratory Secretions
§ α – VC (vasoconstriction) ; β - VD (vasodilation)

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39
Q

dead space what are the 3 parts and what is the percentage of tidal volume that is dead space and therefore how much is available for gas exchange

A

§ 3 parts of dead space
□ 1. anatomic - trachea
□ 2. alveoli - alveoli that have gas without blood supply
□ 3. mechanical - added when anaesthetised
§ Dead space = 35% of tidal volume in normal awake dogs
○ Therefore: 65% of each breathe is available for gas exchange

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40
Q

Diffusion of gases across the respiratory mechanisms what are the 5 main factors that affect diffusion and what else is it a factor or

A
  1. Respiratory Membrane Thickness
  2. Surface Area for Gas Exchange
  3. Diffusion Coefficient for Gas
  4. Alveolar to Venous Pressure Gradient
    (Pulmonary Capillary Transit Time) - fasting blood moving less time for gas exchange
    SAME AS UPTAKE OF ANAESTHESTICS
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41
Q

Matching ventilation and perfusion what is ideal and what occurs in the acutal body

A
  • Ideally blood would flow to every alveoli with air and vice versa…..but that is not always the case
  • Due to regional differences in perfusion and ventilation, there is some degree of mismatching
    ○ An ideal ratio of V/Q = 1 but the normal ratio for our species is V/Q = 0.8
    ○ Differ depending on the individual and species, anatomic positioning of the legs
    § 3 different situations
42
Q

What are the 3 main different situations for matching ventilation and perfusion within the lungs

A
  1. Alveoli without air -> due to mucous plug or something obstructing air movement -> movement of air alveoli into others further down doesn’t flow
    - Can’t pick up O2 and get rid of CO2
    - Increase in V/Q mismatch and shunt fraction
  2. Perfect
  3. Alveoli full of air BUT not much blood going passed due to obstruction of blood -> gas in that alveoli is wasted HOWEVER gas can move into other spaces for gas exchange -> INCREASE in alveolar dead space
    V/Q>1
43
Q

What is a shunt, what is a normal shunt fraction, what increases this shunt fraction

A
  • Measure of the mixing of deoxygenated blood with oxygenated blood in the left heart
  • Some is normal = Physiologic Shunting
    ○ Ex – Bronchopulmonary Veins, Thebesian Vessels (drain myocardial blood (Deoxygenated blood) into heart chamber)
    ○ Normal Shunt Fraction = 1-5% = 1-5% of blood been mixed
  • Low V/Q ratio increases the shunt fraction
  • Anatomic R->L Shunts also increase the shunt fraction
    ○ Ex – Reverse PDA, Tetralogy of Fallot
44
Q

Alveolar dead space what does it indicate, what increases this dead space and how estimated

A
  • Indicates gas that reaches the alveoli but does not participate in gas exchange d/t reduced or lacking blood supply-
  • High V/Q ratio increases alveolar dead space
    ○ Ex – Pulmonary Thromboembolism, ↓ Cardiac Output (Decrease blood flow) - decrease end tidal volume of CO2
  • Can be estimated by comparing PaCO2 to EtCO2 (end tidal CO2)
45
Q

Control of ventilation where occurs and the chemoreceptors and what sensitive to

A
  • Ventilation is normally controlled in the CNS (medulla)
    ○ Central chemoreceptors are sensitive to changes in CSF [H+]
    § CSF [H+] changes with PaCO2
  • Peripheral chemoreceptors (aortic and carotid bodies)
    ○ Minimal influence under normal conditions
    ○ Sensitive to extremely low PaO2 >50-60
    ○ Send signals to medulla that override input from central chemoreceptors
    § PaCO2 may be very low with hyperventilation
46
Q

What are the respiratory affects of the following anaesthesia agents - ace, benzo, alpha-2, opioids, thio, alfax, pop and ketamine

A
  • Ace and Benzos: minimal effects
  • Alpha-2 Agonists: varying but typically minimal
  • Opioids: CNS depression → ↓RR and VT (tidal volume) (hypoventilation)
  • Thio, Alfaxan, Propofol: CNS depression → hypoventilation; apnoea
  • Ketamine: ↑RR - CNS stimulant
47
Q

