Domain 4: Risk Management And Professional Responsibilities Flashcards
(217 cards)
1
Q
Secondary hypertension is typically associated with causes such as:
A
Renal disease.
Explanation:
Secondary hypertension, which accounts for very few cases, is associated with identifiable causes such as renal disease, stress, drug-induced side effects, sleep apnea, neurologic disorders, and many others.
2
Q
Heart rate drift or cardiovascular drift occurs when:
A
Heart rate increases due to a decrease in stroke volume.
Explanation:
Heart rate drift (also known as cardiovascular drift) is a result of a decrease in stroke volume due typically to dehydration. This elevates heart rate at submaximal loads and may decrease performance dramatically in a hot environment.
3
Q
Which of the following requires a more thorough medical history or examination?
A
Heart murmur.
Explanation:
While the presence of most of the signs and symptoms of cardiovascular, pulmonary, and metabolic diseases can be detected using a questionnaire, orthopnea, edema, and heart murmur require a more thorough medical history from the client and/or a health care provider exam.
4
Q
Which of the following is the MOST important behavior as it relates to modeling?
A
Demonstrating healthy nutritional habits
Explanation:
Most clients are motivated by a trainer who is also a good role model, someone who practices what she preaches. Thus, demonstrating healthy eating habits is important for modeling purposes.
5
Q
Demonstrating standard of care can BEST be accomplished by:
A
Maintaining professional certifications and continuing education.
Explanation:
Demonstrating adherence to the standard of care can be best accomplished by closely following and maintaining professional certifications and continuing education credits; this reflects the EP-C’s professionalism and commitment to integrity of the field.
6
Q
For all facility personnel, which of the following is the skill set that is MOST important?
A
Screening potential members for health and fitness factors
Explanation:
To lessen the possibility of litigation, facility personnel must be capable of thoroughly screening potential members.
7
Q
Which of the following is a physiological adaptation of heat acclimatization?
A
Lower core body temperature
Explanation:
Physiological responses to heat include lower core body temperature, lower skin temperature, higher sweat rate, higher plasma volume, lower heart rate at a specific workload, lower perception of effort, and improved conservation of sodium.
8
Q
To manage risk, employers must require ____________________ obtain a medical release prior to exercise training.
A
Men 45 years of age or older
Explanation:
Men 45 years of age or older should undergo a medical examination and possibly a medically supervised exercise test before engaging in vigorous exercise.
9
Q
The most commonly reported knee injury involves damage to the ________.
A
Anterior cruciate ligament
Explanation:
Because of its structure and insertion points, the anterior cruciate ligament is more frequently injured compared with the posterior cruciate ligament.
10
Q
Which of the following is recommended for minimizing liability for an injury to client?
A
Keeping detailed and specific records of each session.
Explanation:
Keeping detailed records of numbers of repetitions, sets, and weight loads on specific training days provides documentation on how you followed a reasonable plan of progression with the client.
11
Q
A common strategy of altitude training used by athletes to improve performance is known as:
A
Live high, train low
Explanation:
Today, many endurance athletes use altitude training to improve their athletic performance by practicing the live high, train low strategy, which is a unique strategy of gaining the benefits of high-altitude acclimatization (live high) and the maintenance of high-intensity training at sea level (train low) to occur in synchrony.
12
Q
A feature of cardiac disease symptoms that are ischemic in origin is:
A
Squeezing burning pain.
Explanation:
Key features of cardiac disease symptoms favoring an ischemic origin include constricting, squeezing, burning, or a heavy feeling in the chest.
13
Q
Once the blood pressure cuff and stethoscope are in place, the next step is to quickly inflate the cuff pressure to __________ above the first Korotkoff sound.
A
20 mm Hg
Explanation:
The blood pressure cuff should be quickly inflated to a pressure around 20 mm Hg above first Korotkoff sound.
14
Q
In addition to reviewing and screening a client’s medical record and designing an appropriate exercise plan, the EP-C must also:
A
Schedule an orientation with the client to review the plan.
Explanation:
An orientation session is scheduled with the client to review the EP-C’s exercise plan and discuss the importance of plan adherence to gain optimal health benefits as well as maintain safety.
15
Q
What is the most common mechanism for causing an ankle sprain?
A
Inversion
Explanation:
Ankle sprains most occur during inversion of the foot.
16
Q
A well-written and implemented medical emergency policy will dictate details as to which staff will:
A
Meet and direct paramedics to the scene.
Explanation:
An explicit medical emergency policy states that staff are certified in first aid and CPR with AED, and are well rehearsed for a timely response in carrying out the multiple duties expected of them, such as who coordinates the scene, who are first and assistant responders, who takes charge of crowd control, who meets and directs paramedics to the scene, and who is responsible for securing the member’s file along with notifying the nearest relative.
17
Q
Which of the following applies to federal employees ?
A
Drug-Free Workplace Act of 1988
Explanation:
The Drug-Free Workplace Act of 1988 and the mandatory guidelines for federal drug testing programs were specifically designed for federal employees in certain sensitive occupations relating to safety and security.
18
Q
Which of the following is most likely to increase blood pressure in a client with hypertension?
A
Strength training
Explanation:
High blood pressure is a unique risk factor because it may be aggravated by short-term exercise, such as weight training. Therefore, special consideration is needed when screening for exercise testing or training.
19
Q
The Certified Exercise Physiologist agrees to adhere to the ACSM Code of Ethics:
A
When registering for the ACSM Certified Exercise Physiologist certification exam.
Explanation:
All exam candidates are required to read and agree to the ACSM Code of Ethics prior to taking the certification exam. (http://certification.acsm.org/faq28-codeofethics)
20
Q
Tort law that regulates issues around professional liability for incidents caused due to conditions where training activity takes place is referred to as:
A
Premises liability.
Explanation:
Refer to ACSM’s Health/Fitness Facility Standards and Guidelines for information on legal guidelines and standards regulated under “premises liability”.
21
Q
Which of the following is the BEST way to minimize the risk of musculoskeletal injury as a client begins an exercise program?
A
Set realistic exercise goals for the program.
Explanation:
The best way to minimize musculoskeletal injury from the outset is to set realistic exercise goals to avoid overexercising.
22
Q
Which of the following is considered a cardiovascular disease risk factor?
A
Fasting glucose ≥126 mg/dL.
Explanation:
Because hypertension is commonly clustered with several other risk factors associated with CVD such as obesity, dyslipidemia, and diabetes, most hypertensive clients will fall into moderate or high risk categories and medical examination is recommended prior to exercise participation.
23
Q
Dyspnea is defined as:
A
Abnormally uncomfortable awareness of breathing.
Explanation:
Dyspnea, one of the principal symptoms of cardiac and pulmonary disease, is defined as an abnormally uncomfortable awareness of breathing.
24
Q
Which of the following is most likely during the initial adjustment to high altitude?
A
Sleep disturbance
Explanation:
Changes that could affect exercise performance when transferring to altitude include weight loss and sleep disturbances.
25
A direct result of increased sweat rates during exercise in a hot environment is:
A decrease in stroke volume.
Explanation:
Increased sweat rates may lead to a decrease in stroke volume, which then prompts an increase in heart rate to maintain cardiac output at submaximal workloads.
26
Which of the following is considered an intrinsic risk factor for musculoskeletal injury?
Inadequate conditioning
Explanation:
Inadequate conditioning is considered an intrinsic risk factor for musculoskeletal injury.
27
Once a blood pressure cuff is inflated, pressure should be released at a rate equal to:
2-5 mm Hg per second.
