Domain 2: Exercise Prescription And Implementation

Question 1

Which of the following is recommended to assess perceived exertion in children?

Answer 1

OMNI scale

Explanation:

The child-friendly OMNI scale is 0-10, and has illustrations to describe exertion levels.

Question 2

Which muscles function to rotate the lumbar spine?

Answer 2

Internal and external obliques

Explanation:

The internal oblique (same side rotator) and external oblique (opposite side rotator) are agonists for lumbar spine rotation.

Question 3

Which of the following is considered the prime mover for both shoulder flexion and shoulder horizontal adduction?

Answer 3

Pectoralis major

Explanation:

Examples of exercises that utilize the action of the pectoralis major are the chest fly, pec deck, cable crossover (horizontal adduction), incline bench press, and dumbbell front raise (flexion).

Question 4

Which rotator cuff muscle internally rotates the shoulder joint?

Answer 4

Subscapularis

Explanation:

The subscapularis internally rotates the glenohumeral joint.

Question 5

A client has a winging scapula at the end of the push phase of a push-up. Weakness in which of the following muscles is the MOST likely cause?

Answer 5

Serratus anterior

Explanation:

During the final push phase of a push-up, the serratus anterior must be strong to complete the movement and prevent the scapula from winging.

Question 6

Using the estimate of HRmax method, what is the MOST appropriate heart rate range for an apparently healthy, 20-year-old client?

Answer 6

140 to 170 bpm

Explanation:

For apparently healthy individuals, the range is often narrowed to 70% to 85% of maximal heart rate.Therefore, for the 20-year-old, moderately active client, the target heart rate range will be 140 to 170 bpm.

Question 7

The MOST important principle regarding core training is to:

Answer 7

Maintain cocontraction of the deep stabilizers.

Explanation:

Regardless of the stage of core training, it is critical for the client to maintain cocontraction of the deep stabilizers. When stabilization can no longer be maintained, the exercise should be stopped.

Question 8

Your hypertensive client has been cleared to exercise by a physician. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate program?

Answer 8

Moderate cardiovascular and low-intensity resistance training

Explanation:

Resistance training is considered a supplement to aerobic exercise and should not be prescribed as the primary form of activity for clients with hypertension. When supplementing with resistance training, intensity should be kept at 60% to 80% 1 RM.

Question 9

When exercising in the heat, which material works best to keep the body cool?

Answer 9

CoolMax

Explanation:

Clothing made from dry-wick fibers maximize evaporation and minimize sweat absoprtion (ACSM’s Primary Care Sports Medicine, 2007 p. 139).

Question 10

The term metabolic rate is defined as:

Answer 10

The rate at which calories are expended.

Explanation:

The rate at which calories are expended is called the metabolic rate.

Question 11

Which of the following is NOT a food group and yet provides essential nutrients?

Answer 11

Oils

Explanation:

Oils are not a food group, but they do provide essential nutrients and are therefore included in USDA recommendations for what to eat.

Question 12

Which of the following activities relies primarily on the creatine phosphate energy system?

Answer 12

golf swing

Explanation:

Exercises that require explosive, short-duration movements such as a golf swing primarily utilize the creatine phosphate system.

Question 13

How many days are required to become acclimated to the heat?

Answer 13

10

Explanation:

In general, exercise should be performed in the heat for 10 consecutive days to become acclimated.

Question 14

Weight loss after exercise indicates less than optimal hydration. Athletes should consume ________ of fluid per pound of weight lost during activity.

Answer 14

1 pint (approximately 600 mL)

Explanation:

Within 2 hours of exercise, people should drink at least 20 oz (600 mL or 1 pint) of fluid per pound of body weight that was lost during the exercise session.

Question 15

Deborah recently went through menopause and is finding that maintaining her weight isn’t as easy as it used to be and she would like to lose weight. Her husband is not supportive of exercise, and Deborah is not motivated without his support. What is the best exercise self-regulation strategy for helping Deborah begin a successful exercise program?

Answer 15

Revisit Deborah’s motivations for exercise, and encourage her to replace her weight-loss goals with goals related to meeting new people, relieving stress, and feeling good.

Explanation:

Deborah’s self-esteem and poor body image may be discouraging her from exercise. Use the strategy for exercise self-regulation: revisit Deborah’s motivations for exercise and encourage her to replace her weight-loss goals with goals related to meeting new people, relieving stress, and feeling good.

Question 16

Your client has set a goal of running 3 times per week for 2 months to increase his fitness level and lose weight. What is the BEST way to measure this goal?

Answer 16

Track the duration and intensity of each workout in a daily log.

Explanation:

It is important for clients to track their specific short-term goals relative to their long-term goal;in this case, the client needs to track duration and frequency daily.

Question 17

To stretch the latissimus dorsi, the position of the arm should be placed in maximal ________ in the frontal plane with slight trunk lateral flexion to the opposite side.

Answer 17

Abduction

Explanation:

The latissimus dorsi is stretched when elongated in a position that is opposite to the muscle action. Since the latissimus dorsi mainly extends and adducts the shoulder joint, a stretch would occur when the shoulder is placed in maximal abduction with lateral flexion to the contralateral side.

Question 18

Which of the following muscles is BEST suited to prevent scapular winging?

Answer 18

Serratus anterior

Explanation:

Winging of the scapula results from weakness or dysfunction of the serratus anterior.

Question 19

Overweight or obese clients who are seeking to lose weight should perform a minimum of ________ minutes of moderate-intensity exercise each week.

Answer 19

240

Explanation:

For obese clients, weight loss and enhanced prevention of regaining weight will likely require approximately 250 to 300 minutes or 2,000 kcal of moderate-intensity physical activity per week.

Question 20

What does a partial squat create when done prior to a vertical jump?

Answer 20

Prestretch

Explanation:

Individuals can perform a jump reach test for vertical height. Performing a partial squat position prior to a vertical jump causes a prestretch of the jumping muscles.

Question 21

Which of the following concepts, if applied, makes resistance training easier to perform?

Answer 21

F = ma

Explanation:

The law of acceleration (F = ma) is Newton’s second law of motion and states that force is proportional to the product of an object’s mass multiplied by its acceleration.

Question 22

Which muscles act as agonist muscles during a lateral cable leg lift?

Answer 22

Gluteus medius and minimus

Explanation:

The gluteus medius and minimus lie deep to the gluteus maximus and are abductors and medial rotators of the hip.

Question 23

Increased mitochondrial density is a result of:

Answer 23

Chronic cardiorespiratory activity.

Explanation:

The mitochondria is the powerhouse of the cell; therefore, increased mitochondrial density is a result of chronic cardiorespiratory activity.

Question 24

Which type of movement of the lumbar spine creates the MOST harmful stress?

Answer 24

Rotation

Explanation:

The anatomical design of the articulations of the spine is well suited for compressive forces, whereas rotational movements create potentially harmful stresses to these same structures.

Question 25

Which of the following would MOST likely lead to impingement syndrome?

Answer 25

Over-developed anterior deltoid Explanation: The anterior deltoid is often more developed than the posterior deltoid in most individuals, which may lead to postural abnormalities (shoulder forward and internally rotated) and may be related to impingement.

Question 26

Which of the following muscles exerts an upward pull on the posterior surfaces of the pelvis resulting in a neutral pelvic position?

Answer 26

Erector spinae Explanation: The erector spinae are agonists in spinal extension. When strong, these muscles will also exert an upward pull of the posterior surface to counteract an anteverted pelvis, resulting in a neutral spine.

Question 27

Which of the following cardiac variables will increase as a result of regular aerobic training at a submaximal effort?

Answer 27

Arteriovenous oxygen difference Explanation: In response to training, the amount of oxygen extracted by the active muscles increases. This reflects the difference between the oxygen content of arterial blood and the oxygen content of venous blood.

Question 28

During an outdoor training session, your client begins to complain about fatigue and muscle cramping. You should:

Answer 28

Stop the exercise, and have the client rest in a cool place. Explanation: The exercises should be stopped immediately if the client complains of pain or the EP-C suspects that the client is in pain. The last thing the EP-C wants to do is induce or aggravate an injury.

Question 29

What is the third phase in a traditional linear periodization program?

Answer 29

Peaking Explanation: The four phases of traditional linear periodization are hypertrophy, strength/power, peaking, and recovery.

Question 30

Which of the following activities relies predominantly on anaerobic glycolysis for energy?

Answer 30

400-m run Explanation: A 400-m run relies predominantly on anaerobic glycolysis.

Question 31

Fat intake should be no more than ________ of total daily calories.

Answer 31

30% Explanation: The generally accepted healthy limit for fat intake is no more than 30% of total daily calories.

Question 32

Which of the following assessments is contraindicated for an unconditioned client?

Answer 32

1.5-mile test Explanation: The 1.5-mile test is contraindicated for unconditioned beginners, individuals with symptoms of heart disease, and those with known heart disease or risk factors for heart disease. Clients should be able to jog for 15 minutes continuously to complete this test and obtain a reasonable prediction of their aerobic capacity.

Question 33

The BEST cardiovascular training routine for someone with diabetes is:

Answer 33

Daily for 20 to 60 minutes. Explanation: Consistency in a daily routine is the major pillar in diabetes care.

Question 34

Your 38-year-old female client wants to lose weight, but is concerned that resistance training will make her "bulk up." You should:

Answer 34

Explain how resistance training can gain lean body mass and raise resting metabolism. Explanation: Educate the client about the meaning of "toning up" and the importance of increasing lean body mass, while also promoting cardiorespiratory exercise as a way to burn large numbers of calories and reduce excessive body fat.

Question 35

There is some evidence to suggest that static stretching may contribute to a decrease in:

Answer 35

Muscular strength. Explanation: There is some evidence to suggest that static stretching may contribute to decreased muscular strength.

Question 36

What would be a good target heart rate range for a deconditioned 50-year-old male?

Answer 36

77 to 96 bpm Explanation: For individuals with lower fitness, intensity levels as low as 45% VO2max or below may provide sufficient challenge to increase VO2max.

Question 37

What does the 1 RM bench press assess?

Answer 37

Strength of the muscles involved in arm extension Explanation: The 1 RM bench press measures the strength of the muscles involved in arm extension. Research has shown that the single best weightlifting test for predicting total dynamic strength is the 1 RM bench press.

Question 38

The EP-C determines that a desired small gain would require too much time for a client to achieve. Which of the following is MOST appropriate?

Answer 38

Capping the training session. Explanation: A concept called capping may need to be applied to various training situations when small gains will require very large amounts of time to achieve, yet are not necessary for overall success.

Question 39

A female client is taking a multivitamin supplement and she has no specific nutrient deficiencies. What should the supplement provide?

Answer 39

A maximum of 100% of recommended daily allowances Explanation: People wishing to take nutrient supplements without a nutrient deficiency diagnosis should limit intake to multivitamin and multimineral supplements that provide no more than 100% of recommended daily allowances.

Question 40

Which of the following terms refers to muscle contraction force created by the sliding-filament theory?

Answer 40

Tension Explanation: Active force or tension refers to the muscular contraction created by the sliding-filament theory.