What are the respiratory affects of inhalants and anticholinergics

A
  • Inhalants: CNS depression → hypoventilation; Blocks HPV (hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction -> prevents shunting by locally vasoconstricting blood vessels in alveoli without air
    ○ Occurs in the foetus -> pulmonary artery to the aorta -> vasoconstriction of the pulmonary vessels
  • Anticholinergics (parasympathetic): bronchodilation; ↑ viscosity of airway secretions (decrease watery saliva part)
    Don’t forget: Inhalant anesthetics RELY on respiratory function for both uptake and elimination!
48
Q

What are the 5 surgical affects on respiratory function

A
  1. Patient positioning can depress respiratory function
  2. Surgical technique can depress respiratory function
  3. Restrictions of Airflow
  4. Effects of 100% FiO2
  5. Effects of Positive Pressure Ventilation
49
Q

How does patient posioning and restriction of airflow during surgery effect respiratory function

A
  1. Patient positioning can depress respiratory function
    ○ Ex. Horses in lateral or dorsal recumbency
    ○ Atelectasis, abdominal contents pushing on diaphragm
    § Decreased FRC and Tidal Volume
    § Hypoventilation and V/Q mismatch
  2. Restrictions of Airflow
    ○ Endotracheal tube diameter < tracheal diameter
    § increases resistance to air flow
    ○ Obstructions also increase resistance
    ○ Increased resistance = Increased WORK of breathing
50
Q

How does 100% inspired O2 and positive pressure ventilation during surgery effect respiratory function

A
  1. Effects of 100% FiO2
    ○ Can improve O2 uptake in patients with decreased PAO2, respiratory membrane dysfunction, +/- increased shunt fraction (<30%)
    ○ May exacerbate chronic respiratory acidosis
    § Absorption atelectasis
    □ Worsening of shunt fraction!
    § Oxygen toxicity - free-radical production
  2. Effects of Positive Pressure Ventilation
    ○ May help prevent/correct atelectasis
    ○ Beneficial in the patient with NM weakness/exhaustion or increased compliance
    § Makes inhalation a passive event for the animal
    ○ Improves ventilation in patients with decreased compliance
    ○ BUT
    • ↑ intrathoracic pressure = ↓ venous return
    • ↑ alveolar/small airway pressure = compression of pulmonary capillaries = ↑alveolar dead space
51
Q

Sedation/anaesthesia of dyspnoic patients what to do

A
  1. Don’t be afraid of a sedative or anxiolytic and “hands off” until animal is calm!
  2. Sometimes your only option is to rapidly induce and intubate the animal to gain control over ventilation!
    ○ When extending the neck -> real issue
52
Q

Obstructive disorders what predisposed to and anaesthesia considerations

A
  • Lar Par animals predisposed to aspiration
    § Cause increased “work” of inspiration - Patient can become exhausted
    § Expiration may be “active”
    § Can cause hypoxemia and/or hypoventilation if severe
    □ Increased shunt fraction (low V/Q mismatch)
    Anaesthesia considerations:
    § If obstructive disorder is at a lower point in airway than tracheal tube, intubation will not “fix” it
    □ If upper airway -> tube will fix temporarily
    § Patient may be exhausted which will be exacerbated by muscle relaxation/anaesthesia
    § Recovery is the most dangerous time (always) - Regurgitation/aspiration
    □ Providing analgesia but avoiding significant sedation
53
Q

In terms of an animal with obstructive airway disease what premed, induction, maintenance and recovey used

A

• Premedication – Opioid of choice (based on expected pain of procedures) +/- acepromazine
• Induction – Propofol (or alfaxalone) to effect (short acting)
○ Can give midazolam before to decrease propofol requirements
• Maintenance – Inhalants or Propofol based TIVA (if indicated)
○ Don’t forget the benefits of local/regional anaesthesia in reducing maintenance requirements and providing analgesia in the recovery period
• Recovery – Buprenorphine analgesia unless severe pain expected then fentanyl CRI

54
Q

How do you anaesthetize an animal for an airway function exam

A
  • No premedication
    ○ Most premeds have the potential to decrease laryngeal function (controversial topic!)
  • Propofol slowly to effect (theoretical gold standard) - effect (open mouth as not to be bitten but still can breathe)
    ○ Thiopental or alfaxalone can also be used
    ○ Avoid apnoea
  • Doxapram (central CNS stimulant) (0.25 mg/kg) may be given to stimulate respiration if needed
55
Q