Explanation:
Once the cuff is inflated, slowly release pressure at a rate equal to 2-5 mm Hg per second.
28
The purpose of written emergency response policies and procedures is to enable staff to:
Respond to basic first-aid and emergency events in an appropriate and timely manner.
Explanation:
Facility operators must have written emergency response policies and procedures, which shall be reviewed regularly and physically rehearsed at least twice annually. These policies shall enable staff to respond to basic first-aid situations and emergency events in an appropriate and timely manner.
29
What is the most likely type of emergency that may occur in the majority of fitness facilities?
Cardiac event.
Explanation:
The most likely emergency is Code Blue or member down, indicating that a client is having a heart attack, stroke, or some other potentially fatal event. This emphasizes the need for an explicit medical emergency policy in which all staff must be well versed.
30
Which of the following types of insurance would protect an EP-C from a claim of ordinary negligence?
General liability
Explanation:
The EP-C can obtain a general liability insurance policy, which protects her from ordinary negligence, from a commercial general liability firm (CGL).
31
Fitness center clients are entitled to, in the eyes of the law, facilities that:
Are reasonably safe.
Explanation:
Courts have consistently held that clients are entitled to "reasonably safe" conditions, which the EP-C can foster by regularly inspecting, correcting, and warning of hazards in and around workout areas.
32
Syncope during exercise may result from cardiac disorders that prevent the normal rise in:
Cardiac output.
Explanation:
Dizziness and, in particular, syncope during exercise may result from cardiac disorders that prevent the normal rise, or produce an actual fall, in cardiac output.
33
Which of the following would you expect to see in an individual with unstable angina?
Symptoms of chest pain at rest
Explanation:
Unstable angina is a more severe condition often seen with symptoms of chest pain at rest that occur with little exertional stress.
34
Upon return to sea level, acclimatization to altitude has been shown to last up to:
3 weeks.
Explanation:
After returning to sea level, the benefits of altitude acclimatization have been shown to last up to 3 weeks.
35
Which of the following explains enhanced heat production in a cold environment?
Shivering threshold resets to a lower mean skin temperature
Explanation:
Cold acclimatization causes the shivering threshold to be reset to a lower mean skin temperature. This is a positive adaptation as it suggests cold acclimatization enhances the ability to maintain heat production through means besides shivering.
36
Which of the following is considered an extrinsic risk factor for musculoskeletal injury?
Excessive load on the body
Explanation:
An excessive load on the body is considered an extrinsic risk factor for musculoskeletal injury.
37
Which of the following BEST determines cardiovascular responses to exercise in an individual with cardiovascular disease?
Rate product pressure
Explanation:
The rate product pressure (RPP) can be useful to the EP-C when performing exercise testing or prescribing exercise to clients with cardiovascular disease who have been medically cleared for exercise. A lower RPP at a given submaximal exercise intensity indicates increased fitness levels.
38
After assessing blood pressure in both arms, you notice the reading is much higher in one arm. You should:
Use the higher pressure.
Explanation:
Blood pressure should be measured in both arms during the first examination. The higher pressure should be used when there is consistent interarm difference.
39
Regarding the handling of potentially hazardous materials, a facility must:
Have a written system for sharing information with patrons and employees.
Explanation:
Facility operators must have a written system for sharing information with members and users, employees, and independent contractors regarding the handling of potentially hazardous materials, including the handling of bodily fluids by the facility staff in accordance with the guidelines of the U.S. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA).
40
Pregnant women should carefully monitor intensity by using:
The talk test.
Explanation:
Intensity can be monitored by using perceived exertion. On a 6 to 20 scale, moderate intensity is 12 to 14 or an intensity at which a woman can still maintain a conversation.
41
To minimize musculoskeletal injury from the outset, which of the following should be prioritized?
Making the client aware of early signs of potential injury.
Explanation:
To minimize musculoskeletal injury from the outset, the EP-C should make clients aware of early signs of potential injury and take appropriate precautions. This may include temporarily ceasing the activity, scheduling more frequent rest days, or simply decreasing the frequency, intensity, or duration of exercise.
42
After job candidates are screened during the initial selection process, they should next proceed to interview with:
Various team members.
Explanation:
A multiple-stage interview process should be applied to each candidate who passes the initial selection process with input from various team members of the facility.
43
Which of the following questions must be avoided during a job interview?
"Do you have any physical limitations related to the job?"
Explanation:
The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) prohibits employment discrimination on the basis of disabilities or perceived disabilities. Thus, employers cannot directly ask whether an applicant has a particular disability or ask questions that are closely related to disability issues at any time during the hiring process.
44
Which of the following would protect the EP-C against errors and omissions?
Professional indemnity insurance
Explanation:
Professional indemnity insurance (PII), also called professional liability insurance (PLI) but more commonly known as errors and omissions (E&O), protects individuals who provide professional advice and service as part of their job responsibility.
45
Background checks are typically conducted by fitness facilities to verify which of the following?
Employment history
Explanation:
While background checks are normally conducted by government agencies or private enterprises for a fee, most fitness facilities conduct their own checks and are principally interested in criminal history and past employment verification.
46
A provoking factor of nonischemic cardiac disease symptoms is:
The completion of exercise.
Explanation:
Key features of cardiac disease symptoms against an ischemic origin include provoking factors of postexercise completion, provided by a specific body motion.
47
The most frequent claims of violation of scope of practice are in the area of:
Supplements.
Explanation:
Claims related to violations of scope of practice occur most frequently in the area of supplements.
48
Business owners are legally required to identify and eliminate reasonably foreseeable risks and to:
Warn customers of any persistently-hazardous conditions.
Explanation:
It is the duty of business owners to accommodate known risks adequately; business owners are obligated to identify and eliminate risks that are reasonably foreseeable and to appropriately warn patrons of any persistently hazardous conditions.
49
The final and critical last step in initial client screening is to:
Refer the client to a physician if warranted.
Explanation:
Step 8 of the initial client screening process is to refer the client to a physician or other health care provider if warranted.
50
The client screening process can be broken down into three phases comprising risk classification, health history evaluation and related assessments, and:
Medical clearance or referral.
Explanation:
The screening process includes three distinct, but related, phases: risk classification, health history evaluation and related assessments, and medical clearance or referral.
51
Legally, the duty to anticipate and plan for risks is called:
Foreseeability.
Explanation:
In law, foreseeability is the touchstone for imposing a duty upon someone to anticipate and plan for risks. As required by statute or law relating to foreseeability, every EP-C should implement and document appropriate emergency preparedness policies and procedures.
52
Which of the following is MOST accurate as it relates to the EP-C working with a client with cardiovascular disease (CVD)?
Upon completion of a cardiac rehabilitation program, the EP-C can provide a setting for CVD clients to continue safe exercise with proper supervision.
Explanation:
After completion of a cardiac rehabilitation program, the EP-C can provide a setting for CVD clients to continue safe exercise with proper supervision.
53
One benefit of initiating an exercise program for Type 2 diabetics is:
Improved insulin sensitivity.
Explanation:
The most beneficial aspect reported with exercise training is improved insulin sensitivity, which can result in a lower medication requirement and greater control of blood glucose levels.
54
During the initial adjustment period to high altitude, what physiological change occurs during exercise?
Stroke volume decreases
Explanation:
During the initial days of high-altitude exposure, stroke volume decreases yet heart rate increases to a greater extent, causing an increase in cardiac output at a given submaximal exercise intensity.
55
To minimize error in assessing blood pressure, the client must:
Refrain from smoking cigarettes or ingesting caffeine for at least 30 minutes preceding the measurement.
