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EMATOLOGIA > Domande erasmus > Flashcards

Domande erasmus Flashcards

1
Q

Hematopoietic stem cells are characterized by:
ability to self-renew
ability of phagocytosis
ability to transport oxygen
the ability to differentiate into targeted hematopoietic stem cells
ability to differentiate into nonhematopoietic cells

A

ability to self-renew
the ability to differentiate into targeted hematopoietic stem cells
ability to differentiate into nonhematopoietic cells

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2
Q

In a healthy adult, erythrocytes are formed in:
red and yellow bone marrow
red bone marrow
yellow bone marrow
spleen
red bone marrow and lymphatic organs

A

red bone marrow

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3
Q

Erythroblasts are characterized by:
as it matures, the cell shrinks
they have no core
marked cytoplasmic basophilia occurs during maturation
basophilic granules are present in the cytoplasm
as it matures, the cell enlarges

A

as it matures, the cell shrinks
(a. as the cell matures, it becomes smaller)

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4
Q

Hemoglobin A consists of
2 alpha chains and 2 beta chains
2 alpha chains and 2 delta chains
2 alpha chains
2 alpha chains and 2 gamma chains
2 chain gamma

A

2 alpha chains and 2 beta chains

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5
Q

A multipotent myeloid stem cell matures into all of the following directed stem cells EXCEPT:
red species
neutrophil - monocyte species
lymphatic species
megakaryocyte species
eosinophilic and basophilic species

A

lymphatic species

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6
Q

Among the mature cells of the white species - leukocytes - are:
neutrophils
monocytes
megakaryocytes
lymphocytes
myeloblasts

A

neutrophils
monocytes
lymphocytes

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7
Q

The first cell of the granulocyte species that no longer divides is:
myeloblast
promyelocyte
myelocyte
metamyelocyte
rod-shaped granulocyte

A

metamyelocyte

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8
Q

Neutrophilic granulocyte is characterized by:
that the core has 2 to 5 segments
intense orange-red colored granulation
absence of granulations
a nucleus is visible in each segment of the nucleus
that it has no sails

A

that the core has 2 to 5 segments

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9
Q

Neutrophilic granulocytes are characterized by:
to be found only in peripheral blood
that they pass quickly from the blood into the tissues
to live in tissues for several months
to transform into macrophages in tissues
to remain in the bone marrow at all times

A

that they pass quickly from the blood into the tissues

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10
Q

Eosinophilic granulocytes:
they do not pass from the blood into the tissues
are not capable of phagocytosis
are important in an early hypersensitivity reaction
are an important site of antibody formation
are a precursor of plasma

A

are important in an early hypersensitivity reaction

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11
Q

Among the mature cells of the lymphocyte type are:
lymphocytes B
T lymphocytes - inhibitor cells
T lymphocytes - killer cells
T lymphocytes - helper cells
lymphoblasts

A

lymphocytes B
T lymphocytes - inhibitor cells
T lymphocytes - killer cells
T lymphocytes - helper cells

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12
Q

Plasmas (plasmacells) develop from :
helper T-cell lymphocytes
from lymphocytes B
from granulocytes
from non-hematopoietic cells
from monocytes

A

from lymphocytes B

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13
Q

Monocytes:
are formed from a stem cell of the lymphatic type T
are formed from a lymphatic type B stem cell
form immunoglobulins
are converted in tissues into macrophages - histiocytes
they are found exclusively in peripheral blood

A

are converted in tissues into macrophages - histiocytes

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14
Q

Macrophages participate in the immune response by
synthesise immunoglobulins
mediate antigen to T lymphocytes
mediate antigen to B lymphocytes
transmit antigen to plasma cells
mediate granulocyte antigen

A

mediate antigen to T lymphocytes

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15
Q

Adult spleen: (3)
is an important organ of hematopoiesis
is an important lymphatic organ
is important in removing aged / damaged blood cells
an important reserve of erythrocytes
an important platelet reservoir

A

is an important lymphatic organ
is important in removing aged / damaged blood cells
an important platelet reservoir

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16
Q

Platelets are characterized by: (3)
- they are formed by the decay of the marginal part of the cytoplasm of megakaryocytes
- they are formed by the decay of the megakaryocyte nucleus
- they contain alpha granules, dense granules, and lysosomes in the cytoplasm
- they have a three-layer membrane with a high content of phospholipids
- that they have only a few hours of life