Question 41

The muscles that abduct the shoulder joint are the:

Answer 41

Medial deltoid and supraspinatus. Explanation: The supraspinatus primarily initiates the abduction. The medial deltoid continues the abduction in concert with via a force couple.

Question 42

When using variable-resistance devices, what are the three types of strength curves?

Answer 42

Ascending, descending, and bell-shaped Explanation: There are three major types of strength curves with variable-resistance devices: ascending, descending, and bell-shaped.

Question 43

Which of the following best summarizes the effect of regular exercise on dyslipidemia?

Answer 43

Regular exercise can increase HDL-C levels. Explanation: Regular exercise improves cholesterol profile by increasing HDL-C levels.

Question 44

Compared to nonathletes, the protein requirement for physically active people is:

Answer 44

Approximately double. Explanation: The protein requirement for physically active people is about double that of nonathletes.

Question 45

Which of the following activities relies predominantly on anaerobic glycolysis for energy?

Answer 45

400-m run Explanation: A 400-m run relies predominantly on anaerobic glycolysis.

Question 46

Which type of stretch would be MOST appropriate to warm up for soccer?

Answer 46

Dynamic Explanation: Dynamic warm-up stretches and exercise are most appropriate for sports-specific training. Static stretching prior to sports training has been shown to decrease performance.

Question 47

How many repetitions per exercise should be performed for enhanced muscular strength?

Answer 47

8 to 12 Explanation: Per ACSM's FITT principle for resistance training, 8 to 12 repetitions are recommended to improve muscular strength.

Question 48

What is the ideal repetition range for an apparently healthy adult who wants to gain muscle hypertrophy?

Answer 48

8 to 12 Explanation: Approximately 8 to 12 repetitions is recommended to increase muscular hypertrophy.

Question 49

What is the recommended duration and frequency of resistance exercise for individuals 6-17 years of age?

Answer 49

60 minutes per day, at least 3 days per week Explanation: Children should participate in at least 60 minutes per day of moderate- to vigorous-intensity physical activity, and include resistance exercise and bone-loading activity at least 3 days per week.

Question 50

Which of the following BEST describes the Small Changes Model of behavior change?

Answer 50

Gradual and cumulative behavior change is achieved relative to baseline activity. Explanation: The small changes model focuses on gradual change that is cumulative and increases self-efficacy to further behavior change.

Question 51

The most common mineral deficiency the EP-C is likely to encounter is:

Answer 51

Iron. Explanation: Iron and zinc are critically important for energy metabolism but are among the nutrients of which people may not be consuming enough. The most common nutrient deficiency in most industrialized countries is iron.

Question 52

Which of the following durations for the plank exercise is MOST appropriate for a beginner client?

Answer 52

15 seconds Explanation: Many clients find it challenging to maintain the position for even 30 to 60 seconds while keeping the scapulae depressed.

Question 53

Which statement would be BEST when describing why an older adult client needs a balance exercise?

Answer 53

"Dynamic balance is essential to decrease your risk for falling. It is really simple; just walk on the floor as if you are on a tightrope." Explanation: A dynamic balance exercise involves transferring body weight from one foot to the other; for example, pretending to walk along a tightrope, or a line on the floor without falling off.

Question 54

Which of the following is MOST important when working with special needs clients?

Answer 54

Implementing the appropriate levels of training intensity Explanation: Implementing the appropriate levels of training intensity is critical as more people with special needs seek to work with Certified Exercise Physiologists.

Question 55

Adduction

Answer 55

Movement of a limb toward the midline of the body or toward another part

Question 56

Abduction

Answer 56

The movement of a limb away from the midline of the body or from another part

Question 57

What is the third phase in a traditional linear periodization program?

Answer 57

Peaking Explanation: The four phases of traditional linear periodization are hypertrophy, strength/power, peaking, and recovery.

Question 58

A client comes to you wishing to train for a half marathon. By prescribing running to your client, you are adhering to which of the following principles?

Answer 58

Specificity of training Explanation: Specificity of training states that specific exercises elicit specific demands based on training adaptations.

Question 59

It has been estimated that a total of ________ liters of fluid per day would be required to maintain normal hydration in athletes who are exercising at high altitude.

Answer 59

3 to 4 Explanation: It has been estimated that a total of 3 to 4 liters of fluid per day would be required to maintain normal hydration in athletes who are exercising at high altitude.

Question 60

Target exercise intensity for clients with cardiovascular disease should fall ________ below a heart rate that has previously elicited abnormal clinical symptoms.

Answer 60

10 to 15 bpm Explanation: Target exercise intensity should fall 10 and 15 bpm below a heart rate that has previously elicited abnormal clinical symptoms (e.g., chest pain or other angina symptoms).

Question 61

Protein consumed beyond ________ is either stored as fat or metabolized as an energy source.

Answer 61

1.5 grams per kg of body weight Explanation: Humans are incapable of using protein for anabolic purposes above 1.5 grams protein per kg of body weight.

Question 62

Greater amounts of physical activity are likely to be needed to achieve weight loss and prevent weight regain in adults, thus requiring ________ minutes of moderate physical activity per week.

Answer 62

200 to 300 Explanation: Greater amounts of physical activity (greater than 250 min/week) have been associated with clinically significant weight loss.

Question 63

What is the recommended minimum duration of weekly, moderate-intensity exercise for weight maintenance after weight loss?

Answer 63

250 minutes Explanation: For weight loss or maintaining weight loss, the recommended duration of exercise is 50 to 60 minutes per day most days of the week, or 250 to 300 minutes per week.

Question 64

What would be the BEST progression for a balance training exercise with an older adult?

Answer 64

Seated closed eyes, seated arms crossed, seated on a physioball, standing on the floor single leg, standing on a BOSU ball Explanation: The best progression is seated closed eyes, seated arms crossed, seated on a physioball, standing on the floor single leg, standing on a BOSU ball. It is important to progress the exercise from the least physiologically demanding to the most.

Question 65

Lifting a barbell in a power rack a few inches until it is pressed or pulled against the rack's pins is known as:

Answer 65

Functional isometrics. Explanation: Functional isometrics (ISOM) can include lifting a barbell in a power rack a few inches until it is pressed or pulled against the rack's pins. The client continues to push and pull maximally for approximately 2 to 6 seconds with a high rate of force development.

Question 66

Functional isometric strength training is effective when performed near the sticking point or ________ of the exercise.

Answer 66

Weak point Explanation: Functional isometrics (ISOM) can be performed in multiple areas of the range of motion (ROM), but are most effective when performed near the sticking point (or weak point) of the exercise.

Question 67

Which of the following BEST describes the physiological principle associated with the Valsalva maneuver?

Answer 67

It increases intrathoracic pressure, which results in decreased stroke volume. Explanation: The Valsalva maneuver results in a decreased stroke volume due to forceful air expiration against a closed glottis.

Question 68

Improvements in muscular endurance are a result of:

Answer 68

Increased capillary density. Explanation: Increased capillary density increases blood supply to active muscles thereby increasing muscular endurance.

Question 69

When describing cardiorespiratory fitness, the central oxygen delivery processes refer to:

Answer 69

Activity of the heart and circulatory system. Explanation: Cardiorespiratory fitness is a function of enhancing both the central oxygen delivery (i.e., heart and circulatory) processes and the peripheral oxygen uptake mechanisms of the working muscles.

Question 70

What is the primary role of the rotator cuff muscles at the shoulder joint?

Answer 70

Stabilize the humerus during motion Explanation: The rotator cuff's primary role is to stabilize the shoulder joint. When these muscles have good muscular strength and endurance, they help center the head of the humerus in the center of the glenoid fossa, which aids with positional control during movement.

Question 71

Linda is performing a set of supine abdominal crunches. To increase recruitment of the left external oblique and right internal oblique, how should you have her perform the crunches?

Answer 71

Rotate her trunk toward the right during concentric motion Explanation: The internal oblique (same side rotator) and external oblique (opposite side rotator) are agonists for lumbar spine rotation.

Question 72

A traditional or classic periodized training program consists of:

Answer 72

A straight-line increase in the intensity that trades off between intensity and volume. Explanation: Linear periodized training is characterized by a gradual linear increase in the intensity of the program, with a tradeoff in repetition and volume.

Question 73

Which of the following assesses anaerobic capacity?

Answer 73

300-yard shuttle run Explanation: Anaerobic capacity can be assessed with the 300-yard shuttle run and the line drill.

Question 74

The ideal resistance training repetition range and set range for a healthy adult just starting an exercise program, with no previous exercise history, would be:

Answer 74

8 to 12 reps, for 1 to 2 sets, 2 to 3 times per week. Explanation: It is important to start a healthy adult who is just beginning an exercise program with 8 to 12 reps, for 1 to 2 sets, 2 to 3 times per week so she sees improvement in strength gains without creating delayed onset muscle soreness (DOMS).

Question 75

Overcoming a shoulder impingement can be done by strengthening and improving the function of the ________, and stretching the ________.

Answer 75

External shoulder rotators; internal shoulder rotators Explanation: Strengthening and improving the function of the external rotators and stretching the internal rotators may help restore muscle balance and minimize impingement symptoms.

Question 76

Which of the following is MOST appropriate for the resistance training program of a client with known cardiovascular disease?

Answer 76

Increase loads for upper-body exercises by 2-5 pounds per week. Explanation: Loads should be increased slowly as the client adapts.

Question 77

The amount of muscle force generated in plyometric training has greater potential because of:

Answer 77

The preceding eccentric muscle action. Explanation: This type of muscle action in plyometric training provides a physiological advantage because the muscle force generated during the concentric muscle action is potentiated by the preceding eccentric muscle action.

Question 78

Which of the following is recommended to assess perceived exertion in children?

Answer 78

OMNI scale Explanation: The child-friendly OMNI scale is 0-10, and has illustrations to describe exertion levels.

Question 79

Which skill-related activity is essential in minimizing the risk of developing osteoporosis?

Answer 79

Balance Explanation: Individuals at risk for osteoporosis benefit from weight-bearing aerobics, resistance, core control, balance, and postural exercises.

Question 80

Which of the following is the most appropriate aerobic exercise intensity for individuals with cardiac disease who have been cleared for exercise?

Answer 80

55% HRR Explanation: The ideal intensity for individuals with cardiac disease is 40% to 80% of HRR.

Question 81

A high school soccer player is interested in consuming foods with a high glycemic index after practices and matches. Which of the following is MOST appropriate?

Answer 81

Bagel Explanation: Bagels have a high glycemic index.

Question 82

One of the main reasons skipping meals negatively impacts body fat levels is:

Answer 82

Changes in blood sugar levels impact insulin production, increasing fat stores. Explanation: Skipping meals is one of the biggest reasons people have high body fat levels, as skipping a meal will cause you to produce excess insulin at the next meal, making more fat than if you ate more frequently.

Question 83

Which of the following assessments BEST determines body fat distribution?

Answer 83

Waist-to-hip ratio Explanation: Waist-to-hip ratio assesses and compares the ratio of the circumference of the waist and hip as it relates to health risks.