Explanation:
The client should refrain from smoking cigarettes or ingesting caffeine for at least 30 minues preceding the measurement.
56
Which of the following is an ACSM standard for risk management and emergency procedures?
AEDs in a facility shall be located within a 1.5-minute walk to any place in which they could potentially be needed.
Explanation:
So that an AED may be quickly procured in the event of an emergency, AEDs shall be located within a 1.5-minute walk to any place within the facility where it could be needed.
57
ACSM certified and registered professionals are guided by specific principles and standards set forth by which of the following?
Code of ethics
Explanation:
The ACSM Code of Ethics is intended to aid all certified and registered American College of Sports Medicine Credentialed Professionals (ACSM CP) to establish and maintain a high level of ethical conduct, as defined by standards by which an ACSM CP may determine the appropriateness of her conduct. (http://certification.acsm.org/faq28-codeofethics)
58
To maximize safety and effectiveness in exercise programming, facility managers should:
Ensure that members receive a formal and comprehensive orientation.
Explanation:
Managers have a primary responsibility to ensure that facility members receive a formal and comprehensive orientation related to effectiveness and safety in exercise programming.
59
The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) requires employers to provide which of the following for employees who may come in contact with potential hazards?
Cautions and warnings through written and posted notices
Explanation:
According to OSHA requirements, employees must be advised and have every right to expect that management will caution them about any potential hazards, whether of a physical or chemical nature.
60
Which of the following is MOST accurate regarding individuals with disabilities and the fitness industry?
There are many staff positions that can be handled by individuals with disabilities.
Explanation:
Within the fitness industry, there are many staff positions that can be handled by individuals with disabilities. In addition, there are individuals with disabilities who can carry out many of the functions of an EP-C and, in some cases, may be ideal candidates to offer classes for individuals with disabilities.
61
A new fitness and postrehabilitation center is opening. Management plans to conduct criminal background checks on prospective employees. Management should first:
Consult with legal counsel and verify the legality of this action.
Explanation:
The extent to which a facility's management may consider one's criminal history in making a hiring decision varies from state to state. Owing to this wide variation, management should consult a lawyer or do further legal research on state laws before probing into whether or not an applicant does in fact have a criminal past.
62
Which of the following requires a more thorough medical history or examination?
Heart murmur.
Explanation:
While the presence of most of the signs and symptoms of cardiovascular, pulmonary, and metabolic diseases can be detected using a questionnaire, orthopnea, edema, and heart murmur require a more thorough medical history from the client and/or a health care provider exam.
63
A characteristic sign of heart failure or bilateral chronic venous insufficiency is:
Bilateral ankle edema.
Explanation:
Bilateral ankle edema that is most evident at night is a characteristic sign of heart failure or bilateral chronic venous insufficiency.
64
Per the ACSM Code of Ethics for certified and registered professionals, EP-Cs practice within the scope of their:
Knowledge, skills, and abilities.
Explanation:
EP-Cs practice within the scope of their knowledge, skills, and abilities. (http://certification.acsm.org/faq28-codeofethics)
65
The acronym PRICE stands for:
Protect, rest, ice, compression, elevation.
Explanation:
The EP-C should encourage injured clients to use the PRICE (protect, rest, ice, compression, and elevation) method until clients can get an appointment with a physician.
66
Which of the following identifies clients who are moderate-to-high risk for cardiovascular disease?
ACSM risk factor thresholds
Explanation:
Using tools such as the ACSM coronary artery disease risk factor thresholds, which delineates which clients are at moderate to high risk based on cardiovascular risk factors, aids in identifying clients that need medical clearance.
67
Potential clients can be classified into risk levels using health status, symptoms, and risk factor information that places people into:
Low, moderate, or high levels.
Explanation:
Risk classification puts individuals into low, moderate, or high levels to determine who should be cleared by their physician prior to exercise.
68
Which of the following hormones is released by the kidneys in response to an ascent to altitude?
Erythropoietin
Explanation:
Within hours of ascent to altitude, the kidneys increase the release of the hormone erythropoietin to stimulate erythropoiesis, but this process takes time and the full benefits of erythropoiesis may not take effect for 4 or more weeks.
69
Which of the following is considered a cardiovascular disease risk factor?
Fasting glucose ≥126 mg/dL.
Explanation:
Because hypertension is commonly clustered with several other risk factors associated with CVD such as obesity, dyslipidemia, and diabetes, most hypertensive clients will fall into moderate or high risk categories and medical examination is recommended prior to exercise participation.
70
Because clients will have different levels of experience using various machines for exercises, you should:
Provide specific instructions and supervision.
Explanation:
When directing a client to use equipment, provide proper instructions and supervision.
71
What should you do FIRST with a person who suddenly falls to the floor while exercising?
Assess if the person is conscious.
Explanation:
The first action required when an individual is suspected of losing consciousness is to make sure that the person can "wake up".
72
To comply with the ACSM Code of Ethics, a Credentialed Professional is obligated to:
Provide education based on current research as well as industry standards and guidelines.
Explanation:
Per the scope of practice, an ACSM Credentialed Professional provides exercise information in a manner that is consistent with evidence-based science and medicine.
73
The range of professional activities the EP-C can undertake and the boundaries that limit those activities is referred to as:
Scope of practice.
Explanation:
Scope of practice refers to the range of permissible professional activities that the EP-C may undertake, coupled with an understanding of the boundaries that serve as limits on these activities.
74
While training your client, the equipment being used is making a strange noise and is not operating smoothly. You should:
Discontinue using the equipment and mark the equipment as out of order.
Explanation:
Certified Exercise Physiologists must exercise reasonable care through a consistent practice of regular inspections and correction of any known hazards such as worn or deficiently maintained equipment.
75
Your client forgot his athletic shoes and asks to train with you in his work boots. You should:
Not allow him to train with inadequate shoes.
Explanation:
Certified Exercise Physiologists need to check footwear and should not allow clients to train with inadequate shoes because poor fit, excess wear, and unsuitability to the activity all increase risk of injury.
76
At the minimum, at least _____ staff member(s) shall be trained and certified in the delivery of CPR and on duty during all facility operating hours.
One
Explanation:
A staffed facility must assign at least one staff member to be on duty during all facility operating hours who is currently trained and certified in the delivery of cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) and in the administration of an AED.
77
An employer decides to pass over an employee for a promotion based on the employee's credit report. As a result, the employer must:
Provide a copy of the report to the employee so he may challenge the veracity of the report if needed.
Explanation:
The Federal Trade Commission's Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA) states that applicants must give written permission to prospective employers if employers wish to obtain applicants' credit reports. If an employer decides not to hire an applicant or not to promote an existing employee based on his credit report, then that applicant or employee must be provided a copy of the report, so he may challenge the veracity of the report.
78
Which of the following applies to federal employees?
Drug-Free Workplace Act of 1988
Explanation:
The Drug-Free Workplace Act of 1988 and the mandatory guidelines for federal drug testing programs were specifically designed for federal employees in certain sensitive occupations relating to safety and security.
79
Lateral epicondylitis is commonly known as ________.
Tennis elbow
Explanation:
Tennis elbow (lateral epicondylitis), which creates lateral elbow pain, is the most widespread overuse injury of the adult elbow.
80
An ACSM Certified Exercise Physiologist is deemed proficient in writing exercise recommendations, leading and demonstrating safe and effective exercise, and:
Motivating individuals to start and maintain healthy behaviors.
Explanation:
ACSM Certified Exercise Physiologists are fitness professionals who develop and implement personalized exercise approaches individuals in healthy populations, or those with medical clearance to exercise, and are deemed proficient in motivating clients to begin and continue healthy behaviors.