A
  • they are formed by the decay of the marginal part of the cytoplasm of megakaryocytes
  • they contain alpha granules, dense granules, and lysosomes in the cytoplasm
  • they have a three-layer membrane with a high content of phospholipids
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17
Q

Which of the following is not a change in the size, shape and colour of erythrocytes?
schizocytes
poikilocytosis
centrocytes
anisocytosis
spherocytes

A

centrocytes

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18
Q

It is recommended that a peripheral blood smear be examined if :
the leukocyte count is> 15 x 10 9 / l (> as 30)
the platelet count is <100 x 10 9 /
the proportion of lymphocytes is > 0.50
the leukocyte count is 4-10 x 10 9 / l
the eosinophil ratio is <0.20

A

the platelet count is <100 x 10 9 /

the proportion of lymphocytes is> 0.50

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19
Q

The normal ratio of hematopoietic cells to fat in the bone marrow is :
1: 2
1: 1
2: 1
3: 1
4: 1

A

1: 1

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20
Q

The average amount of Hb in the erythrocyte (MCH) is calculated from:
blood Hb concentration (g / L) and erythrocyte count
blood Hb concentration (g / L) and mean erythrocyte volume
hematocrit
blood Hb concentrations (g / L) and hematocrit
blood Hb concentrations (g / L)

A

blood Hb concentration (g / L) and erythrocyte count

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21
Q

Chronic myeloid leukemia is characterized by chromosomal translocation :
T (8; 21)
T (12; 21)
I nv (16)
T (9; 22)
D el (13) (q14.3)

A

T (9; 22) (BCR-ABL1 gene)

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22
Q

Determination of chromosomal abnormalities in leukemias and lymphomas is important for:
a. Determination of immunophenotype
b. Definitive diagnosis
c. Prognosis
d. Monitoring treatment effectiveness
e. FAB classification of leukemias
A. The correct answers are: a,b,c
B. The correct answers are: b,c,d
C. The correct answers are: c,d,e
D. The correct answers are: a,c,e
E. The correct answers are: a, b, d

A

B. The correct answers are: b,c,d

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23
Q

In acute leukemia, the following changes are usually found in the blood picture:
a. Increased or decreased number of leukocytes
b. Always reduced leukocyte count
c. Anemia
d. Decreased platelet count
e. Increased number of platelets
A. The correct answers are: a,b,c
B. The correct answers are: b,c,d
C. The correct answers are: c,d,e
D. The correct answers are: a,c,d
E. The correct answers are : a, b, d

A

D. The correct answers are: a,c,d

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24
Q

A 72-year-old patient with rheumatoid arthritis is being treated with gold salts, among other things. She has weakened in recent weeks, breathing faster. She noticed small hemorrhages on her shins, bleeding from her nose a few times. For the last 3 days she was in pain when swallowing, body temp. has risen above 38.0 ° C. She was taking a penicillin antibiotic, with no improvement. Examination: febrile, pale, with occasional hemorrhages across the palate and tiny purpura on the shins. The throat is red, without lining. There are no enlarged lymph nodes, liver and spleen. Rheumatoid arthritis has characteristic deformities on the hands. Blood count is as follows: L 1.1 x 10 9 / L, in DKS 0.2 x 10 9 / L neutrophilic granulocytes, no immature cells, hemoglobin concentration 67 g / L, platelets 12 x 10 9 / L. Which of the following diagnoses would be most likely?
acute myeloblastic leukemia
pure aplastic anemia
hairy cell leukemia
aplastic anemia
agranulocytosis

A

aplastic anemia

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25
Q

One of the following diseases is not manifested by pancytopenia in the peripheral blood :
aplastic anemia
megaloblastic anemia
myelodysplastic syndromes
pure aplastic anemia
hypersplenism

A

pure aplastic anemia

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26
Q

In a 60-year-old patient with aplastic anemia, the most successful treatment is :
with immunosuppressive drugs
replacement therapy with blood products
by autologous hematopoietic stem cell transplantation
by allogeneic hematopoietic stem cell transplantation
with erythropoietin