Question 84

A client has been completing the following exercise protocol for the barbell deadlift exercise 3 times per week for the past 6 weeks: 1st set; 6 repetitions; 275 pounds 2nd set; 5 repetitions; 265 pounds 3rd set; 5 repetitions; 265 pounds 4th set; 4 repetitions; 250 pounds He states that for the past two sessions the last set has not challenged him. What is the MOST appropriate adjustment to his program to continue increasing muscular strength?

Answer 84

Increase the load for all sets by 5-10 pounds Explanation: An overload must be introduced to provide the client with the opportunity to adapt to a new stimulus.

Question 85

A proper cool-down, allowing for a gradual return toward baseline, will help the client avoid which of the following?

Answer 85

Postexercise hypotension Explanation: A proper 5- to 10-minute cool-down that allows for a gradual return toward baseline will help the client avoid postexercise hypotension (low blood pressure).

Question 86

Which of the following activities is contraindicated for pregnant women?

Answer 86

Scuba diving Explanation: Scuba diving and activities at elevations greater 6,000 ft are contraindicated.

Question 87

Which of the following alters the resistance throughout an exercise's range of motion in an attempt to match increases and decreases in the strength curve of a muscle?

Answer 87

Variable resistance equipment Explanation: Variable resistance equipment operates through a lever arm, cam, or pulley arrangement. Its purpose is to alter the resistance throughout the exercise's range of motion in an attempt to match the increases and decreases in strength (i.e., strength curve).

Question 88

The quadruped (bird dog) exercise functions to strengthen which of the following muscles?

Answer 88

Multifidus and erector spinae Explanation: The quadruped exercise strengthens the stabilizers of neck, scapulae, spine, and pelvis. This recruits the multifidus as well as the erector spinae muscles.

Question 89

To stretch the latissimus dorsi, the position of the arm should be placed in maximal ________ in the frontal plane with slight trunk lateral flexion to the opposite side.

Answer 89

Abduction Explanation: The latissimus dorsi is stretched when elongated in a position that is opposite to the muscle action. Since the latissimus dorsi mainly extends and adducts the shoulder joint, a stretch would occur when the shoulder is placed in maximal abduction with lateral flexion to the contralateral side.

Question 90

Which of the following muscles is considered a prime mover for a lat pull-down exercise?

Answer 90

Teres major Explanation: The teres major is also known as the "little" lat and performs the same actions as the latissimus dorsi in shoulder joint adduction and extension.

Question 91

During a lat pull-down, the bar should be pulled to the _________.

Answer 91

Upper chest Explanation: During the lat pull-down, pull the bar down to the upper chest.

Question 92

A female client who is 63 inches, weighs 68 kg and has a BMI of 26.6 walks on a treadmill at 3.5 mph at a 5% grade for 30 minutes. What is her total caloric expenditure for that exercise session?

Answer 92

217 kcal ( look up calculation) Explanation: The calculation for this problem follows the example found on page 424 of ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed. Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014.

Question 93

What is the risk associated with exercising in hot, humid climates?

Answer 93

Sweat does not evaporate. Explanation: Dehydration risk is high in extremely hot and humid environments because it is difficult for sweat to evaporate into an environment that is already saturated with moisture. Thus, sweat becomes ineffective as a way of dissipating body heat, causing a greater volume of sweat to be produced in the body's attempt to control body temperature.

Question 94

Which of the following exercise intensities would be BEST for a pregnant woman?

Answer 94

RPE of 12 to 14 Explanation: A pregnant woman should exercise at an intensity of 12 to 14 on the RPE scale of 6 - 20. Avoid using HRR or VO2max as an intensity guideline because heart rate fluctuates too much.

Question 95

Which of the following results from regular resistance training?

Answer 95

Increase in bone density Explanation: An evidence-based outcome from regular resistance training is an increase in bone density.

Question 96

You are working with an older adult who is on high blood pressure medication. What is the BEST way to monitor his cardiovascular intensity?

Answer 96

RPE scale of 6 - 20 Explanation: Monitor exercise intensity with the rating of perceived exertion (RPE) scale whenever working with an older adult or special population because the heart rate formulas are not accurate and the talk test would not be as accurate and as measurable as the RPE scale.

Question 97

Reduced athletic performance is associated with body water weight loss of ________ during activity.

Answer 97

2% Explanation: People who experience significant weight (i.e., water) loss during practice should learn how to drink more fluids to stabilize weight because a 2% body weight loss is associated with reduced performance.

Question 98

All of the following are considered nutrients EXCEPT: 1) Vitamins. 2) Water. 3) Minerals. 4) Antioxidants.

Answer 98

Antioxidants. Explanation: The six classes of nutrients are carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, minerals, and water.

Question 99

Which of the following is a fallacy regarding dietary fiber? 1) Fiber can lower fat and cholesterol absorption. 2) Fiber assists with control of blood sugar. 3) Fiber may reduce risk of heart disease. 4) Fiber is found mainly in simple carbohydrates.

Answer 99

Fiber is found mainly in simple carbohydrates. Explanation: Dietary fiber is a carbohydrate that cannot be digested but is useful in the diet because it may lower fat and cholesterol absorption, improves blood sugar control, and may reduce the risk of colon cancer and heart disease.

Question 100

Types of equipment used for dynamic constant external resistance include:

Answer 100

Dumbbells and kettlebells. Explanation: The types of devices used for dynamic constant external resistance include dumbbells, barbells, kettlebells, weight machines, and medicine balls. They are generally devices that do not use pulleys or levers.

Question 101

How many sets per exercise should a client perform for advanced resistance training benefits?

Answer 101

3 to 6 Explanation: For advanced resistance training benefits, the client should perform 3 to 6 sets per exercise.

Question 102

Which rotator cuff muscles externally rotate the shoulder joint?

Answer 102

Teres minor and infraspinatus Explanation: The teres minor and infraspinatus are located on the posterior aspect of the scapula and function to externally rotate the shoulder joint.

Question 103

During the kneeling hip flexor stretch, where should the upper body be?

Answer 103

Lifted tall Explanation: During the kneeling hip flexor stretch, shift the weight forward while keeping the upper body lifted.

Question 104

Which of the following muscles may be weak if a client has winging of the scapula during a push-up?

Answer 104

Serratus anterior Explanation: Winging of the scapula results from serratus anterior dysfunction, which is possibly related to long thoracic nerve dysfunction.

Question 105

Which of the following is a measure of improved cardiorespiratory fitness? 1) Increased heart rate at a given submaximal workload 2)Increased VO2 at a given submaximal workload 3)Increased maximal oxygen consumption 4) Increased respiration rate at maximal workload

Answer 105

Increased maximal oxygen consumption Explanation: Typical measurements used to determine improvements in cardiorespiratory fitness include increases in maximal oxygen consumption and decreases in heart rate or VO2 in response to a given submaximal workload.

Question 106

Which type of training takes advantage of the stretch-shortening cycle of the muscle?

Answer 106

Plyometric training Explanation: Plyometric actions encompass the stretch-shortening cycle (SSC) where the lengthening or prestretching of skeletal muscles under loading enables a more forceful concentric (CON) muscle action.

Question 107

Which of the following is a local stabilizer of the core musculature?

Answer 107

Transverse abdominis Explanation: The transverse abdominis is a local stabilizer which compresses or draws the abdominal wall toward the spine. It also helps maintain abdominal pressure.

Question 108

Which type of muscle action produces the highest amount of force?

Answer 108

Eccentric Explanation: The highest force produced in a resistance training exercise is during an eccentric action.

Question 109

Thoughts can shape both feelings and behaviors. Positive self-talk can promote confidence to make positive lifestyle change, while negative thoughts reduce the confidence needed to make change. These are called:

Answer 109

Thought traps. Explanation: One's thoughts are very powerful at shaping feelings and behaviors. Kind, realizing thoughts promote confidence to make positive lifestyle changes; thought traps reduce the confidence needed to make changes.

Question 110

One of the MOST important reasons for assessment of your client's body composition is:

Answer 110

The correlation between obesity and increased chronic disease risk. Explanation: Assessment of body composition is necessary for numerous reasons; as part of client screening, body composition can be an indicator of disease risk.

Question 111

Your 220-pound client should consume how many grams of carbohydrates each day?

Answer 111

600-1000 grams Explanation: People should consume 6 to 10 grams of carbohydrates per kilogram of body weight per day.

Question 112

________ resistance training features both a lifting phase and lowering phase during each repetition.

Answer 112

Dynamic constant external Explanation: The term dynamic constant external resistance has been adopted to fit a more workable definition of an isotonic resistance training exercise in which the external resistance or weight does not change and both a lifting (concentric) phase and a lowering (eccentric) phase occur during each repetition. Thus, free-weight exercises and exercise machines that do not vary the resistance are isotonic in nature.

Question 113

What tools do athletes use for variable resistance training?

Answer 113

Chains Explanation: Chains come in different sizes and provide variable resistance for an individual performing a bench press.

Question 114

The posterior deltoid performs ________ of the shoulder joint at approximately ________.

Answer 114

Extension; 40-60 degrees Explanation: The posterior deltoid functions to extend the shoulder joint at approximately 40-60 degrees in most people.

Question 115

Which muscles are prime movers for eversion of the ankle joint? 1) Gastrocnemius and soleus 2) Peroneus longus and brevis 3) Tibialis posterior and plantaris 4) Tibialis anterior and extensor digitorum longus

Answer 115

Peroneus longus and brevis Explanation: The muscles that evert the ankle joint include the peroneus longus and brevis.

Question 116

During unilateral contraction, which of the following muscles produce lateral flexion and axial rotation, respectively?

Answer 116

Erector spinae; multifidus Explanation: When contracted unilaterally, the erector spinae performs lateral flexion, and the multifidus performs axial rotation.

Question 117

A client completes the first set of an unfamiliar free-weight exercise. Which of the following statements is the MOST appropriate feedback? 1) That was a good start. For the next set, keep your shoulders down and back." 2) Keep breathing, and avoid holding your breath as the exercise gets harder. Start the next set when you're ready." 3) No. Don't do that on the next set. Keep your elbow closer to your body." 4) Exhale when you push the weight up. You started out just fine, so slow down just a bit, and get your breathing in sync."

Answer 117

"Exhale when you push the weight up. You started out just fine, so slow down just a bit, and get your breathing in sync." Explanation: Ensuring client safety is the most important aspect of spotting and cueing. Immediately correct any training errors first, then reinforce what the client did well.

Question 118

Using the heart rate reserve method, wha is the target heart rate range for a moderately trained, 35-year-old male client with a resting heart rate of 65? 1) 149 to 161 bpm 2) 84 to 96 bpm 3) 129 to 148 bpm 4) 125 to 137 bpm

Answer 118

149 to 161 bpm Explanation: Moderately trained individuals may find that 70% to 80% VO2max provides a sufficient training stimulus.

Question 119

You are working with a client who wants to train for a specific athletic competition. Which of the following does the client need to have completed prior to progressing to advanced training?

Answer 119

Consistent progressive training for a least 1 year Explanation: One may designate an advanced client as someone who has had at least 1 year of consistent progressive training and has experienced a substantial level of adaptation.