81
Appropriate assessments to measure client fitness level include:
Resting and exercise heart rate.
Explanation:
Assessments are tests and measurements that the EP-C uses with clients to evaluate current physical and functional status; only rest/exercise heart rate provides information on fitness level, the other measures relate to health but not necessarily fitness.
82
Which of the following FITT parameters are the MOST appropriate starting points for a client with cardiovascular disease?
Episodes of 10–15 minutes performed two or three times each day
Explanation:
CVD clients usually have limited functional capacities; therefore, shorter exercise episodes of 10-15 minutes performed two or three times each day may be useful and often result in exercise being better tolerated.
83
Regular exercise yields which of the following changes as it relates to obesity comorbidities?
Decreased coronary artery disease risk factors
Explanation:
Regular exercise yields improvement in many obesity comorbidities, including decreased fasting blood glucose levels, increased insulin sensitivity, decreased triglyceride levels, and decreased coronary artery disease risk factors.
84
Which of the following limits heat loss for an individual in a cold environment?
Greater subcutaneous fat
Explanation:
Individuals with greater subcutaneous fat mass have an advantage at limiting heat loss in cold environments, as their thicker subcutaneous fat layer acts as a form of insulation or barrier between the warm blood and the cold environment.
85
How can increased sweat rates during exercise in a hot environment increase the risk for dehydration?
By reducing plasma volume
Explanation:
Increased sweat rates can cause a reduction in plasma volume and increase the risk of dehydration.
86
To reduce or eliminate hazards that may cause injury to employees and users of a health/fitness facility, facility operators must:
Ensure that a safety audit is conducted routinely.
Explanation:
Facility operators must ensure that a safety audit is conducted, which routinely inspects all areas of the facility to reduce or eliminate hazards that may cause injury to employees and health/fitness facility members or health/fitness facility users.
87
An apparently healthy 57-year-old female client signs up to start training at your fitness facility. She has experience with exercise and has just moved into the area. Per the American Heart Association (AHA) risk stratification, you should:
Have her sign all the required forms and begin training.
Explanation:
Women older than age 55 who have no symptoms of or known presence of heart disease or major coronary risk factors have no restrictions other than basic guidelines for exercise.
88
To minimize musculoskeletal injury from the outset, which of the following should be prioritized?
Making the client aware of early signs of potential injury.
Explanation:
To minimize musculoskeletal injury from the outset, the EP-C should make clients aware of early signs of potential injury and take appropriate precautions. This may include temporarily ceasing the activity, scheduling more frequent rest days, or simply decreasing the frequency, intensity, or duration of exercise.
89
Fitness facility staff who work with clients and provide exercise instruction must be trained in:
CPR.
Explanation:
ACSM, the American Heart Association (AHA), and International Health, Racquet Sportsclub Association (IHRSA) recommend that fitness facilities have written emergency procedures, and also recommend that staff responsible for working with program participants and providing instruction and leadership in specific modes of exercise must be trained in CPR.
90
ACSM and most EP-C certifications require which of the following training?
Cardiopulmonary resuscitation
Explanation:
Most EP-C certifications require that the EP-C have CPR training, and many also require first-aid training and automated external defibrillator (AED) training.
91
One of the individuals in your class collapses. You should first:
Check consciousness.
Explanation:
The first course of action during a response to an individual who has collapsed is to check consciousness of the victim.
92
The degree to which any reasonable or prudent EP-C would follow the same actions in a given set of circumstances is considered:
Standard of care.
Explanation:
A generally recognized duty for the EP-C is to conform activities to the standard of care, the degree of care that any reasonable or prudent EP-C would utilize under similar circumstances.
93
In terms of equipment use, proactive steps to managing and minimizing risk include:
Reviewing how to use each piece of equipment with all clients.
Explanation:
Equipment is an essential part of effective training programs, but the EP-C must remain alert to the special risks presented and not make assumptions about a client's ability to use equipment without demonstration.
94
With which of the following organizations has ACSM published joint position stands regarding client screening, staffing, emergency policies, equipment, and procedures?
The American Heart Association.
Explanation:
ACSM and the American Heart Association published joint position stands in 1998, 2002, and 2012; these organizations agree that a comprehensive written emergency plan is essential to promote safe and effective physical activity.
95
Upon return to sea level, acclimatization to altitude has been shown to last up to:
3 weeks.
Explanation:
After returning to sea level, the benefits of altitude acclimatization have been shown to last up to 3 weeks.
96
Which of the following is an example of sexual harassment?
Making offensive comments about women in general
Explanation:
The U.S. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (http://www.eeoc.gov/laws/types/sexual_harassment.cfm) defines sexual harassment in part as "unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, and other verbal or physical harassment of a sexual nature. Harassment does not have to be of a sexual nature, however, and can include offensive remarks about a person's sex. For example, it is illegal to harass a woman by making offensive comments about women in general."
97
For all facility personnel, which of the following is the skill set that is MOST important?
Screening potential members for health and fitness factors
Explanation:
To lessen the possibility of litigation, facility personnel must be capable of thoroughly screening potential members.
98
Type 1 diabetes is characterized by which of the following?
Absolute deficiency in blood insulin release
Explanation:
Type 1 diabetes is quite uncommon, found in only 5%-10% of all patients with diabetes. It is characterized by an absolute deficiency in blood insulin release because of the destruction of pancreatic insulin-secreting beta cells.
99
Which of the following is considered an intrinsic risk factor for musculoskeletal injury?
Inadequate conditioning
Explanation:
Inadequate conditioning is considered an intrinsic risk factor for musculoskeletal injury.
100
In which of the following muscles is a strain most likely to occur?
1) Biceps brachii
2) Latissimus dorsi
3) Quadriceps femoris
4) Transverse abdominis
Quadriceps femoris
Explanation:
Strains are most likely to occur in the muscles of the calf and thigh
101
What is a potential consequence for an ACSM Credentialed Professional whose conduct goes against the principles set forth in the code of ethics?
Loss of certification or registry status
Explanation:
Any ACSM CP may be disciplined or lose his certification or registry status for conduct that, in the opinion of the executive committee of the ACSM Committee on Certification and Registry Boards, goes against the principles set forth in this code. (http://certification.acsm.org/faq28-codeofethics)
102
Which federal agency BEST addresses federal requirements for hiring staff?
Department of Labor
Explanation:
To be thoroughly versed in prehiring and hiring requirements, employers should visit the U.S. Department of Labor website and search under the Hiring section for information.
103
A background check is usually conducted for potential workers performing in which of the following areas?
Clinical settings
Explanation:
Background checks are frequently requested by employers interviewing job applicants pursuing positions that require high security or substantial trust, such as in schools, hospitals, financial institutions, airports, and government.
104
Which of the following prohibits discrimination on the basis of race, color, gender, religion, and national origin?
Civil Rights Act of 1964
Explanation:
The Civil Rights Act of 1964 prohibits discrimination on the basis of race, color, gender, religion, and national origin.
105
The Civil Rights Act of 1964 and the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990 apply to which of the following?
Employment discrimination
Explanation:
Two important federal laws that prohibit employment discrimination related to preemployment inquiries include the Civil Rights Act of 1964 and the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990.
106
Syncope is defined as:
A loss of consciousness.
Explanation:
Syncope, defined as a loss of consciousness, is most commonly caused by reduced perfusion of the brain.
107
Which of the following is a critical aspect of proper risk management?
Documentation
Explanation:
Documentation is an important and critical aspect of risk management. The EP-C should maintain accurate records of client responses to testing and training, changes in reported health status, and how these are communicated to appropriate health care providers.