A

with immunosuppressive drugs

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27
Q

Fanconi’s anemia : (3)
is inherited aplastic anemia
it is accompanied by other anomalies
is synonymous with pure aplastic anemia
often progresses to acute leukemia
spontaneous remissions are common

A

is inherited aplastic anemia
it is accompanied by other anomalies
often progresses to acute leukemia

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28
Q

Clonal hematopoietic stem cell diseases do not include:
acute leukemia
chronic leukemia
myelodysplastic syndromes
paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
inherited hemolytic anemias

A

inherited hemolytic anemias

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29
Q

Long-term treatment of aplastic anemia with erythrocyte transfusions results in:
haemosiderosis
transition to acute leukemia
transition to myelodysplastic syndrome
has no side effects
erythrocytosis

A

haemosiderosis

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30
Q

In severe aplastic anemia, we usually find in the blood:
severe normocytic anemia with reticulocytosis
pancytopenia with reticulocytosis
pancytopenia with decreased reticulocyte count
signs of dyseritropoiesis are present in the bone marrow
hyposegmentation of neutrophils

A

pancytopenia with decreased reticulocyte count

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31
Q

The ater investigation is the most appropriate to assess the density of cells in the bone marrow in aplastic anemia?
puncture and cytological examination of KM
biopsy and histological examination of the KM
Magnetic resonance
Computed tomography
In ltrazvok

A

biopsy and histological examination of the KM

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32
Q

In patients younger than 20 years with very severe aplastic anemia, we decide to:
immunosuppressive treatment
treatment with growth factors
allogeneic hematopoietic stem cell transplantation
autologous hematopoietic stem cell transplantation
regular treatment with transfusions of concentrated erythrocytes

A

allogeneic hematopoietic stem cell transplantation

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33
Q

If the wrinkles on the palms are as pale as the skin around them, the blood Hb concentration is usually less than:
100 g / l
90 g / l
70 g / l
60g / L
50 g / l

A

70 g / l (severe anemia)

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34
Q

Conditions where the concentration of Hb in the blood does not reflect the actual changes in the total amount of Hb or erythrocytes in the body are: (3)
acute hemolysis
anemia immediately after acute bleeding
dehydration
hyperhydration
anemia with chronic inflammation

A

anemia immediately after acute bleeding
dehydration
hyperhydration (hypervolemia)

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35
Q

Which element of the blood picture is used to distinguish between anemia due to deficient erythrocyte formation and anemia due to excessive erythrocyte breakdown (hemolytic anemia):
degree of anisocytosis
degree of poikilocytosis
reticulocyte count
average erythrocyte volume (PVE, MCV)
volume of compressed erythrocytes (all, hematocrit)

A

reticulocyte count (<100x10 ^ 9 / l is deficient erythropoiesis in anemia)

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36
Q

Which of the following anemias can be accompanied by jaundice: (2)
hemolytic anemia
iron deficiency anemia
megaloblastic anemia
aplastic anemia
anemia after acute bleeding

A

hemolytic anemia
megaloblastic anemia

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37
Q

Which three blood counts are key to defining anemias (by degree and type):
blood Hb concentration
erythrocyte count in the blood
the number of reticulocytes in the blood
PHE (MCH)
PVE (MCV)

A

blood Hb concentration
the number of reticulocytes in the blood
PVE (MCV)

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38
Q

Microcytic anaemia is seen in:
a. essential thrombocythaemia
b. iron deficiency
c. haemochromatosis
d. thalassaemia syndrome

A

b. iron deficiency
d. thalassaemia syndrome

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39
Q

Which of the following anaemias are microcytic:
a. Myeloftious anaemia
b. Thalassaemia
c. Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
d. Megaloblastic anaemia
e. Fe deficiency anaemia

A

b. Thalassaemia
e. Fe deficiency anaemia

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40
Q

Folate is mainly absorbed in:
duodenum and upper jejunum
lower part of the jejunum
evenly throughout the ileum
terminal ileum
evenly throughout the small intestine

A

duodenum and upper jejunum

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41
Q

Megaloblastic anemia in its pure form is always:
normocytic
hypochromic
microcytic
macrocytic
hypochromic and microcytic