Restrictive lung disorders list some and what is the pathogenesis of what it leads to

A
  • Pulmonary fibrosis, air or fluid in pleural space, diaphragmatic hernia, bloat, pregnancy
    ○ Anything that causes pleural space pressure to become less negative, decreases the elasticity of the lung parynchema, or physically restricts the movement of the diaphragm or chest wall
    ○ ↑ muscular work of breathing
    ○ ↓ tidal volume, ↓ decreased FRC
    » Patient prone to hypoxemia and hypoventilation
    ○ Atelectasis likely
    » Increased shunt fraction!
56
Q

Restrictive lung disease anaesthesia considerations

A
  • PPV will be necessary
    ○ Higher PAP (positive airway pressure) might be required
  • Inhalants and high FiO2 will reverse HPV
    ○ Leads to increased shunt fraction and may also increase alveolar dead space ventilation
  • Depending on duration of atelectasis, slow “reinflation” may be warranted
    ○ Reexpansion Pulmonary Edema -> release of toxic substances that could lead to shock
57
Q

What premedication, induction, maintenance and recovery used to anaesthetise an animal with restrictive lung disease

A
  • Premedication – Opioid of choice (based on expected pain); avoid excessive sedation
  • Induction – Any choice is appropriate
  • Maintenance – Inhalants or propofol based TIVA
    ○ Local analgesia!!!!!
  • Recovery – Watch ventilation/oxygenation after animal is extubated; avoid excessive sedation
58
Q

How do you sedate an animal for chest tube placement, when done and what else need to provide

A
  • Only do this under sedation if animal is eupnic!! (not stressed)
    ○ Be prepared to induce and intubate if necessary
  • Sedate with butorphanol +/- medetomidine
    ○ Reverse medetomidine at end
  • Provide local analgesia
    ○ Paravertebral blocks, inverted L, intercostal blocks
    ○ Consider locals into tube (depending on disease)
59
Q

What is the most common signs of LRT and some differentials

A
- Cough is the most common sign of LRT disease:
○ Lower respiratory tract
○ Cardiac
○ Pleural space disease
○ Gastro-oesophageal reflux
○ Post-nasal drip
60
Q

Feline nasopharyngeal polyps where arise and signs

A
- Arise auditory canal or middle ear
Signs:
- Stertor - into the mouth 
- Serous to MP nasal DC
- Head tilt, nystagmus, Horner’s syndrome - middle ear involvement 
- Otitis externa - external ear canal
61
Q

Feline nasopharyngeal diagnosis and treatment

A

Diagnosis:
- Exam under GA
○ Spey hook/mirror
○ Otoscopy
- CT or radiography
Treatment:
- Traction - pull out with mosquitoes
○ Short course anti-inflammatory prednisolone
○ 90% success if no middle ear involvement
- Surgery (bulla osteotomy)
Better prognosis with middle ear involvement

62
Q

Nasal neoplasia in dogs and cats what age, breed, type and character

A
Dogs
- Older (median 10 y)
- Dolichocephalic, medium to large breeds
- Adenocarcinoma, SCC, undifferentiated carcinoma > sarcoma
- Caudal 1/3 nasal cavity
- May involve sinuses
- Late metastasis (lungs, LN)
Cats
- Older (9-10 y)
- No breed predisposition
- Lymphoma, adenocarcinoma
Benign tumours are very rare in both species
63
Q

Nasal neoplasia signs and those with chronicity and uncommon

A
- Nasal discharge
○ Any type, epistaxis common
○ Unilateral> bilateral, lateralised
- Stridor/stertor (obstruction)
- Sneezing
With chronicity….
○ Facial deformity +/-discomfort
○ Exopthalmos/hard to retropulse eye
○ Epiphora
Uncommon
○ Anorexia, weight loss.
○ Malaena (swallowing blood)
○ Neurologic signs
§ Behaviour change, seizures, abnormal mentation
64
Q

Nasal neoplasia what are the 5 main diagnostic techniques and the most common one

A
  1. Advanced imaging - identify tumour - most common
  2. Rhinoscopy - can miss 25-30%
  3. FNA/tru-cut external masses
  4. Pinch biopsy - to determine the type of tumour
    ○ Scope/image-guided
    ○ Deep, large, multiple!
    ○ Check platelets/coagsprior
    ○ Control bleeding
    ○ Interpret path with caution
  5. Staging - if considering
65
Q