108
When using weight machines the EP-C can design instruction and supervision procedures for each exercise that include:
Checking for proper body alignment and equipment setup.
Explanation:
When working with weight training equipment, the EP-C can develop instruction and supervision procedures for each exercise that include an equipment and body scan to check for proper setup and body alignment to prevent accidents or injuries.
109
Assessments are tests and measurements used by the EP-C to evaluate physical and functional status; they indicate a client's:
Functional ability.
Explanation:
Assessments provide a current snapshot of the functional ability of a client that can be used to draft the exercise regimen, in conjunction with data from health-related questionnaires.
110
Foot and leg care is extremely important for clients who have medical conditions that can impact the lower extremities, especially those with:
Diabetes.
Explanation:
Recognition of foot and leg care issues is especially important if the EP-C works with clients who have diabetes.
111
For most obese individuals, increased exercise will promote the loss of regional fat, especially in:
Abdominal fat deposits.
Explanation:
Increased exercise in an obese client promotes the loss of regional fat, especially abdominal fat deposits.
112
For individuals who are borderline hypertensive, the recommended intervention is:
Endurance exercise.
Explanation:
Endurance exercise does lower resting systolic blood pressure and diastolic blood pressure values by 5-7 mm Hg and is thus indicated for individuals who may be borderline hypertensive.
113
Which of the following is a benefit of acclimatization of exercise to a cold environment?
Maintenance of hand and foot temperature
Explanation:
Cold acclimatization has also been shown to improve maintenance of hand and foot temperatures, potentially attenuating the loss of dexterity that normally accompanies cold extremities.
114
During exercise in a cold environment, the body will limit heat loss primarily through:
Shivering.
Explanation:
If core temperature decreases in a cold environment, the body attempts to increase heat production and limit heat loss via shivering and vasoconstriction of blood vessels in the skin.
115
Long duration exercise events in a cold environment increase the risk of:
Hypothermia.
Explanation:
Exercise in a cold environment facilitates heat loss. However, long duration exercise events in a cold environment increase the risk of hypothermia.
116
The ACSM Code of Ethics states that members should strive continuously to:
Improve knowledge and skill to benefit the public.
Explanation:
Section 1 of the ACSM Code of Ethics states that "Members should strive continuously to improve knowledge and skill and should make available to their colleagues and the public the benefits of their professional expertise."
117
The emergency medical policy is the MOST critical facility policy because it functions primarily to:
Ensure that minor problems do not escalate into major incidents and that major incidents do not intensify to fatal events.
Explanation:
The emergency medical policy is the most consequential fitness facility policies. It is incumbent on management to develop a written, venue-specific emergency response plan to deal with any reasonably foreseeable untoward event within the facility. The emergency plan's primary purpose is to ensure that minor problems do not escalate into major incidents and that major incidents do not intensify to fatal events.
118
The need to constantly monitor blood glucose before, during, and after exercise is an important precaution for clients with:
Type 2 diabetes.
Explanation:
Diabetic patients need constant blood glucose monitoring, and the ability to measure before, during, and after exercise is of upmost importance.
119
Which of the following is the MOST important exercise variable in preventing injuries?
Slow and gradual progression
Explanation:
Starting at a low level of intensity, frequency, and duration, and progressing slowly may minimize the risk of musculoskeletal injuries.
120
AED stands for:
Automated external defibrillator.
Explanation:
Most EP-C certifications require that the EP-C have CPR training, and many also require first-aid training and automated external defibrillator (AED) training.
121
The ACSM Code of Ethics requires that credentialed professionals maintain all of the following EXCEPT:
An updated business plan.
Explanation:
Although a credentialed professional should understand what is involved in a business plan, it is not specifically a part of the ACSM Code of Ethics.
122
Vigorous exercise, per the ACSM risk classification, is activity at what MET level?
6 METs or greater
Explanation:
Vigorous exercise occurs at an intensity that causes substantial increases in heart rate and breathing; at or above 60% VO2R, or at or above 6 METs.
123
Certified Expercise Physiologists should always confirm with clients that their risk classification and health information are accurate and up to date before:
Beginning exercise training.
Explanation:
Before proceeding with exercise training, the EP-C should confirm that risk classification and health information are up to date.
124
Which of the following is MOST accurate as it relates to the EP-C working with a client with cardiovascular disease (CVD)?
Upon completion of a cardiac rehabilitation program, the EP-C can provide a setting for CVD clients to continue safe exercise with proper supervision.
Explanation:
After completion of a cardiac rehabilitation program, the EP-C can provide a setting for CVD clients to continue safe exercise with proper supervision.
125
Which of the following must be handled in accordance with the guidelines of the U.S. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)?
Bodily fluids
Explanation:
Facility operators must have a written system for sharing information with members and users, employees, and independent contractors regarding the handling of potentially hazardous materials, including the handling of bodily fluids by the facility staff in accordance with the guidelines of the U.S. Occupational Safety and Health
126
Which of the following populations should take precautions to maintain hydration in warm environments because their sweat rates are much lower in general?
Adolescents
Explanation:
The ability to produce sweat is lower in adolescents than in adults, therefore staying well hydrated, particularly in warm conditions, should always be emphasized, encouraged, and even insisted upon by the EP-C.
127
To avoid potential charges of sexual harassment, the EP-C should:
Be cautious when touching clients while assisting and spotting them.
Explanation:
The EP-C must be aware that charges of sexual harassment by clients can be made against him, and therefore the EP-C needs to choose his words carefully and needs to be cautious when touching while assisting and spotting clients.
128
Dyspnea that occurs at rest in a recumbent position and is relieved upon sitting upright or standing is called:
Orthopnea.
Explanation:
Orthopnea refers to dyspnea occurring at rest in the recumbent position that is relieved promptly by sitting upright or standing.
129
A client sprains her ankle during a training session and is noticeably limping. You should:
Rest the ankle, apply ice and compression, then elevate the ankle.
Explanation:
The EP-C should encourage an injured client to use the PRICE (rest, ice, compression, and elevation) method until she can get an appointment with her physician.
130
Physical assessments should be designed to provide the EP-C with information on the client's:
Abilities and limitations.
Explanation:
Physical assessments provide information regarding the client's abilities and potential limitations. The EP-C must decide if referral to a health care provider is needed when potential problems are discovered during assessments.
131
Which of the following MUST be included as part of every client’s screening?
Health risk appraisal
Explanation:
Risk can be minimized by using the appropriate client screening tools and documentation.
132
Which of the following would protect the EP-C against errors and omissions?
Professional indemnity insurance
Explanation:
Professional indemnity insurance (PII), also called professional liability insurance (PLI) but more commonly known as errors and omissions (E&O), protects individuals who provide professional advice and service as part of their job responsibility.
133
A provoking factor of nonischemic cardiac disease symptoms is:
The completion of exercise.
Explanation:
Key features of cardiac disease symptoms against an ischemic origin include provoking factors of postexercise completion, provided by a specific body motion.
134
When giving a client advice, the EP-C risks liability for acting outside his scope of practice if:
The advice could be interpreted as unauthorized practice of a licensed professional, and results in client injury.
Explanation:
Consequences of stepping over the line into protected areas of licensed health care practitioners vary by state, but the EP-C is exposed to liability if advice can be interpreted as unauthorized practice of medicine or another licensed profession, and the advice results in client injury.
Reference:
135
ACSM risk classification defines moderate exercise as:
40% to less than 60% VO2R.