A

macrocytic

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42
Q

Megaloblastic anaemia affects :
a. especially younger people
b. mainly older people
c. mainly men
d. mainly women
e. children

A

b. mainly older people

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43
Q

Folate requirements are higher than usual: (3)
in vitamin A12 B12 deficiency
during pregnancy
in hemolytic anemia
in a vegetarian diet
in chronic alcoholism

A

during pregnancy
in hemolytic anemia
in chronic alcoholism

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44
Q

The most common cause of megaloblastic anemia in our country is:
terminal ileum disease
vitamin B12 deficiency due to blind twist syndrome
pernicious anemia
folate deficiency
folate deficiency in chronic alcoholism

A

pernicious anemia

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45
Q

The body’s folate stores are sufficient to:
a few days
4-5 weeks
4-5 months
1 year
4-5 years

A

4-5 months

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46
Q

The body’s vitamin B12 stores are sufficient to:
a few days
3-6 weeks
3-6 months
3-6 years
9-10 years

A

3-6 years

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47
Q

What is the symptom or sign of megaloblastic anemia:
koilonihijo
Hunter’s glossitis
ragade in the corners of the mouth
Plummer-Vinson syndrome
The emergence of PIZZA

A

Hunter’s glossitis

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48
Q

The likelihood of megaloblastic anemia is low if the following are not found in the blood smear :
severe macrocytosis
anisocytosis
Hypersegmentation of neutrophils
Basophilic punctures
Howell-Jolly bodies

A

Hypersegmentation of neutrophils

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49
Q

For lack of vit. B12 is characterized by the following changes in serum concentrations of some metabolites:

increased homocysteine ​​+ normal methylmalonic acid
increased homocysteine ​​+ increased methylmalonic acid
normal homocysteine ​​+ normal methylmalonic acid
increased homocysteine ​​+ normal methylmalonic acid
reduced homocysteine ​​+ normal methylmalonic acid

A

increased homocysteine ​​+ increased methylmalonic acid

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50
Q

Folate deficiency was characterized by the following changes in serum concentrations of some metabolites:
increased homocysteine ​​+ normal methylmalonic acid
increased homocysteine ​​+ increased methylmalonic acid
normal homocysteine ​​+ normal methylmalonic acid
increased homocysteine ​​+ normal methylmalonic acid
reduced homocysteine ​​+ normal methylmalonic acid

A

increased homocysteine ​​+ normal methylmalonic acid

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51
Q

The suspicion of pernicious anemia is confirmed by finding:
high serum lactate dehydrogenase (ldh) activity
antibodies to intrinsic factor
antibodies against parietal cells
increased serum homocysteine ​​concentration
increased amount of methylmalonic acid in urine or serum

A

antibodies to intrinsic factor

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52
Q

In severe megaloblastic anemia can be found in the blood picture: (3)
MCV > 120 and megalocytes
Hyposegmentation of neutrophils
Pancytopenia
Reticulocytosis
Hypersegmentation of neutrophils

A

MCV > 120 and megalocytes
Pancytopenia
Hypersegmentation of neutrophils

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53
Q

Which of the following measures is incorrect in an asymptomatic patient with megaloblastic anemia if B12 and folate levels are not yet available:

treatment with vit only. B12
treatment with vit. B12 in folate
treatment with folate only
waiting for vit concentration test. B12 and serum folate
treatment of associated diseases

A

treatment with folate only

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54
Q

It is sufficient to correct anaemia due to B12 deficiency and replenish the body’s stores:
a. One hydroxycobalamin injection 2.5 mg (1 amp) im.
b. Two injections of hydroxycobalamin 2.5 mg (2 amp) im.
c. Four injections of hydroxycobalamin 2.5 mg (1 amp) im. 1-2 days apart
d. Ten injections of hydroxycobalamin 2.5 mg (1amp) every other day
e. Twenty injections of hydroxycobalamin 2.5 mg (1amp) every other day

A

Four injections of hydroxycobalamin 2.5 mg (1 amp) im. 1-2 days apart

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55
Q

The established maintenance treatment for pernicious anaemia in our country is:
a. Hydroxycobalamin 2.5 mg (1 amp) intramuscularly once a month
b. Hydroxycobalamin 2.5 mg (1 amp) im. once a month and folate 5 mg/day per
os
c. Hydroxycobalamin 2.5 mg (1 amp) intravenously every 2-3 months
d. Hydroxycobalamin 2.5 mg (1 amp) intramuscularly every 2-3 months
e. Hydroxycobalamin 2.5 mg per person every 2-3 months