Nasal neoplasia for dog and cat with is estimated survival time with different treatments

A
Dog 
- MST 12 months 
- Better with radiosensitiser 
- Better with surgery AFTER
Cat 
- Nasal lymphoma 20.8 mo MST +/- chem
- Carcinoma/sarcomas 12 mo
Chemotherapy 
- dog - less effective, variable response 
- cat - nasal lymphoma MST 12 months with chem
66
Q

Nasal enoplasia what are some minimal palliation options for carcinomas, lymphomas and other tumours and prognosis

A
○ Carcinomas:
§ Piroxicam (COX inhibition)
□ COX inhibitor
□ Anti-tumour, analgesia
□ MST 8 mo
□ GI/renal toxicity - keep an eye on blood work 
○ Lymphoma:
§ Prednisolone
○ Other tumours:
§ NSAID or anti-inflammatory prednisolone
○ Prognosis:
§ MST 2-5 mo with no treatment - can be quite painful 
§ Euthanasia due to poor QOL (quality of life) 
□ Severe/persistent epistaxis
□ URT obstruction
□ Anorexia, weight loss
□ Neuro signs
67
Q

Fungal rhinosinusitis what leads to and main cause in dog and cat

A
  • Destruction of bone - epistaxis -> painful
    Dog - aspergillus fumigatus - most common
    Cat - cryptococcus neoformans - most common
68
Q

Sinonasal aspergillosis what caused by, most susceptable in, uncommon in and main clinical signs

A
- A. fumigatus
○ Environmental, filamentous
- Most susceptible 
○ Young-middle aged dogs
○ Mesaticephalic-dolicocephalic - longer nose breeds 
○ GSD and Rottweilers
- Uncommon in cats
○ Usually immunocompromised
Clinical signs
- Nasal discharge
○ mucoid –MP +/-haemorrhage
○ Unilateral> bilateral, may progress
○ Pure epistaxis common
- Facial pain/sensitivity
- Depigmentation/ulceration
- sneezing
- Systemic signs (uncommon)
- Facial deformity (uncommon)
- CNS signs (uncommon/late)
69
Q

Sinonasal aspergillosis what are the 3 main diagnosis techniques

A
1. Imaging -> radiograph, CT, MRI 
○ Radiograph - insensitive with turbinate bones 
○ CT - the BEST 
2. Rhinoscopy 
○ Turbinate destruction
○ +/-white-green fungal plaques
○ Trephine frontal sinuses to access
○ Multiple pinch biopsies
§ histopathology
○ fungal culture
3. Serology:
○ AGID (agar gel immunodiffusion) sensitivity 67% , specificity 98%
§ Adds weight to diagnosis
70
Q

Sinonasal aspergillosis treatment which better and when to use which

A
  • Topical vs. oral
    ○ Topical: 84-94% efficacy - BETTER THAN SYSTEMIC
    ○ Oral itraconazole 3-6 months: 60% efficacy
    ○ Clotrimazole infusion
  • Nasal discharge resolves within 2 weeks of successful treatment
  • Occasional permanent turbinate/mucosal damage
    § Chronic inflammation
    § Chronic secondary bacterial infections
  • When to use oral
    ○ CNS involvement
    § Cribriform plate breached -> topical will get through this SO DON’T USE
    § Orbit breached
    ○ Extensive bone involvement (+/-topical)
    ○ Soft tissue invasion -> See cats!
71
Q

Sinus aspergillus terreus and a. felis what animal present in and how disseminate and prognosis

A
A. terreusand other spp.
- Usually disseminate
○ mucosal immune defect (GSD)
○ Immunocompromised dogs or cats
- Disease advanced at presentation
○ Pulmonary, renal, uveitis, discospondylitis etc
- Grave prognosis
A. felis
- Sino-orbital aspergillosis
- Immunocompetent cats
- Highly drug resistant
- Multiagent systemic therapy recommended
○ Amphotericin B
○ Terbinafine
○ Posaconazole
- Poor prognosis (even with surgical debridement)
72
Q

Sinus cryptococcosis what common in, characteristic, 2 main forms and what cats generally affect

A
8 times more common in cats than dogs 
- Environmental ‘niche’ yeast
- Large polysaccharide capsule that makes it hard to immune system to kill 
- C. neoformans
○ 70% infections SE Aus.
○ Immunocompetent cats.
○ Immunocompromised dogs, people.
- C. gattii
○ Remaining SE cases.
○ Up to 50% feline cases WA.
○ Immunocompetent hosts.
73
Q