Question 120

Which activity would be contraindicated for someone with cardiovascular disease? 1) Aqua aerobics 2) Racquet sports 3) Leisure cycling 4) Slow dancing

Answer 120

Racquet sports Explanation: Group D activities, which include racquet sports, should be used with caution for clients with low fitness levels and clients who are at high risk or symptomatic for disease, unless modifications to rules are implemented.

Question 121

Your client is performing a strength exercise that is new to him. He states that he feels some pain his right shoulder after the first set. You should:

Answer 121

Switch to another exercise that does not elicit any symptoms. Explanation: The exercises should be stopped immediately if the client complains of pain or the EP-C suspects that the client is in pain. The last thing the EP-C wants to do is induce or aggravate an injury.

Question 122

The minimum number of minutes of vigorous-intensity aerobic activity needed 5 days each week is: 1) 15 minutes. 2) 10 minutes. 3) 30 minutes. 4) 20 minutes.

Answer 122

20 minutes. Explanation: All healthy adults ages 18 to 65 need 20 minutes of vigorous-intensity aerobic activity 5 days each week.

Question 123

During aerobic exercise with gradually increasing intensity, the point at which the increased demand for oxygen results in a nonlinear increase in ventilation corresponds with: 1) Aerobic capacity. 2) Pulmonary ventilation. 3) VO2max 4) Lactate threshold.

Answer 123

Lactate threshold. Explanation: During strenuous exercise, when energy demand is high and ventilation is at its peak, lactate accumulates, which contributes to fatigue and increases ventilation in a nonlinear fashion.

Question 124

Which of the following phases in plyometric training must be as short as possible to maximize training adaptations?

Answer 124

Amortization Explanation: The amount of time it takes to change direction from the eccentric to the concentric phase of the movement is a critical factor in plyometric training. This period is called the amortization phase, which should be as short as possible (less than 0.1 second) to maximize training adaptations.

Question 125

Which energy system is primarily used in plyometric standing box jumps in which the client fatigues in 10 seconds?

Answer 125

Creatine phosphate Explanation: The most immediate source of ATP is in the creatine phosphate system, which provides energy for short bouts of exercise lasting no more than 10 seconds.

Question 126

Which of the following is one of the principal symptoms of cardiac and pulmonary disease?

Answer 126

Dyspnea Explanation: Dyspnea (defined as an abnormally uncomfortable awareness of breathing) is one of the principal symptoms of cardiac and pulmonary disease.

Question 127

Preparticipation health screenings during initial client consultation help the EP-C to maximize ________ and minimize ________.

Answer 127

Benefit; risk Explanation: The preparticipation health screening that takes place during initial client consultation yields valuable information on a client's risk and health status. The EP-C must be committed to obtain as much information as possible about a client's health status to maximize benefit and minimize risk.

Question 128

Individuals that report which of the following after resistance training should significantly reduce training load and volume, and increase the amount of rest?

Answer 128

Moderate muscular soreness Explanation: Reduce the intensity of the workout if the client reports too much muscle soreness, as this can lead to injury. If symptoms are extreme, tissue damage may be more serious, and delayed onset muscle soreness (DOMS) is likely to reduce training potential and have a deleterious effect on performance.

Question 129

During the weight-bearing phase of gait, the ________ acts like a spring to store mechanical energy that is then released during foot push-off.

Answer 129

Plantar fascia Explanation: During the weight-bearing phase of gait, the plantar fascia acts like a spring to store mechanical energy that is then released during foot push-off.

Question 130

Performing a squat with a board placed under the heels results in which of the following?

Answer 130

Increased force requirements of the quadriceps Explanation: A board placed under the heels during a squat increases quadriceps work because a mechanical disadvantage is created.

Question 131

To minimize any type of detraining effects, strength training should primarily consist of:

Answer 131

Concentric training. Explanation: Concentric-only training appears to be less resistant to detraining.

Question 132

A 42-year-old, moderately-trained female client has a resting heart rate of 60 bpm? Which of the following is the MOST appropriate target heart rate range?

Answer 132

143 to 154 bpm Explanation: Moderately trained individuals may find that 70% to 80% VO2max provides a sufficient training stimulus.

Question 133

What is the maximum percentage of 1-RM that should be used to improve muscular power in older adults?

Answer 133

60% Explanation: 30-60% 1-RM is recommended when training older adults to improve muscular power.

Question 134

During resistance training exercises, which breathing technique should be avoided?

Answer 134

Valsalva maneuver Explanation: The Valsalva maneuver should be avoided during exercise as it increases intrathoracic pressure and may lead to hypertensive responses.

Question 135

Which type of exercise is indicated for someone with tendonitis who is still experiencing pain?

Answer 135

Eccentric training Explanation: Eccentric-only training is best for someone with tendonitis until she is free of pain.

Question 136

At what age are children physically and mentally ready for resistance training exercise?

Answer 136

7 to 8 Explanation: By age 7 or 8, children should be physically and mentally mature enough to initiate a resistance training program.

Question 137

Which of the following medications have no primary effect on heart rate, but can lower blood pressure? 1) Diuretics 2) Bronchodilators 3) ACE inhibitors 4) Calcium channel blockers

Answer 137

ACE inhibitors Explanation: ACE (angiotensin converting enzyme) inhibitors lower blood pressure by preventing vasoconstriction without a significant change in heart rate.

Question 138

Which of the following has research shown to be the MOST influential predictor of successful behavior change for physical activity?

Answer 138

Self-monitoring Explanation: Because research shows that self-monitoring is one of the key factors in behavior change, clients should monitor their own behaviors to assist with goal setting, problem solving, feedback, and self-reward.

Question 139

Social Cognitive Theory states that the most important factors in behavior change are self-efficacy and:

Answer 139

Outcome expectations. Explanation: Social cognitive theory states that outcome expectations (what you think will happen as a result of your new behavior) and self-efficacy (situation-specific self-confidence) are the most important factors in behavior change.

Question 140

A female client wants to feel good for her 20th high school reunion in 3 months. Her goal is to lower her body fat percentage by 12%. Her profile is as follows: ``` Age: 38 Weight: 165 pounds Height: 5 feet, 8 inches Body fat: 30% Activity level: Sedentary Lean body mass: 110 pounds ``` Which or the following is MOST appropriate? 1) Divide her target goal into equal weekly objectives. 2) Boost basal metabolic activity by high-intensity strength training. 3) Reassess and adjust her body fat percentage goal. 4)Increase her metabolism with aerobic activity.

Answer 140

Reassess and adjust her body fat percentage goal. Explanation: Help clients set realistic goals, modify goals as needed, and provide motivation for adherence to the program.

Question 141

How long should heavy eccentric training be performed?

Answer 141

4- to 6-week training cycles, 1 or 2 times per year Explanation: Heavy eccentric training should be used with caution (4- to 6-week training cycles, 1 or 2 times per year) to reduce muscle damage and the risk of overtraining and injury.

Question 142

A client who has suffered from whiplash and has been cleared for exercise would most likely benefit from which training routine? 1) Stretching the levator scapulae and sternocleidomastoids, and strengthening the rhomboids, neck extensors, upper trapezius, and middle trapezius 2) Stretching the pectoralis minor and middle trapezius, and strengthening the deltoids, lower trapezius, and pectoralis major 3) Stretching the pectoralis major, spinalis muscles, and upper trapezius, and strengthening the middle deltoids, middle trapezius, and shoulder adductors 4) Stretching the teres minor, erector spinae, and levator scapulae, and strengthening the latissimus dorsi, middle trapezius, and sternocleidomastoid

Answer 142

Stretching the levator scapulae and sternocleidomastoids, and strengthening the rhomboids, neck extensors, upper trapezius, and middle trapezius Explanation: After ruling out fracture, dislocation, instability, and disc herniation, treatment of whiplash usually includes passive modalities, stretches, and strengthening exercises for the neck.

Question 143

Which of the following muscles are involved in protraction of the scapulothoracic joint? 1) Trapezius and pectoralis minor 2) Trapezius and rhomboids 3) Rhomboids and serratus anterior 4) Serratus anterior and pectoralis minor

Answer 143

Serratus anterior and pectoralis minor Explanation: The serratus anterior and pectoralis minor function to protract the scapula.

Question 144

The muscles that depress the scapulothoracic joint are the: 1) Serratus anterior and pectoralis minor. 2) Upper trapezius and rhomboids. 3) Rhomboids and serratus anterior. 4) Lower trapezius and pectoralis minor.

Answer 144

Lower trapezius and pectoralis minor. Explanation: The lower trapezius and pectoralis minor function to depress the scapulothoracic joint.

Question 145

A new, sedentary client has come to you and wants to lose weight. Which type of periodization is MOST appropriate to use?

Answer 145

Flexible nonlinear Explanation: In unplanned or flexible nonlinear periodization, a workout plan is set for the mesocycle, but choosing the optimal workout to be done on a given day is left to the EP-C, who will base it on the client's fatigue level, psychological state, or fitness

Question 146

Which type of periodization is MOST appropriate for accommodating a client's schedule?

Answer 146

Daily undulating Explanation: Daily undulating periodization, is highly adaptable to variations in schedules. A mesocycle is completed according to when a certain number of sessions is completed and not a set number of weeks.

Question 147

Joseph has reached his strength and body composition goals by strength training 3 days per week for an hour each day over the last few months. He now wants to focus on maintaining his strength while on summer vacation for a month. Which program would be MOST appropriate? 1) Decrease weight load and total sets, and utilize primarily free weight exercises 2) Use a 3-day split routine performing 3 sets and 4-6 repetitions 3) Decrease frequency to 2 days per week, training the total body for at least 1 set 4) Decrease the time spent strength training to 30 minutes, and train 5 days per week

Answer 147

Decrease frequency to 2 days per week, training the total body for at least 1 set Explanation: Single-set programs are effective for developing and maintaining a certain level of muscular strength and endurance.

Question 148

One MET is equivalent to an oxygen uptake of:

Answer 148

3.5 mL/kg/min. Explanation: One MET is equal to an oxygen uptake of 3.5 mL/kg/min.

Question 149

A 25-year-old, highly-trained male client has a resting heart rate of 50 bpm. He wants to increase his VO2max. Which of the following heart rate ranges is MOST appropriate?

Answer 149

173 to 188 bpm Explanation: In contrast to moderately trained individuals, highly trained athletes may train at 95% VO2max or higher.

Question 150

What is the MOST appropriate course of action the EP-C should take with a client who is overtraining?

Answer 150

Express empathy through reflective listening. Explanation: The EP-C should demonstrate an understanding of the client's needs and feelings and respond with constructive advice that will enhance the client's understanding of the problem and solution.

Question 151

How does the most recent ACSM position stand describe regular cardiorespiratory, resistance, flexibility, and neuromotor training for most adults?

Answer 151

essential Explanation: According to the most recent ACSM position stand, regular cardiorespiratory, resistance, flexibility, and neuromotor exercise training is considered essential for most adults.

Question 152

Minimizing the length of the ________ phase maximizes the use of elastic energy in plyometric training.

Answer 152

Amortization Explanation: The ECC phase plus the length of the brief ISOM phase between ECC and CON actions (coupling time) is the amortization phase. Minimizing the length of the amortization phase maximizes the use of elastic energy making for a more powerful effort.