A

d. Hydroxycobalamin 2.5 mg (1 amp) intramuscularly every 2-3 months

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56
Q

Which of the following anemias does not belong to the group of anemias that can be macrocytic:
anemia in chronic liver disease
anemia in hypothyroidism
aplastic anemia
anemia in chronic inflammation
myelophthisical anemia

A

anemia in chronic inflammation

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57
Q

The 63-year-old woman came to the doctor because she has been getting tired of everyday tasks for the last three months. On clinical examination, the skin was pale yellowish, and a spindle-shaped systolic murmur was heard at the base of the heart. There were no other abnormalities. About d take her blood for testing. The results of the examinations showed: Hb 54 g / L, PVE (MCV) 132 fL, reticulocytes 14x10 9 / L, leukocytes 2,4x10 9 / L, neutrophils 1.4x10 9 / L with hypersegmentation of neutrophils, platelets 82x10 9 / L. Thus, the blood picture was accompanied by LDH 62.8 ukat / L, total bilirubin 22 umol / L, conjugated 7 umol / L. Which of the following diagnoses would be most correct:
hemolytic anemia
megaloblastic anemia
aplastic anemia
refractory anemia
hypersplenism

A

megaloblastic anemia

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58
Q

Factors in the development of chronic inflammatory anemia:(3)
iron metabolism disorder
shortened erythrocyte lifespan
inadequate renal erythropoietin release
insufficient stocks of stored iron
bleeding

A

iron metabolism disorder
shortened erythrocyte lifespan
inadequate renal erythropoietin release

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59
Q

Anemia of chronic inflammation can be found in: (3)
osteomyelitis
osteoporosis
rheumatoid arthritis
Hodgkin’s lymphoma
Hypothyroidism

A

osteomyelitis
rheumatoid arthritis
Hodgkin’s lymphoma

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60
Q

In anemia due to chronic inflammation, we can find: (3)
increased or normal serum ferritin concentration
decreased serum ferritin concentration
decreased serum iron concentration
increased serum iron concentration
decreased serum transferrin concentration
increased serum transferrin concentration

A

increased or normal serum ferritin concentration
decreased serum iron concentration
decreased serum transferrin concentration

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61
Q

The most appropriate treatment for chronic inflammatory anemia is:
with erythropoietin
with glucocorticoids
with iron preparations
treatment of the underlying inflammatory disease
erythrocyte transfusions

A

treatment of the underlying inflammatory disease

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62
Q

The most important factor in the development of anemia in renal failure is:
inhibition of erythropoiesis due to uremic toxins
iron deficiency
folate loss due to hemodialysis
shortened erythrocyte lifespan
deficient erythropoietin production in the kidneys

A

deficient erythropoietin production in the kidneys

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63
Q

The characteristics of anemia in renal failure are: (3)
anemia is normocytic
anemia is microcytic
anemia is macrocytic
the number of reticulocytes in the blood is increased
the number of reticulocytes in the blood is reduced
serum erythropoietin concentration is reduced

A

anemia is normocytic
the number of reticulocytes in the blood is reduced
serum erythropoietin concentration is reduced

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64
Q

How to treat anemia in renal failure if Hb is 96 g / L and PVE (MCV) 85 fl:
with erythrocyte transfusions
with glucocorticoids
with erythropoietin
with folate
with iron preparations

A

with erythropoietin

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65
Q

Which of the following statements is true for anaemia in chronic liver disease: (2)
a. Anaemia is normocytic or mild macrocytic
b. Anaemia is usually microcytic
c. Schizocytes are detected in the blood smear
d. Spherocytes can be found in the blood smear
e. In a blood smear, nucleocytes (=particulate erythrocytes) can be detected

A

a. Anaemia is normocytic or mild macrocytic
e. In a blood smear, nucleocytes (condocytes) (=particulate erythrocytes) can be detected