Cryptococcosis within the nasal cavity pathogenesis and signalment

A

1) nasal cavity can tehn disseminate in most dogs and few cats to lung -> haematogenous dissemination to eye brain, mandibular LN, skin bone etc
Signalement - young adults, Check FIV/FeLV status- Poor prognosis is FeLV +

74
Q

Cryptococcosis within the nasal cavity what are the 2 main ways to diagnosis and ways within

A
1) Demonstrate organisms (75%)
○ Nasal discharge
○ Exudative skin lesions
○ FNA of granulomas
○ (CSF, bronchoalveolar lavage fluid)
○ Histopathology
2) Latex cryptococcal antigen agglutination test (LCAT)
○ Highly sensitive
§ serum (URT)
§ Urine or CSF (neuro)
75
Q

Treatment and prognosis for cryptococcosis standard nasal case and severe/disseminated

A

Standard nasal case:
- Oral fluconazole (eye/CNS) or itraconazole
- 1-2 mo beyond negative LCAT
- Monitor LCAT q 3-6 mo long term
Severe/disseminated:
- Systemic Amphotericin B + flucytosine(14d) + oral fluconazole

76
Q

Cryptococcous outcome in cats and dogs

A
Outcome cats:
- Successful in 75%
- 15-20% relapse
- Palliative only if FeLV+
- Guarded prognosis if CNS
 signs or disseminated
Outcome dogs: 
- Systemic therapy - as generally more severe and disseminated 
- Successful in up to 55%
- Prognosis always guarded
77
Q

Feline chronic rhinosinusitis signs and diagnosis

A
  • Bilateral (usually) chronic mucoid-MP (mucopurulent) nasal discharge +/-traces of blood
  • +/-sneezing
  • Obstruction uncommon
  • Systemic signs uncommon
    Diagnosis -> Nasal investigation:
  • Mild turbinate destruction
  • Mucosal inflammation
  • Increased mucus
  • +/-epithelial hyperplasia, fibrosis
  • Secondary bacterial or Mycoplasmaspp. infection common
78
Q

Feline chronic rhinosinusitis what are the 5 main management options and what aim

A

1) facilitate clearnace of nasal discharge - nasaflush under GA, vaporiser
2) control environmental irritatns - air filters, smoke, clean bedding
3) treat possible FHV or mycoplasma infection
4) control secondary bacterial infection
5) if inadequate response control inflammation
GOAL - Increase the quality of life via these management processes

79
Q

What is involved with treating possible FHV or mycoplasma and secondary bacterial infections in feline chronic rhinosinusitis

A
  1. Treat possible FHV or Mycoplasmaspp. Infections:
    ○ Oral lysine trial 4-6 weeks - if significant improvement then continue on
    ○ Oral famcyclovir trial
    ○ Doxycycline trial - for secondary infections and immunomodulating
    § If relapse after stopping then need to continue treatment
80
Q

Why in feline chronic rhinosinusitis cases controlling inflammation only occurs if inadequate response to others and what use

A

○ Antihistamines help some cats
○ CAUTIOUS anti-inflammatory glucocorticoids - don’t want to suppress immune system
○ Doxycycline or azithromycin

81
Q

Canine chronic (lymphoplasmacytic) rhinitis signs and diagnosis

A
  • Bilateral (usually) chronic mucoid-MPnasal discharge +/-traces of blood
  • +/-sneezing
  • +/-obstruction (oedema, mucous)
  • +/-epistaxis - sometimes - tumour or fungal?
  • Systemic signs uncommon
    Diagnosis - Nasal investigation:
  • Imaging may be normal
  • Occasional turbinate destruction and sinus involvement
  • Mucosal oedema and inflammation
    ○ Lymphoplasmacytic and/or suppurative +/-low numbers of eosinophils
82
Q

Canine chronic (lymphoplasmacytic) rhinitis management strategies and goal

A

○ Encourage mucous clearance
○ Reduce environmental irritants
○ Manage secondary bacterial infection
- ADDITIONALLY -> Usually need anti-inflammatories or immunosuppressives:
○ Immunosuppressive prednisolone (2 mg/kg/d) 2-4 weeks, taper.
○ Piroxicam + immunomodulatory antibiotic (doxycycline or azithromycin) at least 6 months.
○ Itraconazole 3-6 months.
○ Azathioprine or cyclosporine if refractory.
○ Most cases manageable with chronic therapy.
○ 50% good response
Again - management increase quality of life NO CURE