Question 153

What is the recommended duration and frequency of resistance exercise for individuals 6-17 years of age?

Answer 153

60 minutes per day, at least 3 days per week Explanation: Children should participate in at least 60 minutes per day of moderate- to vigorous-intensity physical activity, and include resistance exercise and bone-loading activity at least 3 days per week.

Question 154

Reduced athletic performance is associated with body water weight loss of ________ during activity.

Answer 154

2% Explanation: People who experience significant weight (i.e., water) loss during practice should learn how to drink more fluids to stabilize weight because a 2% body weight loss is associated with reduced performance.

Question 155

Dietary cholesterol should be limited to no more than ________ per day, based on USDA dietary guidelines.

Answer 155

300 mg Explanation: To lower the risk of heart disease, limit cholesterol intake to less than 300 mg per day.

Question 156

Which of the following weekly durations of moderate-intensity exercise meets the ACSM recommendation for weight loss or weight maintenance?

Answer 156

180 minutes Explanation: According to the ACSM, increasing activity levels above the baseline of 150 minutes per week of moderate-intensity exercise assists with weight loss or maintains weight loss.

Question 157

Deborah recently went through menopause and is finding that maintaining her weight isn’t as easy as it used to be and she would like to lose weight. Her husband is not supportive of exercise, and Deborah is not motivated without his support. What is the best exercise self-regulation strategy for helping Deborah begin a successful exercise program?

Answer 157

Revisit Deborah's motivations for exercise, and encourage her to replace her weight-loss goals with goals related to meeting new people, relieving stress, and feeling good. Explanation: Deborah's self-esteem and poor body image may be discouraging her from exercise. Use the strategy for exercise self-regulation: revisit Deborah's motivations for exercise and encourage her to replace her weight-loss goals with goals related to meeting new people, relieving stress, and feeling good.

Question 158

Which back exercise would be the most sport-specific for swimming?

Answer 158

Pull-up Explanation: A pull-up has more carryover as it mimics the shoulder extension movement throughout swimming.

Question 159

Which outcome is MOST likely when performing a safe and effective resistance training program 2 to 3 times per week for 3 months?

Answer 159

Muscle hypertrophy Explanation: Clients will see a gain in muscle hypertrophy if they consistently weight train 2 to 3 times per week.

Question 160

Which of the following is a local stabilizer of the core musculature?

Answer 160

Transverse abdominis Explanation: The transverse abdominis is a local stabilizer which compresses or draws the abdominal wall toward the spine. It also helps maintain abdominal pressure.

Question 161

Which of the following is a benefit of regular exercise?

Answer 161

Decreased LDL-cholesterol levels Explanation: Regular aerobic training will have a positive impact on lowering low-density lipoproteins.

Question 162

Consuming too little energy consistently can have what negative impact on athletic performance?

Answer 162

Lean body mass is broken down, which reduces metabolic rate. Explanation: Consistently lowering total energy intake restricts the amount of energy available to sustain power output, and can reduce muscle mass, which reduces metabolic rate and impacts the body's ability to use energy for activity.

Question 163

You are working with a client who weighs 180 lbs with a body fat percentage of 20%. What will his approximate weight be when he reaches his goal of 15% body fat, assuming that his lean body mass remains constant?

Answer 163

169 lbs Explanation: Ideal body weight calculation: 180 lbs x 0.20 = 36 lbs fat; 180 lbs - 36 = 144 lbs lean body mass. Ideal Body Weight = 144/(1 - 0.15) = 144/0.85 = 169 lbs

Question 164

How long should heavy eccentric training be performed?

Answer 164

4- to 6-week training cycles, 1 or 2 times per year Explanation: Heavy eccentric training should be used with caution (4- to 6-week training cycles, 1 or 2 times per year) to reduce muscle damage and the risk of overtraining and injury.

Question 165

The posterior deltoid performs ________ of the shoulder joint at approximately ________.

Answer 165

Extension; 40-60 degrees Explanation: The posterior deltoid functions to extend the shoulder joint at approximately 40-60 degrees in most people.

Question 166

During unilateral contraction, which of the following muscles produce lateral flexion and axial rotation, respectively?

Answer 166

Erector spinae; multifidus Explanation: When contracted unilaterally, the erector spinae performs lateral flexion, and the multifidus performs axial rotation.

Question 167

Which of the following is the MOST critical to overall low back health? Strong abdominals Endurance of the core musculature Flexibility in trunk flexion Flexible hamstrings and hip flexors

Answer 167

Endurance of the core musculature Explanation: Core muscles are thought to provide a stable base of support to allow for optimal performance of the spine and extremities, and help prevent injury. Also, endurance of core musculature is more critical to overall low back health than strength.

Question 168

When describing cardiorespiratory fitness, the central oxygen delivery processes refer to:

Answer 168

Activity of the heart and circulatory system. Explanation: Cardiorespiratory fitness is a function of enhancing both the central oxygen delivery (i.e., heart and circulatory) processes and the peripheral oxygen uptake mechanisms of the working muscles.

Question 169

What is the MOST appropriate course of action the EP-C should take with a client who is overtraining?

Answer 169

Express empathy through reflective listening. Explanation: The EP-C should demonstrate an understanding of the client's needs and feelings and respond with constructive advice that will enhance the client's understanding of the problem and solution.

Question 170

The Theory of Planned Behavior suggests that successful behavior change is dependent on the client's subjective norms, perceived control, and:

Answer 170

Attitude. Explanation: The theory of planned behavior suggests that the intention to engage in a behavior will ultimately result in that behavior. A client's level of intent is shaped by attitudes, subjective norms (social pressure), and perceived control (self-efficacy and controllability).

Question 171

Which of the following muscles functions as an agonist during shoulder flexion?

Answer 171

Long head of the biceps brachii Explanation: The long head of the biceps brachii crosses over the shoulder joint and thus assists in shoulder flexion. This occurs via reverse muscle action where the origin moves toward the insertion.

Question 172

Which of the following muscles may be weak if a client has winging of the scapula during a push-up?

Answer 172

Serratus anterior Explanation: Winging of the scapula results from serratus anterior dysfunction, which is possibly related to long thoracic nerve dysfunction.

Question 173

The 2010 Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommend that individuals over age 50 consume foods fortified with which vitamin?

Answer 173

Vitamin B12 Explanation: People over age 50 should consume vitamin B12 in its crystalline form, that is, from fortified foods (such as fortified breakfast cereals) or as a supplement.

Question 174

The key to determining optimal rest period lengths is to:

Answer 174

Observe the client. Explanation: The key to determining optimal rest-period lengths is to observe the client. Symptoms of loss of force production in the beginning of the workout and clinical symptoms of nausea, dizziness, and fainting are clear signs of the inability to tolerate the workout. When such symptoms occur, the workout should be stopped and longer rest periods used in subsequent workouts.

Question 175

Which of the following is one of the principal symptoms of cardiac and pulmonary disease?

Answer 175

Dyspnea Explanation: Dyspnea (defined as an abnormally uncomfortable awareness of breathing) is one of the principal symptoms of cardiac and pulmonary disease.

Question 176

Your 40-year-old female client is ready to get started losing 15 lbs for the new year after being sedentary for about a year. She wants to focus on strength training as she has heard that this will help sculpt her body. You recommend that she:

Answer 176

Increase her metabolism with aerobic activity and progressive strength training. Explanation: Resistance training programs are commonly treated as an adjunct to a regular aerobic exercise program and generally should not be used in lieu of an aerobic program for weight loss in obese clients.

Question 177

Approximately what percentage of cardiac output is distributed to skeletal muscles during exercise?

Answer 177

85% to 90% Explanation: At rest, 15% to 20% of cardiac output is distributed to the skeletal muscles; the remainder goes to the visceral organs. However, during exercise, as much as 85% to 90% of cardiac output is selectively delivered to working muscles and shunted away from the skin and the internal organs.

Question 178

You are working with a client who wants to train for a specific athletic competition. Which of the following does the client need to have completed prior to progressing to advanced training?

Answer 178

Consistent progressive training for a least 1 year Explanation: One may designate an advanced client as someone who has had at least 1 year of consistent progressive training and has experienced a substantial level of adaptation.

Question 179

Which of the following muscles laterally flexes the lumbar spine and assists with lumbar extension?

Answer 179

Quadratus lumborum Explanation: The quadratus lumborum is a global stabilizer that laterally flexes the lumbar vertebral column and assists with lumbar extension.

Question 180

Which of the following allows the muscles and tendons to elongate, allowing for greater range of motion in a joint?

Answer 180

Golgi tendon organ Explanation: The Golgi tendon organ (GTO) is responsible for allowing muscles and tendons to relax and elongate.

Question 181

How long should heavy eccentric training be performed?

Answer 181

4- to 6-week training cycles, 1 or 2 times per year Explanation: Heavy eccentric training should be used with caution (4- to 6-week training cycles, 1 or 2 times per year) to reduce muscle damage and the risk of overtraining and injury.

Question 182

Which muscle is responsible for protraction of the scapula?

Answer 182

Serratus anterior Explanation: The serratus anterior protracts the scapula and is active in reaching and pushing.

Question 183

Which of the following assesses anaerobic capacity?

Answer 183

300-yard shuttle run Explanation: Anaerobic capacity can be assessed with the 300-yard shuttle run and the line drill.

Question 184

Which type of exercise is indicated for someone with tendonitis who is still experiencing pain? 1) Eccentric training 2) Concentric training 3) Isometric training 4) Isokinetic training

Answer 184

Eccentric training Explanation: Eccentric-only training is best for someone with tendonitis until she is free of pain.

Question 185

Which stretch increases range of motion in the low back?

Answer 185

Supine knee to chest stretch Explanation: The supine knee to chest stretch opens up the low back and increases range of motion.

Question 186

A new, sedentary client has come to you and wants to lose weight. Which type of periodization is MOST appropriate to use?

Answer 186

Flexible nonlinear Explanation: In unplanned or flexible nonlinear periodization, a workout plan is set for the mesocycle, but choosing the optimal workout to be done on a given day is left to the EP-C, who will base it on the client's fatigue level, psychological state, or fitness.

Question 187

What can be expected of older adults who begin an exercise program later in life?

Answer 187

Increase in fat-free mass Explanation: Many of the age-related declines in fat-free mass, strength, and motor performance are at least partially reversible with the onset of regular exercise. There is evidence that these benefits can be reaped even in sedentary older adults who initiate an exercise program late in life.

Question 188

Which of the following has research shown to be the MOST influential predictor of successful behavior change for physical activity?

Answer 188

Self-monitoring Explanation: Because research shows that self-monitoring is one of the key factors in behavior change, clients should monitor their own behaviors to assist with goal setting, problem solving, feedback, and self-reward.

Question 189

A client consumes a meal consisting of the following macronutrient amounts: Carbohydrates: 32 grams Fat: 12 grams Protein: 15 grams What percentage of the total calories comes from fat?