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66
Q

What diseases of the endocrine glands can be accompanied by anemia: (3)
hypothyroidism
hyperthyroidism
Addison’s disease
Cushing’s syndrome
panhypopituitarism
acromegaly

A

hypothyroidism
Addison’s disease
panhypopituitarism

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67
Q

During pregnancy it is recommended to give preventive preparations: (2)
iron
vitamin B12
vitamin B6
vitamin C
folate

A

iron
folate

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68
Q

Myelophthisical anemia may be due to:
bone marrow infiltration by cancer cells
myelofibrosis
miliary tuberculosis
lipidosis
all of the above

A

all of the above

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69
Q

Think of myelophthic anemia if:
anisocytosis and poikilocytosis of erythrocytes
leukoerythroblast blood count
codocytes in the blood smear
schizocytes in a blood smear
acanthocytes in the blood smear

A

leukoerythroblast blood count

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70
Q

A 60-year-old patient came to the doctor due to the appearance of malaise, increased fatigue and dyspnoea with exertion. The patient underwent surgery (lobectomy) for bronchial carcinoma 2 years ago. In the blood picture, the concentration of Hb 90 g / L, MCV (PVE) 85 fL, reticulocytes 100x10 9 / L, leukocytes 5x10 9 / L, platelets 280x10 9 / L, shift to the left in the differential white blood picture (promyelocytes 1%) were found. , myelocytes 5%, rod neutrophils 5% segmented neutrophils 65%). There were also 1% erythroblasts in the blood and anisocytosis and poikilocytosis of erythrocytes. Which of the following diagnoses would be most correct:
hemolytic anemia
myelophthisical anemia
anemia of chronic inflammation
megaloblastic anemia
refractory anemia (MDS)

A

myelophthisical anemia

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71
Q

The characteristics of the blood picture in iron deficiency anemia are: (3)
reduced PVE (MCV)
increased PVE
increased no. reticulocytes
reduced or normal no. reticulocytes
hypochromia

A

reduced PVE (MCV)
reduced or normal no. reticulocytes
hypochromia

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72
Q

The most common cause of iron deficiency in women of childbearing age is:
occult gastrointestinal bleeding
microhematuria
increased blood loss with monthly laundry
inadequate nutrition
hormonal contraception

A

increased blood loss with monthly laundry

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73
Q

The body’s iron stores are usually estimated from:
serum iron concentrations
serum ferritin concentrations
serum hemoglobin concentrations
protoporphyrin concentrations in erythrocytes
bone marrow staining on iron

A

serum ferritin concentrations

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74
Q

The main criteria for evaluating the success of Fe treatment are:
a. Increase in serum Fe concentration
b. Increase in serum ferritin concentration
c. > 20 g/L increase in haemoglobin concentration during the first 3 weeks of treatment
d. absence of symptoms of Fe deficiency
e. PVE growth (MCV)

A

c. > 20 g/L increase in haemoglobin concentration during the first 3 weeks

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75
Q

Iron deficiency anemia is :
the most common anemia
very rare anemia
it is common in adult men
it is rare in women of childbearing age
it occurs only in children

A

the most common anemia

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76
Q

It applies to iron in the human body (3):
is a component of the cell
participates in many chemical reactions
in tissues, iron is found as a free cation
it is stored in the form of ferritin and hemosiderin
heme iron is less well absorbed than ionic iron

A

is a component of the cell
participates in many chemical reactions
it is stored in the form of ferritin and hemosiderin

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77
Q

What is considered iron deficiency anaemia?
a. anaemia occurs gradually
b. stored iron is used first
c. iron requirements are reduced in pregnancy
d. in women of childbearing age, the most common cause of anaemia is heavy menstrual periods
e. despite gastric resection, iron resorption from food is normal

A

a. anaemia occurs gradually
b. stored iron is used first
d. in women of childbearing age, the most common cause of anaemia is heavy menstrual periods

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78
Q

The absorption of iron in the gastrointestinal tract is (3)
a. iron in the form of heme is better absorbed than ionic iron
b. in a healthy person, 10% of all iron is absorbed from food
c. iron is absorbed mainly in the duodenum and jejunum
d. iron absorption is better if the gastric juice is less acidic
e. iron deficiency reduces the proportion of iron absorbed from food