83
Q

What is different with cats a cough and the 3 most common causes

A
  • Cats with many lower respiratory tract disease DO NOT COUGH
  • (cats with heart disease often vomit)
    Most common cause of cough in cats
    1. Feline bronchial disease (feline asthma)
    2. Pulmonary parasites
    3. Heartworm disease
84
Q

What are the 2 main types of cough and differentials for each

A

Productive
- Mucus, exudate, oedema, blood
- Usually swallowed - so hard for owners to recognise
○ inflammation or infection (airways or alveoli)
○ pulmonary oedema (congestive heart failure)
Non-productive (dry)
- Airway disease
- Some interstitial disease
- Pleural space

85
Q

Cough intensity and timing what disease represent: loud, harsh, paroxysmal, soft, exacerbated by neck pressure, goose honk, at night, worse after rest, excercise or cold air

A
  • Loud, harsh and paroxysmal: airway
  • Soft: pneumonia, pulmonary oedema (parenchyma)
  • Exacerbated by neck pressure: tracheal disease
  • Goose honk: collapsing trachea
  • At night: cardiogenic pulmonary oedema -> worse due to gravity and lying down -> fluid moving caudally
  • Worse after rest, with exercise or cold air: bronchitis
86
Q

Ontop of coughing what are some other clinical signs of LRT disease

A
If gas exchange is impaired: - lung involvement 
- respiratory distress
○ Tachypnoea
○ Hyperpnoea
○ Orthopnoeicstance
○ Open-mouth breathing
- exercise intolerance
- Weakness
- Cyanosis and/or
- Syncope
Non-specific systemic signs
- fever
- anorexia
- weight loss
- depression
Cats with obvious chest wall excursions or open-mouth breathing are severely dyspnoeic
87
Q

Haemoptysis define and the main 2 differentials and diifferentials below

A

(coughing up blood) Differential diagnosis

  • Heartworm disease - common
  • Pulmonary neoplasia - common
  • Fungal infection
  • Foreign body
  • Severe LSCHF
  • Thromboembolic disease
  • Pulmonary contusions
  • Lung-lobe torsion
  • Pulmonary infiltrates with eosinophils
  • Systemic coagulopathy
88
Q

What are the 6 steps in diagnosing LRT disease (coughing)

A

oach
1. Signalment
2. History
○ Type, timing, duration and progression of cough signs
3. physical examination - RR, pattern and effort, MM, HR, rhythm, pulses, palpate trachea, thoracic auscultation
4. diagnostic evaluation - non-invasive round 1
5. non-invasive round 2 - CT, ultrasound, Scintigraphy
6. more invasive round 3 - tracheal wash, bronchoalveolar lavage, bronchoscopy

89
Q

Observe respiratory rate, pattern and effort for examining a cough case what occurs with URT or tracheal obstruction, intrathoracic obstruction and small airway lung disease

A
1. URT or extrathoracic tracheal obstruction
□ Prolonged, laboured inspiration
□ +/-stridor
2. Intrathoracic airway obstruction
□ Prolonged, laboured expiration
□ +/-expiratory sounds (gross or auscultation)
3. Small airway and lung disease
□ Rapid, shallow respiration
□ Inspiratory, expiratory OR BOTH
□ Abnormal lung sounds common
90
Q

What are the clinical signs of a cardiac vs respiratory cough

A
Cardiac
- Compression mainstem bronchi (large heart)
○ Loud, harsh cough
- CHF (congestive heart failure)
○ +/-soft cough
○ tachypnoea, tachycardia
○ exercise intolerance
○ harsh lung sounds +/-crackles
- +/-other signs - poor airways 
Airway
- Loud, harsh cough
○ dry or productive
- Often relatively bradycardic
- +/-respiratory sinus arrhythmia
○ High vagal tone 
- harsh lung sounds - wheezes and crackles
- +/-other abnormal respiratory sounds
91
Q

Abnormal lung sounds what are the causes of decreased, increased “harsh”, crackles, wheezes and snapping