Answer 189

36% Explanation: Carbohydrates and protein each have 4 calories per gram. Fat has 9 calories per gram. Total calories is 296. Fat calories is 108. 108/296= 0.36

Question 190

When describing cardiorespiratory fitness, the central oxygen delivery processes refer to:

Answer 190

Activity of the heart and circulatory system. Explanation: Cardiorespiratory fitness is a function of enhancing both the central oxygen delivery (i.e., heart and circulatory) processes and the peripheral oxygen uptake mechanisms of the working muscles.

Question 191

During gait, you notice that your client tends to put weight on the lateral edge of the feet. This is mostly because the client cannot __________ the foot properly.

Answer 191

Dorsiflex Explanation: When a person places weight on the outside edge of his foot during gait, he most likely has a limited dorsiflexion range.

Question 192

When demonstrating a push-up for a client, which of the following cues should you use?

Answer 192

"Keep your head in line with your hips during the entire movement." Explanation: It is important to main a neutral spine during a push-up to protect the body.

Question 193

What is the maximum percentage of 1-RM that should be used to improve muscular power in older adults?

Answer 193

60% Explanation: 30-60% 1-RM is recommended when training older adults to improve muscular power.

Question 194

According to goal setting theory research, the most effective type of health goals are:

Answer 194

Self-selected by the client. Explanation: Research in goal setting theory has provided an understanding of the type of health goals that are most effective; individuals who develop self-selected goals are more likely to be successful than those who have goals determined from an outside source.

Question 195

What is the recommended minimum daily intake of carbohydrate grams per kilogram of body weight?

Answer 195

3 Explanation: Carbohydrate recommendations range from 6 to 10 grams per kilogram body weight per day, with the amount dependent on the total daily calorie expenditure, gender, physical activity, and environmental conditions.

Question 196

Which of the following medications have no primary effect on heart rate, but can lower blood pressure?

Answer 196

ACE inhibitors Explanation: ACE (angiotensin converting enzyme) inhibitors lower blood pressure by preventing vasoconstriction without a significant change in heart rate.

Question 197

Abdominal bracing involves:

Answer 197

Engaging the stabilizers such as the transverse abdominis and multifidus. Explanation: Abdominal bracing involves learning to engage the small, deep stabilizing muscles that include the transverse abdominis and multifidus muscles, primarily in a supine position.

Question 198

Which type of muscle action produces the highest amount of force?

Answer 198

Eccentric Explanation: The highest force produced in a resistance training exercise is during an eccentric action.

Question 199

What would be a good way to describe how to improve posture for a 39-year-old female who works in an office all day?

Answer 199

"Every 2 hours at work, sit on the edge of the chair, and maintain a perfectly neutral spine for 60 seconds." Explanation: The EP-C can help some clients improve posture by telling them to sit on the edge of a chair and maintain a perfectly neutral spine for 60 seconds.

Question 200

Which of the following is a local stabilizer of the core musculature?

Answer 200

Transverse abdominis Explanation: The transverse abdominis is a local stabilizer which compresses or draws the abdominal wall toward the spine. It also helps maintain abdominal pressure.

Question 201

Your client is performing a dumbbell lunge with the weight in her right hand and right leg forward. You notice that during the concentric phase, she drops her pelvis on the contralateral side. Which muscle is MOST likely weak?

Answer 201

Right gluteus medius Explanation: Gluteus medius is an abductor and medial rotator of the hip joint. If this is weak, it will result in tilting below horizontal to the contralateral side.

Question 202

Individuals with hyperkyphosis would benefit MOST from increasing the flexibility of which of the following muscles?

Answer 202

Pectoralis major Explanation: Clients with hyperkyphosis are rounded through the upper back and usually have short, tight pectoralis major muscles.

Question 203

A general training principle for cardiorespiratory endurance is that it requires:

Answer 203

Activities that involve major muscle groups and are continuous and rhythmic in nature. Explanation: Cardiorespiratory endurance training refers to the ability of an individual to perform large-muscle, repetitive, moderate- to high-intensity exercise for an extended period.

Question 204

Which of the following is the MOST critical to overall low back health?

Answer 204

Endurance of the core musculature Explanation: Core muscles are thought to provide a stable base of support to allow for optimal performance of the spine and extremities, and help prevent injury. Also, endurance of core musculature is more critical to overall low back health than strength.

Question 205

Approximately 95% of adults who successfully lose weight regain their weight within:

Answer 205

5 years. Explanation: Among overweight or obese adults who successfully lose 10% of their body weight, 33.5% regain the weight within the first year; within 5 years, approximately 95% of people regain their weight just below baseline.

Question 206

What is the recommended maximum number of sets that should be performed to obtain a 1-RM?

Answer 206

4 Explanation: A 1-RM should be obtained within four sets to avoid excessive fatigue.

Question 207

Which of the following is a measure of improved cardiorespiratory fitness?

Answer 207

Increased maximal oxygen consumption Explanation: Typical measurements used to determine improvements in cardiorespiratory fitness include increases in maximal oxygen consumption and decreases in heart rate or VO2 in response to a given submaximal workload.

Question 208

Intrinsic risk factors ( for apparently healthy ppl)

Answer 208

* History of previous injury * inadequate fitness or conditioning * body composition * bony alignment abnormalities * strength or ligamentous laxity * predisposing musculoskeletal disease

Question 209

Extrinsic risk factors ( for apparently healthy ppl)

Answer 209

``` Excessive load on the body Type of movement Speed of movement Number of repetitions Footwear Surface Training errors Excessive distances Fast progression High intensity Running on hills Poor technique Fatigue Adverse environmental conditions Air quality Wind Worn or faulty equipment ```

Question 210

Systemic Circulation ( aorta to vena cava)

Answer 210

The arteries and arterioles carry oxygenated blood

Question 211

Pulmonary circulation ( pulmonary artery to pulmonary vein):

Answer 211

The arterioles and arteries carry deoxygenated blood or blood that contains less oxygen than arterial blood

Question 212

Cardiovascular system:

Answer 212

* main components are the heart and vasculature * the heart is a 4 chambered muscular pump composed of the right and left atria ( umber chambers) and the right and left ventricles ( lower chambers) * the vasculature is arteries + arterioles + capillaries + venules + veins

Question 213

In overview, blood move through the major components of the heart and circulatory system in what following order...

Answer 213

``` Right atrium Right ventricle Pulmonary artery Lungs Pulmonary vein Left atrium Left ventricle Aorta Organs & tissues Vena cava * then it returns/repeats back to the right atrium ```

Question 214

ATP is...

Answer 214

An energy bearing molecule composed of carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen, and phosphorous atoms that are all found in living cells The energy in the molecule allows nervous transmission, muscle contractions, formation of nucleic acids, and many other energy consuming reactions of metabolism

Question 215

What are the 3 primary metabolic systems:

Answer 215

* Creating phosphate (CP) - most immediate source of ATP, primary source in very short intense movements , such as discus throw + shot put + high jump and any maximal intensity exercise lasting less than approximately 10 seconds * Anaerobic glycolysis - 2nd most immediate energy source and consists of a metabolic pathway that breaks down carbs into pyruvate. Primary source of ATP during medium duration intense exercise such as 200m & 400m sprint or any exercise of an intensity that cannot be continued for more than approximately 90 seconds * The oxidative system: includes the Krebs cycle ( aerobic glycolysis) and then electron transport chain. Requires the presence of oxygen to produce ATP which takes place in the mitochondria where majority of ATP is generated as well as carbs + proteins + fats must be present. - the oxidative system is the primary source of ATP used during low to moderate intensity aerobic exercise lasting longer than 1 to 2 min all the way up to long distance endurance events - The anaerobic and aerobic energy systems work together to create ATP to fuel exercise

Question 216

Define oxygen deficit

Answer 216

A period of inadequate oxygen consumption

Question 217

Define oxygen debt/ EPOC:

Answer 217

After finishing a workout the remaining elevated VO2 was first called oxygen debt Now this is referred to as excess post exercise oxygen consumption ( EPOC)

Question 218

What equation can be used to determine VO2 max

Answer 218

The fick equation Vo2max = HRmax (X) SVmax (X) a-VO2 diff max VO2 = oxygen consumption (ml *kg * min) HR = heart rate (bpm) SV = stroke volume ( mL *beat) A-VO2 diff = arteriovenous oxygen difference This equation demonstrates that VO2max is dictated by maximal cardiac output ( SVmax * HRmax) and maximal arteriovenous oxygen difference

Question 219

A-VO2 difference ( arteriovenous oxygen difference ) response to graded intensity exercise:

Answer 219

* it reflects the diff in oxygen content between the arterial and the venous blood. * it provides a measure of the amount of oxygen taken up by the working muscles from the arterial blood * resting oxygen content is approximately 20 ml *dl in arterial blood and 15ml *dl in venous blood, yielding an a-VO2 of abt 5ml*dl * during exercise venous oxygen content decreases as a result of the increased consumption of oxygen by the working muscles, resulting in an increase in a-VO2 diff with increasing exercise intensity

Question 220

Define heart rate (HR):

Answer 220

* Increases linearly with increasing workload until HR maximum is reached * maximal HR declines with age, trained athletes have lower resting HRs throughout the lifespan * training itself has little impact on HRmax ; however training can decrease an individuals HR at a given submaximal workload from pre-to post aerobic exercise training as a sign of increased fitness

Question 221

Define Stroke Volume (SV):

Answer 221

* is the volume of blood the heart ejects with each beat * increases with workload but only up to approximately 40–60% of VO2max in the general population * as SV increasing with training, resting HR tends to decrease, as ,more blood being pumped per beat allows the heart to beat less often at rest * Beyond 40-60% of VO2max... - Sedentary individuals: SV decreases slightly - Highly trained individuals: SV continues to increase

Question 222

Define Cardiac Output:

Answer 222

* is the product of SV and HR * is a measure of blood pumped per minute * increases steadily during graded exercise because of the linear rise in HR and curvilinear rise in SV

Question 223

Define pulmonary Ventilation:

Answer 223

* is the volume of air inhaled and exhaled per minute * calculated by multiplying the frequency of breathing by the volume of air moved per breath ( tidal wave) * increases linearly with work rate until 50-80% of VO2max, then it’s reached ventilatory threshold and ventilation begins to increase exponentially * used as an indicator of performance and training intensity * trained individuals can reach higher workloads than untrained individuals before reaching their Ventilatory threshold

Question 224

Define Blood Pressure (BP):

Answer 224

* is proportional to the product of cardiac output and total peripheral resistance ( TPR) - TPR: is the overall resistance trio blood flow by the blood vessels

Question 225

Define Systolic Blood Pressure (SBP):

Answer 225

* is the pressure in the arteries during ventricular contraction , or systole, and is heavily influenced by changes in cardiac output * increases linearly with increasing workload just like cardiac output

Question 226

Define Diastolic Blood Pressure (DBP):

Answer 226

* is the pressure in the arteries when the heart is relaxed, or diastole * is heavily influenced by total peripheral resistance (TPR) * TPR may drop slightly during graded exercise due to large muscle vasodilation, resulting in increase in cardiac output and DBP remains relatively stable

Question 227

Define Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP):

Answer 227

* is the average BP in the arterial system over one complete cardiac cycle (MAP = DBP + 0.33 [SBP-DBP]) * is not a critical value to assess during regular exercise * instead is more commonly used in a clinical or diagnostic setting * SBP, DBP & MAP all reduce slightly at sub maximal workloads

Question 228

What increases during graded intensity exercise? What stays the same/ decreases?