Explanation:
Moderate-intensity exercise is exercise that causes noticeable increases in heart rate and breathing; 40% to less than 60% VO2R or 3 less than 6 METs.
136
In general, how many days of training are recommended for heat acclimatization?
10 days
Explanation:
In general, heat acclimatization requires gradual exposure to exercise in the heat on consecutive days. In order for complete adaptation to occur, 2-4 hours of moderate- to high-intensity exercise in a hot environment for 10 consecutive days is suggested.
137
You think that one of your clients is exercising excessively and is showing signs of an eating disorder. You should:
Share your concern with the client, and suggest she seek professional guidance.
Explanation:
The EP-C should establish a network of allied healthcare professionals through which referrals can be made to physicians, physical therapists, dietitians, and other experts.
138
Your client asks you to recommend a cardio machine for her home use. Helping your client in this way is considered:
Acceptable if you work with reliable fitness equipment dealers to whom you refer the client.
Explanation:
Many clients ask for equipment recommendations, but EP-Cs should work only with reliable fitness equipment dealers when recommending equipment to clients and should not recommend one piece of equipment over another if they do not have a reliable vendor with whom to work.
139
Tests for muscular strength, muscular endurance, cardiorespiratory fitness, and measurement of flexibility provide the EP-C with information on the client's:
Current fitness status.
Explanation:
Assessment tests evaluate physical and functional status, but results do not indicate interest, history, or desire for change in a client.
140
In general, the first few days of exercise in a hot or humid environment should be modified by:
Decreasing intensity and providing more rest periods.
Explanation:
The first few days of exercise in a hot or humid environment should be light in intensity with frequent rest periods provided.
141
Which of the following BEST describes the scope of practice for an EP-C?
The specific tasks that an EP-C can perform
Explanation:
Scope of practice is the range of responsibility that determines the boundaries within which a profession operates.
142
A client with diabetes whose blood glucose is less than 70 mg · dL−1before or during exercise should:
Consume a snack of about 15 grams of carbohydrates.
Explanation:
If preexercise or during exercise blood glucose measurements are less than 70 mg/dL, a carbohydrate snack of about 15 grams is administered before starting or continuing exercise.
143
Which of the following is the MOST important exercise variable in preventing injuries?
Slow and gradual progression
Explanation:
Starting at a low level of intensity, frequency, and duration, and progressing slowly may minimize the risk of musculoskeletal injuries.
144
Which of the following applies to federal employees?
Drug-Free Workplace Act of 1988
Explanation:
The Drug-Free Workplace Act of 1988 and the mandatory guidelines for federal drug testing programs were specifically designed for federal employees in certain sensitive occupations relating to safety and security.
145
Syncope is defined as:
A loss of consciousness.
Explanation:
Syncope, defined as a loss of consciousness, is most commonly caused by reduced perfusion of the brain.
146
Clients returning to exercise following greater trochanteric bursitis should generally avoid:
Side-lying exercise positions that compress the lateral hip.
Explanation:
Trochanteric bursitis involves irritation of the bursa between the iliotibial band and greater trochanter of the femur. Thus, any type of pressure on the lateral hip should be avoided.
147
Which of the following is the MOST important behavior as it relates to modeling?
Demonstrating healthy nutritional habits
Explanation:
Most clients are motivated by a trainer who is also a good role model, someone who practices what she preaches. Thus, demonstrating healthy eating habits is important for modeling purposes.
148
Weight machines present less risk of injury than free weights because:
The client's body is more stable and movement is more restricted.
Explanation:
Machines carry a reduced risk of injury because movement is more restricted than with free weights and the client's body is more stable, although injuries do still happen and reasonable care is needed.
149
The final and critical last step in initial client screening is to:
Refer the client to a physician if warranted.
Explanation:
Step 8 of the initial client screening process is to refer the client to a physician or other health care provider if warranted.
150
Legally, the duty to anticipate and plan for risks is called:
Foreseeability.
Explanation:
In law, foreseeability is the touchstone for imposing a duty upon someone to anticipate and plan for risks. As required by statute or law relating to foreseeability, every EP-C should implement and document appropriate emergency preparedness policies and procedures.
151
For clients with cardiovascular disease, exercise intensity must be prescribed:
Below the myocardial ischemic threshold.
Explanation:
Exercise intensity is always prescribed below the myocardial ischemic threshold so that the client may tolerate the training and should not experience any symptoms of angina.
152
Which of the following aids in the removal of lipids from circulation?
High-density lipoproteins
Explanation:
High-density lipoprotein (HDL) is responsible for aiding in the removal of lipids from the circulation through reverse cholesterol transport.
153
Which of the following would you expect to see in an individual with unstable angina?
Symptoms of chest pain at rest
Explanation:
Unstable angina is a more severe condition often seen with symptoms of chest pain at rest that occur with little exertional stress.
154
A common strategy of altitude training used by athletes to improve performance is known as:
Live high, train low
Explanation:
Today, many endurance athletes use altitude training to improve their athletic performance by practicing the live high, train low strategy, which is a unique strategy of gaining the benefits of high-altitude acclimatization (live high) and the maintenance of high-intensity training at sea level (train low) to occur in synchrony.
155
During exercise in a cold environment, the body will limit heat loss primarily through:
Shivering.
Explanation:
If core temperature decreases in a cold environment, the body attempts to increase heat production and limit heat loss via shivering and vasoconstriction of blood vessels in the skin.
156
To measure a normal response to graded exercise, the EP-C should ________________ before, during, and after exercise.
Assess blood pressure and heart rate
Explanation:
To determine whether clients have an appropriate cardiovascular response to graded exercise, the EP-C should assess blood pressure and heart rate before, during, and after exercise.
157
During a workout, you notice that a client displays a sudden lack of coordination and balance and, when asked, reports trouble seeing. What is the MOST likely cause of these symptoms?
Stroke
Explanation:
Warning signs of a stroke include sudden confusion, trouble speaking or understanding, trouble seeing in one or both eyes, trouble walking, dizziness, or loss of balance or coordination.
158
Dyspnea is defined as:
Abnormally uncomfortable awareness of breathing.
Explanation:
Dyspnea, one of the principal symptoms of cardiac and pulmonary disease, is defined as an abnormally uncomfortable awareness of breathing.
159
A heart attack is characterized by which of the following signs and symptoms?
A squeezing pressure in the chest that can be mistaken for heartburn
Explanation:
Most EP-C certifications require CPR training, which includes recognizing the signs and symptoms of a heart attack. (http://circ.ahajournals.org/content/104/11/1212.full.pdf)
160
One of the individuals in your class collapses. You should first:
Check consciousness.
Explanation:
The first course of action during a response to an individual who has collapsed is to check consciousness of the victim.
161
To comply with the ACSM Code of Ethics, a Credentialed Professional is obligated to:
Provide education based on current research as well as industry standards and guidelines.
Explanation:
Per the scope of practice, an ACSM Credentialed Professional provides exercise information in a manner that is consistent with evidence-based science and medicine.
162
Demonstrating standard of care can BEST be accomplished by:
Maintaining professional certifications and continuing education.
Explanation:
Demonstrating adherence to the standard of care can be best accomplished by closely following and maintaining professional certifications and continuing education credits; this reflects the EP-C's professionalism and commitment to integrity of the field.
163
Based on the ACSM Code of Ethics, Certified Exercise Physiologists are prohibited from:
Providing services that may only be carried out by licensed health care professionals.