A
  • Decreased:
    ○ pleural space disease
  • Increased/’harsh’:
    ○ Non-specific - from lungs of alveoli
    ○ pulmonary oedema or pneumonia
  • Crackles:
    ○ oedema or exudate within the alveoli and airways
    ○ some interstitial diseases (especially pulmonary fibrosis)
  • Wheezes:
    ○ airway narrowing
    ○ increased luminal content, mural changes or external compression
  • Snapping
    ○ end expiration, some intrathoracic collapsing tracheas
92
Q

For every coughing patient what diagnostic evaluation (non-invasive round 1) do you need to perform

A
○ Thoracic radiography
§ Every coughing patient!
§ +/-Include the neck
§ Localise: cardiac, pulmonary, pleural or mediastinal
§ For pulmonary changes:
- alveolar, bronchial, interstitial or vascular?
- Distribution?
○ Haematology and biochemistry
§ Not very sensitive or specific
93
Q

What are the 2 main ways to get airway cytology, differences in terms of conscious or GA, contaminated and animals used for

A
  1. Transtracheal (TTW)
    - conscious
    - Avoids oropharyngeal contamination
    - Tolerated in moderate dyspnoea
  2. Endotracheal (ETW) wash
    - GA required
    - Cats and small dogs
    - Risk of oropharyngeal contamination
94
Q

Bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) what are the 2 techniques, what both require, what gain and risk

A
- Bronchoscopic
○ Visual guidance
○ Sample specific sites
- Non-bronchoscopic
○ Blind technique
- Both require GA
- Lavage a large wedge of lung
- Small airway, alveolar and interstitial disease
- More risk of hypoxaemia
95
Q

Airway wash sample handling/interpretation what need to do, what tests and diagnostic for how many cases

A
  • Delicate samples-chill fluid, process quickly:
  • Direct smears fresh
    ○ fluid and mucus (cytology)
  • ETDA (cytology) and plain tubes (culture)
    ○ Lab cytology +/-cell counts
  • Swabs of fluid
    ○ Bacterial culture
    ○ +/-fungal culture
    ○ +/-Mycoplasma culture/PCR
  • Diagnostic 25% cases
    ○ infectious or overt malignancy
  • Supportive 50% cases - major process may need more information for a specific diagnosis
96
Q

Bronchoscopy what looking for

A
  • Tracheal collapse
  • Airway masses
  • Airways tears or strictures
  • Mucosal appearance
  • Lung lobe torsion
  • Bronchiectasis
  • Bronchial collapse/compression
  • Foreign body or parasites
  • Mucus, blood, exudate
97
Q

Trans-thoracic lung aspirate or biopsy when done, risk and contraindications

A
- Focal (solid) lesions
○ Imaging guidance
○ Low risk if against pleura
- Interstitial disease
○ More risk pneumo
○ BAL safer?
○ May need biopsy
Risks - chest tube might be needed -> referral maybe?
- Pneumothorax
- Haemothorax
- Pulmonary haemorrhage
Contraindications
- Cysts
- Abscesses
- Pulmonary hypertension
- Coagulopathy
98
Q

What are 3 otherLRT diagnostics that are uncommonly used and what used for

A
  1. Thoracotomy or thoracoscopy and lung biopsy
    - Larger samples: impression smear, histopathology, special stains and cultures
    - Sampling of local lymph nodes
    - Lobectomy: neoplasia, abscess, cyst, FB, torsion
  2. Arterial blood gas analysis
    - most accurate was to assess for hypoxaemia
  3. Pulmonary function testing (spirometry)
    - uncommonly performed, certain institutions only
99
Q

What are the 4 main tracheal and bronchial diseases

A

Major conditions

  1. CIRDC (canine infectious respiratory disease complex) - KENNEL COUGH
  2. Tracheobronchomalacia
  3. Canine chronic bronchitis
  4. Feline bronchial disease
100
Q

Canine infectious respiratory disease complex character, spread, location, generla treatment and pathogens involved

A
  • Lots of pathogens - canine adenovirus 2, canine parainfluenza virus, bordetella bronchiseptica
  • Acute, highly contagious
  • Nose-nose transmission
  • Confined to airways - tracheitis
    ○ Pneumonia rare
  • Usually self-limiting (2 wks)
    ○ Antibiotics rarely indicated!
  • Which dogs?
    ○ High risk where dogs of mixed ages/susceptibility congregate