Answer 228

``` 1)HR Pulmonary Ventilation A-VO2 difference SV Cardiac output SBP Mean arterial BP ``` 2) DBP remains stable or decreases slightly during aerobic type exercise * these cardiovascular and pulmonary adaptations support greater oxygen uptake to allow for the increase in aerobic energy production required during exercise

Question 229

Cardiorespiratory Fitness pregnant Women:

Answer 229

* if exercise is not contraindicated they can accumulate a minimum of 150min of moderate intensity exercise weekly * exerciser intensities of 60-70% of HRmax or 50-60% of VO2max * we want to ensure that their exercise prescription is low risk of injury and falls, they are properly hydrated and the exercise testing takes place in a thermoneutral environment * monitor them closely so the EPC does not miss any test termination signs or symptoms

Question 230

Which type of exercise is indicated for someone with tendonitis who is still experiencing pain?

Answer 230

Eccentric training Explanation: Eccentric-only training is best for someone with tendonitis until she is free of pain.

Question 231

Which of the following muscles functions to externally rotate the hip joint?

Answer 231

Biceps femoris Explanation: The biceps femoris externally rotates the hip joint, and is a prime mover for hip joint extension and knee joint flexion.

Question 232

An EP-C is designing a cardiovascular training program for a deconditioned, 40-year-old female client who has a resting heart rate of 80 bpm. Using the Karvonen method, what is the MOST appropriate target heart rate range?

Answer 232

120 to 130 bpm Explanation: For a deconditioned client, a range of 40-50% HRR (Karvonen method) is more appropriate.

Question 233

Define FITT-VP:

Answer 233

``` F= frequency I = intensity T= time or duration T= type or mode - V = volume or amount of exercise ( it is the product of FIT, Frequency, intensity, time ) P = progression or advancement ``` * provides the framework to establish an exercise prescription in healthy adults , may be customized to meet the unique goals and needs of the individual

Question 234

Intensity ranges: moderate and vigorous for most healthy individuals

Answer 234

* moderate: 49-59% VO2R * vigorous: 60-84% VO2R - intensity methods: HRR, RPE, percentage VO2max, percentage rate of age predicted maximal HR

Question 235

Define progressive overload:

Answer 235

* to improve CRF, the individual must exercise at a level greater than accustomed to induce adaptation * EPC can implement this principle by manipulating the frequency, intensity, or time of the exercise prescription. The overload principle is at the foundation of all exercise prescription * it’s important to understand that all variables should not be increased simultaneously, as small incremental progression allows the body to adapt which is key to reducing the risk of overuse injuries

Question 236

Define reversibility:

Answer 236

* is viewed as the opposite of the overload principle , commonly referred to as the “use it or lose it” principle * it dictates that once cardiorespiratory training is decreased or stopped for a significant period ( 2-4 weeks) , previous improvements will reverse and decrease and the body will readjust to the demands of the reduced physiological stimuli

Question 237

Define specificity of training:

Answer 237

* this principles other name is SAID principle SAID = specific adaptations to impose demands * dependent on the type and mode of exercise * states that specific exercise elicits specific adaptations , creating specific training effects

Question 238

The 4 cardiovascular endurance exercises categories:

Answer 238

* Type A: endurance exercises requiring minimal skill or physical fitness to perform, such as walking or water aerobics * Type B: vigorous intensity endurance exercises requiring minimal skill, such as running or spinning * Type C: endurance activities requiring skill to perform, such as cross country skiing or inline skating * Type D: recreational sports, such as tennis or basketball ** an additional method of classifying exercises is by weight bearing or non weight bearing activities

Question 239

Define weight bearing activities:

Answer 239

* cause muscles and bones to work against gravity | * such as jogging or aerobic dance

Question 240

Define non weight bearing activities:

Answer 240

* is when the stress in the bones , joints and muscles is lessened * such as cycling or swimming * low impact physical activity has a third or less of the injury risk of higher impact activities

Question 241

Define interval training:

Answer 241

* broadly defined as when a period of intense activity is interspersed with a period of low to moderate activity * HIIT = high intensity interval training or SIT = sprint interval training * HIIT is performed at an intensity that is greater than the anaerobic threshold and is often performed at an intensity close to that which elicits greater or equal to 80-100% peak heart rate * SIT is characterized by an all out , supramaximal effort equal to or greater than the pace that elicits >100% VO2peak * LVIT = low volume interval training * the EPC can manipulate at least 9 diff variables that could impact the desire metabolic, cardiopulmonary, or neuromuscular responses - the primary factors of interest concern ,1) the intensity and duration of the exercise & recovery interval , 2) the total number of intervals performed

Question 242

Define heart rate reserved method ( HRR):

Answer 242

* known as the karvonen method, helps determine exercise intensity * requires EPC to determine the resting HR and maximum HR of the client. The HRR is the diff between maximum and resting HR * resting HR is optimally measured in the morning while the client is in bed before rising * maximum HR is best measured during a progressive maximal exercise test but can also be estimated via age predicted formulas * target HR will be determined by considering the habitual physical activity, exercise level, and goals of the client. To assign a target HR use formula * target HR = [(maximum HR - resting HR) X % intensity desired] + resting HR Ex. [(200-60) X 65%] + 60 = target HR of 151bpm [(200-60) X 75%] + 60 = target HR of 165bpm The HR range would be 151-165bpm Maximum HR: 200bpm Resting HR: 60bpm Desired intensity: 65%-75% of HRR

Question 243

How to determine exercise intensity:

Answer 243

* heart rate reserve method (HRR) * peak heart rate reserve * peak VO2 method * peak metabolic equivalent method * VO2max reserve method ( VO2R) * talk test method * perceived exertion method ( Borgs RPE Scale 6-20) - to improve CRF the RPE range of 11-16 is recommended

Question 244

EPC and effect of common medications on cardiorespiratory exercise:

Answer 244

* IT IS NEVER THE ROLE of the EPC to administer, prescribe or educate clients on the use or effects of medications ** it is important for them to understand the potential complex interactions of medications and exercise * medications may alter HR, BP, and/ or exercise capacity; therefore clients should be strongly encouraged to communicate any changes in medication routines to the EPC

Question 245

Define resistance Training:

Answer 245

* also known as strength training * it refers to a specialized method of physical conditioning that involves the progressive use of a wide range of resistive loads and a variety of training modalities designed to enhance muscular fitness * types of competitive sports: - bodybuilding - powerlifting * it can increase bone mass and has proven to be a valuable measure for preventing the loss of bone mass in people with osteoporosis * regular participation in a resistance training program can contribute to an improved health related quality of life by: - enhancing physical function - attenuating are related weight gain - enabling people to do what they enjoy while maintaining their independence

Question 246

What are the 7 basic principles of resistance training program design:

Answer 246

* PROCESS ``` P= progression R= regularity O= overload C= creativity E= enjoyment S= specificity S= supervision ```

Question 247

Define Principle of Progression:

Answer 247

* Refers to the fact that he demands placed on the body must be continually and progressively increased over time to achieve long term gains in muscular fitness * physical stress placed on the body should gradually become more challenging to continually stimulate adaptations * after the first few months of training this principle is important because the threshold for training induced adaptations in conditioned individuals will be higher now * a reasonable guideline for a beginner is to increase is to increase the training weight by 5-10% a week and decrease the reps by 2-4 when a given load can be performed for the desired number of reps with proper exercise technique * * 2 plus 2 rule: - conservative approach to gaining muscle - once the client can perform 2 or more additional reps over the assigned rep goal on 2 consecutive workouts, weight should be added to the exercise during next training session - they could increase the # of sets, increase the # of reps , or add another exercise to his exercise routine. ( Ex. if he is doing leg presses he could add another leg exercise to his routine ) * program variation is important for exercise adherence, keeps training stimulus fresh & challenging

Question 248

Define principle of regularity:

Answer 248

* the principle states that long term gains in muscular fitness will be realized only if the program is performed on a consistence basis * resistance training must be performed regularly several times per week to make continual gains in muscular fitness * periods of inactivity will result in a loss of muscular strength and size - “use it or lose it” * training induced adaptations cannot be stored * adequate recovery is needed between resistance training sessions

Question 249

Define Principle of Overload:

Answer 249

* it states that to enhance muscular fitness, the body must exerciser at a level beyond that which it is normally stressed * overload is typically manipulated by changing the exercise ... - intensity - duration - frequency - adding more advanced exercises to a training program is another way to place greater overload on the body

Question 250

Define principle of creativity:

Answer 250

* refers to the imagination and ingenuity that can help to optimize training induced adaptations and enhance exercise adherence * creative approaches for designing and implementing exercise programs are needed * Fitness professionals need to reflect on past experiences and use creative thinking to facilitate the development of training programs that are safe, effective and challenging * the qualitative aspects of exercise program design should not be overlooked ** this is where the art and science of designing resistance training programs come into play because the principles of exercise science need to be balanced with imagination and creativity * share experiences with other EP-Cs * take time to reflect * major importance on exercise safety and proper technique

Question 251

Define principle of enjoyment:

Answer 251

* states that participants who genuinely enjoy exercising are more like to adhere to the exercise program and achieve training goals * as a balance between skill and challenge * EPCs should provide immediate and meaningful feedback on challenging exercises cause it can help clients negotiate demanding situations and maintain a state of enjoyment while training

Question 252

Define principle of specificity:

Answer 252

* refers to the distinct adaptations that take place as a result of the training program * often referred to as the SAID principle - specific adaptations to impose demands * examples of adaptations: - muscle actions - velocity of the movement - exercise ROM - muscle groups trained - energy systems involved - intensity & volume of training * include multi joint & multiplanar movements - sagittal plane( left to right) - frontal/ coronal plane ( front to back) - transverse/ horizontal plane( upper to lower)

Question 253

Define principle of supervision:

Answer 253

* states that the safety and efficacy of exercise programs are maximized when qualified fitness professionals supervise activities while providing instruction and encouragement * reduces the risk of injury * clients are likely to make greater gains in muscular fitness and performance than unsupervised training * understand the PROCESS and your training programs will be more effective

Question 254

The 4 most common types of resistance training:

Answer 254

1) dynamic constant external resistance training ( DCER) * the weight lifted does not change during the lifting (concentric) and lowering (eccentric) phase of an exercise * when performed the heaviest weight that can be lifted throughout a full ROM is limited by the strength of a muscle at the weakest joint ankle * isotonic means constant(iso) tension(tonic) * can use free weights, weight machines, endless combinations of sets & reps * improve health and fitness * enhance motor performance skills and sports performance * weight machines: - limit the user to fixed planes of motion - easy to use - ideal for isolating muscle groups * free weights: - less expensive - can be used for a wide variety of diff exercises that require greater proprioception, balance, coordination 2) variable resistance training * mechanical devices that operate through a lever arm or CAM designed to vary the resistance through the exercises ROM * these devices force the muscle to contract maximally throughout the ROM by varying the resistance to match the exercise strength curve * can be used to train all the major muscle groups * provide proportionally less resistance in weaker segments of the movement and more resistance in stronger segments of the movement * provide a specific movement path that makes the exercise easier to perform; compared to free weight exercises that require balance + coordination + involvement of stabilizing muscle groups 3) isokinetics * involves dynamic muscular actions that are performed at a constant angular limb velocity * requires specialized equipment * design to train only single joint movements * these machines not usually used in fitness centers * type of training is used my physical therapists and certified athletic trainers for injury rehabilitation * the speed of movement is controlled * best to perform at slow, intermediate, and fast velocities to develop increased strength & power at diff movement speeds 4) plyometrics * refers to a specialized method of conditioning designed to enhance neuromuscular performance * characterized by quick, powerful movements that involve a rapid stretch of a muscle (eccentric muscle action) immediately followed by a rapid shortening of the same muscle (concentric muscle action) * provides physiological advantage because the muscle force generated during the concentric muscle action is potentiated by the preceding eccentric muscle action * * the amount of time it takes to change direction from the eccentric to the concentric phase of the movement is a critical factor for this training - The amortization phase should be as short as possible ( <0.1s) - to maximize training adaptations * explosive movements * ex. Double leg hops & jumping jacks - they go through a stretch-shortening cycle * the most beneficial training volume for optimizing training adaptations is performance of more than 40 reps per session * wear proper foot wear and have a shock absorbing landing surface

Question 255

The major modes of resistance training are:

Answer 255

* weight machines * free weights * body weight exercises * balls + bands + elastic tubing

Question 256

Proper breathing technique:

Answer 256

* Exhalation during the concentric phase * inhalation during the eccentric phase ** avoid Valsalva maneuver

Question 257

Resistance training program variables:

Answer 257

1) choice of exercise 2) order of exercise: * large muscle group exercises before small muscle group exercises * multi joint exercise before single joint exercises * this allows heavy weights to be used on the multi joint exercises because fatigue is less of a factor * power exercises ( plyometrics & weightlifting movements) should be performed before more traditional strength exercises ( back squat & bench ) so that the individual can train for maximal power without undue fatigue * can use split routine program ( all upper body one day and all lower body the other day) 3) resistance used * gains in muscular fitness are influenced by the amount of weight lifted , which is highly dependent on other program variables * recommended that training sets be performed to muscle fatigue but not exhaustion using the appropriate resistance * RM load of 6 or less =greatest effect on developing muscle strength * RM load 20 or more = greatest effect on developing local muscular endurance * to enhance muscular fitness: reps ranging between 8-12 ( 60-80% 1-RM) for novice exercisers; experienced exercisers may train at intensities greater than 80% 1-RM to achieve the desired gains in muscle strength 4) training volume ( total # of reps and sets) 5) rest intervals between sets & exercises * muscular strength: heavier weights & longer rest intervals ( 2-3min) required * muscular endurance: lighter weights & shorter rest periods (<1min) required 6) repetition velocity ( or cadence) 7) training frequency * beginners: 2-3 times per week nonconsecutive days, adequate recovery sessions ( 48-72hrs) enhances muscular fitness

Question 258

Define closed kinetic chain exercises:

Answer 258

The distal joint segment is stationary * example is a squat * mimic everyday activities and include more functional movement patterns

Question 259

Define open kinetic chain exercises:

Answer 259

Their terminal joint is free to move * example is a leg extension

Question 260

Define lumbopelvic hip complex:

Answer 260

* referred to as the core musculature * strengthening the abdominals + hips + lower back enhances body control and may reduce the risk of injury during athletic events & daily life activities ** effective exercises are planks & bridges in strengthening the core musculature ; as well as multidirectional exercises with rotation / diagonal patterns performed with own body weight or medicine balls * stability balls might help reduce lower back pain, increase joint stability, enhance core muscle activation

Question 261

Define periodization:

Answer 261

* concept that refers to the systematic variation in training program design * based on Selyes general adaptation syndrome (gas) * the year is divided into specific training cycles with each cycle having a specific goal... - macrocycle: longest phase, annual plan, peaking for the goal of competition, 3 phases and they are preparatory, competitive and transition - mesocycle: training phase, contains 3-6 microcycles or 2-6 weeks (sport dependent), refers to the main training target for particular period that should be developed - microcycle: shortest training cycle, typically last a week with the goal of facilitating a focused block of training * properly varying the training variables can ... - limit training plateaus - maximize performance gains - reduce the likelihood of overtraining * has 3 phases: preparatory, competitive, transition * the second model of periodization is the undulating(nonlinear) model - the daily fluctuations in training volume and intensity

Question 262

Flexibility exercise recommendation:

Answer 262

* ROM is improved acutely and chronically following flexibility exercises. * Flexibility exercises are most effective when the muscles are warm. * Static stretching exercises may acutely reduce power and strength * it is recommended that flexibility exercises be performed after exercise and sports where strength safe power are important for performance

Question 263

Flexibility type recommendation:

Answer 263

* a series of flexibility exercises targeting the major muscle tendon units should be performed * a variety of static, dynamic, and PNF flexibility exercises can improve ROM around a joint

Question 264

Flexibility volume recommendation:

Answer 264

* a total of 60s of flexibility exercise per joint * holding a single flexibility exercise for 10-30s to the point of tightness or slight discomfort is effective * older adults can benefit from holding the stretch for 30-60s * a 20-75% maximum voluntary contraction held for 3-6s followed by a 10-30s assisted stretch is recommended for PNF techniques * performing flexibility exercises >2-3 days per week with daily flexibility exercise is most effective

Question 265

Neuromotor exercise recommendations:

Answer 265

* these type of exercises involve balance, agility, coordination and gait * they are recommended on 2-3 days per week for older individuals and likely beneficial for younger adults as well * the optimal duration or number for these repetitions is not known * exercise routines of 20-30min In duration for a total of 60 min per week are effective

Question 266

The normal responses of the electrocardiogram (ECG):

Answer 266

1) P-wave: increased magnitude among inferior leads 2) PR segment: shortens and slopes downward among inferior leads 3) QRS: duration decreases, steal Q waves increase among lateral leads, R waves decrease, and S waves increase among inferior leads 4) J point(j junction): depresses below isoelectric line with upsloping ST segments that reach the isoelectric line within 80ms 5) T wave: decreases amplitude in early exercise, returns to preexercise amplitude at higher exerciser intensities , and may exceed preexercise amplitude in recovery 6) QT interval: absolute QT interval decreases. The QT interval corrected for HR increases with early exercise and then decreases at higher HRs

Question 267

Social Cognitive Theory states that the most important factors in behavior change are self-efficacy and:

Answer 267

Outcome expectations. Explanation: Social cognitive theory states that outcome expectations (what you think will happen as a result of your new behavior) and self-efficacy (situation-specific self-confidence) are the most important factors in behavior change.

Question 268

When a client extends the hips and knees from a parallel squat position to a standing position, which muscles perform the concentric action at these joints?

Answer 268

Gluteus maximus and quadriceps Explanation: When a client extends the hips and knees from a parallel squat position to a standing position, there is concentric action of the hip joint (via the gluteus maximus) and knee joint (via the quadriceps).

Question 269

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for an EP-C regarding supplements?

Answer 269

Manufacturers don't usually carry any insurance coverage. Explanation: An ancillary consideration to the problem of the lack of insurance coverage carried by supplement manufacturers is that most of the insurance policies for fitness professionals do not include protection from product liability.

Question 270

Which type of training provides the BEST results for maximum strength?

Answer 270

Nonlinear periodization Explanation: Some studies suggest that daily variations in nonlinear (undulation) training has a superior effect on maximizing strength as compared with weekly or monthly variation.

Question 271

Which type of exercise is indicated for someone with tendonitis who is still experiencing pain?

Answer 271

Eccentric training Explanation: Eccentric-only training is best for someone with tendonitis until she is free of pain.

Question 272

Children are more prone to ________ injuries than adults.

Answer 272

Heat Explanation: Children have underdeveloped thermoregulatory systems and subsequently are more prone to heat injuries than their adult counterparts.

Question 273

Blood vessels in older adults who have been sedentary tend to be ______.

Answer 273

Stiffer Explanation: As sedentary individuals become older, their blood vessels tend to become stiff and lose elasticity.

Question 274

Which of the following has research shown to be the MOST influential predictor of successful behavior change for physical activity?

Answer 274

Self-monitoring Explanation: Because research shows that self-monitoring is one of the key factors in behavior change, clients should monitor their own behaviors to assist with goal setting, problem solving, feedback, and self-reward.

Question 275

Behavior change theory is important because it allows for interventions that are replicable, sustainable, and:

Answer 275

Generalizable. Explanation: Behavior change theory is important in that it allows for replicable, sustainable, and generalizable interventions. If an intervention can be replicated many times with successful results across many populations and settings, it is said to be generalizable and has strong empirical support.

Question 276

What is the MOST significant disadvantage of using BMI to assess body composition?

Answer 276

It is difficult for clients to interpret and utilize for body weight goals. Explanation: BMI assesses weight relative to height, with the major shortcoming being the difficulty for a client to relate to and interpret needed weight loss or weight gain based on the number.

Question 277

As part of risk management, Certified Exercise Physiologists should have written policies, procedures, and forms to ensure that they:

Answer 277

Exercise reasonable care. Explanation: Certified Exercise Physiologists should create written policies, procedures, and forms that meet industry standards and guidelines, and maintain detailed written records to document compliance with these policies to minimize likelihood that they failed to exercise reasonable care.

Question 278

A client completes the first set of an unfamiliar free-weight exercise. Which of the following statements is the MOST appropriate feedback?

Answer 278

"Exhale when you push the weight up. You started out just fine, so slow down just a bit, and get your breathing in sync." Explanation: Ensuring client safety is the most important aspect of spotting and cueing. Immediately correct any training errors first, then reinforce what the client did well.

Question 279

The negative effects of a lower metabolic rate include which of the following?

Answer 279

Higher body weight Explanation: The result of a lower metabolic rate is usually higher body weight (from more body fat) because of a diminished ability to burn the energy that is consumed.

Question 280

Which of the following recommendations is MOST appropriate for a meal consumed 4 hours before an athletic competition?

Answer 280

Drink 5-7 ml of fluid per kilogram of body weight. Explanation: Deciding what changes will best meet client needs is the most challenging aspect of program design. Sound decisions must take into consideration the needs of the sport or activity, the individual training response, and available testing data.

Question 281

Which yoga pose would require the most balance?

Answer 281

Plank with one foot lifted Explanation: Performing a plank with one foot off the ground requires more balance due to a decrease in center of gravity.

Question 282

The muscles that depress the scapulothoracic joint are the:

Answer 282

Lower trapezius and pectoralis minor. Explanation: The lower trapezius and pectoralis minor function to depress the scapulothoracic joint.

Question 283

Minimizing the length of the ________ phase maximizes the use of elastic energy in plyometric training.

Answer 283

Amortization Explanation: The ECC phase plus the length of the brief ISOM phase between ECC and CON actions (coupling time) is the amortization phase. Minimizing the length of the amortization phase maximizes the use of elastic energy making for a more powerful effort.