Explanation:
The EP-C may not provide services that are limited by state law to provision by another health care professional only, per the ACSM Code of Ethics for certified and registered professionals. (http://certification.acsm.org/faq28-codeofethics)
164
An ACSM Certified Exercise Physiologist is deemed proficient in writing exercise recommendations, leading and demonstrating safe and effective exercise, and:
Motivating individuals to start and maintain healthy behaviors.
Explanation:
ACSM Certified Exercise Physiologists are fitness professionals who develop and implement personalized exercise approaches individuals in healthy populations, or those with medical clearance to exercise, and are deemed proficient in motivating clients to begin and continue healthy behaviors.
165
When using weight machines the EP-C can design instruction and supervision procedures for each exercise that include:
Checking for proper body alignment and equipment setup.
Explanation:
When working with weight training equipment, the EP-C can develop instruction and supervision procedures for each exercise that include an equipment and body scan to check for proper setup and body alignment to prevent accidents or injuries.
166
The primary contributors for the cause of obesity are:
Increased caloric consumption and decreased activity.
Explanation:
Although the causes of obesity are complex and multifaceted, increased caloric consumption and decreased daily physical activity are the primary contributors. Treating obesity is most effective when exercise is combined with caloric restriction.
167
When exercising at a higher altitude, what must an unacclimatized individual modify in order to maintain the same relative intensity of exercise?
Reduce the absolute intensity of exercise
Explanation:
To stay at the same relative intensity of exercise (e.g., submaximal heart rate), unacclimatized individuals will have to reduce the absolute intensity of exercise at a higher altitude because of the greater difficulty.
168
Heart rate drift or cardiovascular drift occurs when:
Heart rate increases due to a decrease in stroke volume.
Explanation:
Heart rate drift (also known as cardiovascular drift) is a result of a decrease in stroke volume due typically to dehydration. This elevates heart rate at submaximal loads and may decrease performance dramatically in a hot environment.
169
Once a blood pressure cuff is inflated, pressure should be released at a rate equal to:
2-5 mm Hg per second.
Explanation:
Once the cuff is inflated, slowly release pressure at a rate equal to 2-5 mm Hg per second.
170
The first step in assessing resting blood pressure is to:
Have the client sit quietly for at least 5 minutes.
Explanation:
Patients should be seated quietly for at least 5 minutes in a chair with back support (rather than on an examination table) with their feet on the floor and their arm supported at heart level.
171
The ACSM Code of Ethics states that members should strive continuously to:
Improve knowledge and skill to benefit the public.
Explanation:
Section 1 of the ACSM Code of Ethics states that "Members should strive continuously to improve knowledge and skill and should make available to their colleagues and the public the benefits of their professional expertise."
172
A medical emergency policy should require that staff:
Are certified in CPR with AED.
Explanation:
Risk management emphasizes the need for an explicit medical emergency policy in which all staff must be well versed. Such a policy states that staff are certified in first aid and CPR with AED, and are well rehearsed for a timely response.
173
The purpose of conducting a background check for a job candidate is to:
Verify accuracy of a candidate's work experience, education, and other credentials.
Explanation:
Background checks allow management to evaluate and validate qualifications such as education and certifications, as well as check character references.
174
Background checks are typically conducted by fitness facilities to verify which of the following?
Employment history
Explanation:
While background checks are normally conducted by government agencies or private enterprises for a fee, most fitness facilities conduct their own checks and are principally interested in criminal history and past employment verification.
175
Which of the following prohibits discrimination on the basis of race, color, gender, religion, and national origin?
Civil Rights Act of 1964
Explanation:
The Civil Rights Act of 1964 prohibits discrimination on the basis of race, color, gender, religion, and national origin.
176
A provoking factor of nonischemic cardiac disease symptoms is:
The completion of exercise.
Explanation:
Key features of cardiac disease symptoms against an ischemic origin include provoking factors of postexercise completion, provided by a specific body motion.
177
The range of professional activities the EP-C can undertake and the boundaries that limit those activities is referred to as:
Scope of practice.
Explanation:
Scope of practice refers to the range of permissible professional activities that the EP-C may undertake, coupled with an understanding of the boundaries that serve as limits on these activities.
178
Business owners are legally required to identify and eliminate reasonably foreseeable risks and to:
Warn customers of any persistently-hazardous conditions.
Explanation:
It is the duty of business owners to accommodate known risks adequately; business owners are obligated to identify and eliminate risks that are reasonably foreseeable and to appropriately warn patrons of any persistently hazardous conditions.
179
What physiologic change occurs in response to high-altitude exposure and a lower partial pressure of oxygen?
Production of additional red blood cells
Explanation:
Altitude acclimatization requires adjusting to the lower partial pressure of oxygen (PO2). The lower PO2 at altitude stimulates the production of additional red blood cells (erythropoiesis) to increase the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood.
180
Which of the following is a physiological adaptation of heat acclimatization?
Lower core body temperature
Explanation:
Physiological responses to heat include lower core body temperature, lower skin temperature, higher sweat rate, higher plasma volume, lower heart rate at a specific workload, lower perception of effort, and improved conservation of sodium.
181
What is the most likely type of emergency that may occur in the majority of fitness facilities?
Cardiac event.
Explanation:
The most likely emergency is Code Blue or member down, indicating that a client is having a heart attack, stroke, or some other potentially fatal event. This emphasizes the need for an explicit medical emergency policy in which all staff must be well versed.
182
Which of the following is a benefit of a drug-free workplace in the fitness industry?
Safety may be enhanced with more alert employees.
Explanation:
Drug testing may be of interest to the fitness facility as some facilities may insist that staff, particularly instructors, not engage in using steroids or other illegal performance-enhancing drugs. Although employers rightfully argue that the safety of clientele and co-workers may depend on the alertness of fellow employees, there are understandable concerns about invasion of privacy.
183
Which of the following requires a more thorough medical history or examination?
Heart murmur.
Explanation:
While the presence of most of the signs and symptoms of cardiovascular, pulmonary, and metabolic diseases can be detected using a questionnaire, orthopnea, edema, and heart murmur require a more thorough medical history from the client and/or a health care provider exam.
184
The pain that occurs in muscles with inadequate blood supply because they are stressed by exercise is referred to as:
Intermittent claudication.
Explanation:
Intermittent claudication refers to the pain that occurs in a muscle with an inadequate blood supply, usually as a result of atherosclerosis, that is stressed by exercise.
185
Which of the following would you expect to see in an individual with unstable angina?
Symptoms of chest pain at rest
Explanation:
Unstable angina is a more severe condition often seen with symptoms of chest pain at rest that occur with little exertional stress.
186
Which of the following is considered an extrinsic risk factor for musculoskeletal injury?
Excessive load on the body
Explanation:
An excessive load on the body is considered an extrinsic risk factor for musculoskeletal injury.
187
Which of the following is considered an intrinsic risk factor for musculoskeletal injury?
Inadequate conditioning
Explanation:
Inadequate conditioning is considered an intrinsic risk factor for musculoskeletal injury.
188
Which of the following is a form of discrimination in the workplace?
Sexual harassment
Explanation:
Sexual harassment is a form of sex discrimination that violates Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964. (www.eeoc.gov/eeoc/publications/fs-sex.cfm)
189
The Civil Rights Act of 1964 and the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990 apply to which of the following?
Employment discrimination
Explanation:
Two important federal laws that prohibit employment discrimination related to preemployment inquiries include the Civil Rights Act of 1964 and the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990.
190
Clients returning to exercise following greater trochanteric bursitis should generally avoid:
Side-lying exercise positions that compress the lateral hip.
Explanation:
Trochanteric bursitis involves irritation of the bursa between the iliotibial band and greater trochanter of the femur. Thus, any type of pressure on the lateral hip should be avoided.
191
Which of the following hormones is released by the kidneys in response to an ascent to altitude?
Erythropoietin
Explanation:
Within hours of ascent to altitude, the kidneys increase the release of the hormone erythropoietin to stimulate erythropoiesis, but this process takes time and the full benefits of erythropoiesis may not take effect for 4 or more weeks.
192
Which of the following aids in the removal of lipids from circulation?
High-density lipoproteins
Explanation:
High-density lipoprotein (HDL) is responsible for aiding in the removal of lipids from the circulation through reverse cholesterol transport.
193
Secondary hypertension is typically associated with causes such as:
Renal disease.
Explanation:
Secondary hypertension, which accounts for very few cases, is associated with identifiable causes such as renal disease, stress, drug-induced side effects, sleep apnea, neurologic disorders, and many others.
194
During the initial adjustment period to high altitude, what physiological change occurs during exercise?
Stroke volume decreases
Explanation:
During the initial days of high-altitude exposure, stroke volume decreases yet heart rate increases to a greater extent, causing an increase in cardiac output at a given submaximal exercise intensity
195
Which of the following populations should take precautions to maintain hydration in warm environments because their sweat rates are much lower in general?
Adolescents
Explanation:
The ability to produce sweat is lower in adolescents than in adults, therefore staying well hydrated, particularly in warm conditions, should always be emphasized, encouraged, and even insisted upon by the EP-C.
196
Which of the following is a fair inquiry during a job interview?
"What is your experience in the industry?"
Explanation:
Any types of inquiries made of job applicants with respect to their race, creed, color, national origin, age, gender, marital status, or any physical, mental, or sensory handicap that could be used for discriminatory purposes are unlawful and must be avoided.
197
Which federal agency BEST addresses federal requirements for hiring staff?
Department of Labor
Explanation:
To be thoroughly versed in prehiring and hiring requirements, employers should visit the U.S. Department of Labor website and search under the Hiring section for information.
198
When giving a client advice, the EP-C risks liability for acting outside his scope of practice if:
The advice could be interpreted as unauthorized practice of a licensed professional, and results in client injury.
Explanation:
Consequences of stepping over the line into protected areas of licensed health care practitioners vary by state, but the EP-C is exposed to liability if advice can be interpreted as unauthorized practice of medicine or another licensed profession, and the advice results in client injury.
199
The client screening process can be broken down into three phases comprising risk classification, health history evaluation and related assessments, and:
Medical clearance or referral.
Explanation:
The screening process includes three distinct, but related, phases: risk classification, health history evaluation and related assessments, and medical clearance or referral.
200
To enhance training and reduce injury risk, appropriate exercise clothing should allow movement, be comfortable and:
Breathable.
Explanation:
Certified Exercise Physiologists should educate clients about appropriate clothing; clothing should be comfortable, breathable, and allow movement to avoid overheating and to not interfere with exercises.
201
One benefit of initiating an exercise program for Type 2 diabetics is:
Improved insulin sensitivity.
Explanation:
The most beneficial aspect reported with exercise training is improved insulin sensitivity, which can result in a lower medication requirement and greater control of blood glucose levels.
202
Regarding the handling of potentially hazardous materials, a facility must:
Have a written system for sharing information with patrons and employees.
Explanation:
Facility operators must have a written system for sharing information with members and users, employees, and independent contractors regarding the handling of potentially hazardous materials, including the handling of bodily fluids by the facility staff in accordance with the guidelines of the U.S. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA).
203
The ACSM Code of Ethics states that members should strive continuously to:
Improve knowledge and skill to benefit the public.
Explanation:
Section 1 of the ACSM Code of Ethics states that "Members should strive continuously to improve knowledge and skill and should make available to their colleagues and the public the benefits of their professional expertise."
204
Lateral epicondylitis is commonly known as ________.
Tennis elbow
Explanation:
Tennis elbow (lateral epicondylitis), which creates lateral elbow pain, is the most widespread overuse injury of the adult elbow.
205
During an outdoor training session on a warm day, your client begins to exhibit a weak rapid pulse, thirst, general weakness, reduced rate of sweating, and headache. He is MOST likely experiencing:
Heat exhaustion.
Explanation:
Warning sings of heat exhaustion include nausea and headaches. The client must rest in a cool place until the nausea passes; drinking fluids to rehydrate is critical, and lying down may help relieve headaches.
206
Per the ACSM Code of Ethics for certified and registered professionals, EP-Cs practice within the scope of their:
Knowledge, skills, and abilities.
Explanation:
EP-Cs practice within the scope of their knowledge, skills, and abilities. (http://certification.acsm.org/faq28-codeofethics)
207
Which of the following identifies clients who are moderate-to-high risk for cardiovascular disease?
ACSM risk factor thresholds
Explanation:
Using tools such as the ACSM coronary artery disease risk factor thresholds, which delineates which clients are at moderate to high risk based on cardiovascular risk factors, aids in identifying clients that need medical clearance.
208
The purpose of conducting a background check for a job candidate is to:
Verify accuracy of a candidate's work experience, education, and other credentials.
Explanation:
Background checks allow management to evaluate and validate qualifications such as education and certifications, as well as check character references.
209
Which of the following questions must be avoided during a job interview?
"Do you have any physical limitations related to the job?"
Explanation:
The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) prohibits employment discrimination on the basis of disabilities or perceived disabilities. Thus, employers cannot directly ask whether an applicant has a particular disability or ask questions that are closely related to disability issues at any time during the hiring process.
210
A feature of cardiac disease symptoms that are ischemic in origin is:
Squeezing burning pain.
Explanation:
Key features of cardiac disease symptoms favoring an ischemic origin include constricting, squeezing, burning, or a heavy feeling in the chest.
211
For most obese individuals, increased exercise will promote the loss of regional fat, especially in:
Abdominal fat deposits.
Explanation:
Increased exercise in an obese client promotes the loss of regional fat, especially abdominal fat deposits.
212
When a client's muscle or joint problem is brought on or aggravated by exercise, the EP-C should:
Refer the client to a health care professional.
Explanation:
Clients reporting a muscle or joint problem such as redness, swelling, pain, stiffness, or burning sensation that was either brought on or aggravated by exercise should be referred to a health care professional.
213
The pain that occurs in muscles with inadequate blood supply because they are stressed by exercise is referred to as:
Intermittent claudication.
Explanation:
Intermittent claudication refers to the pain that occurs in a muscle with an inadequate blood supply, usually as a result of atherosclerosis, that is stressed by exercise.
214
Which of the following is the MOST important exercise variable in preventing injuries?
Slow and gradual progression
Explanation:
Starting at a low level of intensity, frequency, and duration, and progressing slowly may minimize the risk of musculoskeletal injuries.
215
Long duration exercise events in a cold environment increase the risk of:
Hypothermia
Explanation:
Exercise in a cold environment facilitates heat loss. However, long duration exercise events in a cold environment increase the risk of hypothermia.
216
ACSM certified and registered professionals are guided by specific principles and standards set forth by which of the following?
Code of ethics
Explanation:
The ACSM Code of Ethics is intended to aid all certified and registered American College of Sports Medicine Credentialed Professionals (ACSM CP) to establish and maintain a high level of ethical conduct, as defined by standards by which an ACSM CP may determine the appropriateness of her conduct. (http://certification.acsm.org/faq28-codeofethics)
217
For most obese individuals, increased exercise will promote the loss of regional fat, especially in:
Abdominal fat deposits.
Explanation:
Increased exercise in an obese client promotes the loss of regional fat, especially abdominal fat deposits.