A

a. iron in the form of heme is better absorbed than ionic iron
b. in a healthy person, 10% of all iron is absorbed from food
c. iron is absorbed mainly in the duodenum and jejunum

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79
Q

What applies to iron deficiency anemia: (3)
anemia develops rapidly
the stored iron is consumed first
serum ferritin concentration is reduced
chronic bleeding is the most common cause of iron deficiency
in an age of rapid growth, children need less iron

A

the stored iron is consumed first
serum ferritin concentration is reduced
chronic bleeding is the most common cause of iron deficiency

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80
Q

In iron deficiency anemia , in addition to the general signs of anemia, we can also find: (3)
ragade in the corners of the mouth
changes in the nails of the hands (koilonihija)
Hunter’s glossitis
subicterus
swallowing disorders (Plummer Vinson syndrome)

A

ragade in the corners of the mouth
changes on the nails of the hands (koilonychia)
swallowing disorders (Plummer Vinson syndrome)

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81
Q

We admitted the 45-year-old patient for 14 days of malaise, headache and pain in the hips while walking. 2 days before admission, she felt severe burning pain behind her chest while walking up the stairs. For the past six months, she has had heavy menstrual bleeding that has lasted as long as 12 days. A gynecologist discovered uterine fibroids. Clinical examination revealed pallor of the skin and mucous membranes, ragades of the corners of the mouth and nails flattened in the shape of a watch glass. Laboratory : conc. hemoglobin 70 g / l, MCV (PVE) 66 fl, platelet count, leukocyte count and white differential blood count were within normal limits. Serum iron and ferritin concentrations were decreased, TIBC increased, and transferrin saturation decreased. Values ​​of urea, creatinine, bilirubin, electrolytes, transaminase activity were within normal limits, as well as urine results. Which of the following diagnoses is the most correct?
A. idiopathic megaloblastic anemia
B. hemolytic anemia
C. iron deficiency anemia
D. sideroblastic anemia
E. thalassemia syndrome

A

C. iron deficiency anemia

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82
Q

Extracorpuscular hemolytic anemias are:
congenital
obtained
congenital and acquired

A

obtained

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83
Q

Corpuscular hemolytic anemias are:
congenital
obtained
congenital and acquired

A

Corpuscular hemolytic anemias are hereditary, except for paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

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84
Q

Corpuscular hemolytic anemias are hereditary with the exception of:
sickle cell anemia
thalassemia beta
paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
thalassemia alpha
G-6-PD deficiency

A

paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

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85
Q

Laboratory signs of hemolysis are: (3)
A. decreased serum haptoglobin concentration
B. increased serum haptoglobin concentration
C, increased concentration of unconjugated bilirubin
D. increased concentration of conjugated bilirubin
E. reticulocytosis

A

A. decreased serum haptoglobin concentration
C. increased concentration of unconjugated bilirubin
E. reticulocytosis

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86
Q

Laboratory signs of severe intravascular hemolysis are:(3)
hemoglobinuria
hemoglobinemia
methemalbuminemia
methaemoglobinaemia
hemosiderinemia

A

hemoglobinuria
hemoglobinemia
methemalbuminemia

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87
Q

Signs of chronic or recurrent intravascular hemolysis are:
hemoglobinuria
hemosiderin in urinary sediment
hemoglobinemia
methemalbuminemia
methaemoglobinaemia

A

hemosiderin in urinary sediment

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88
Q

What erythrocyte change is present in hemolytic anemia due to mechanical erythrocyte damage:
codocytes
schizocytes
drepanocytes
spherocytes
Heinz’s body

A

schizocytes

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89
Q

What erythrocyte change is present in autoimmune hemolytic anemia:
codocytes
schizocytes
drepanocytes
spherocytes
Heinz’s body

A

spherocytes

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90
Q

What erythrocyte change is characteristic of a HbS homozygote:
codocytes
schizocytes
drepanocytes
spherocytes
Heinz’s body

A

drepanocytes (= sickle erythrocytes, narrow sickle shape a; in HbS homozygotes )

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91
Q

Codocytes in a blood smear are present in:
HbS
g-6-pd deficiency
thalassemia
paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
all of the above

A

thalassemia (kodoci such as t ar d Asti erythrocytes; present in liver diseases)

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92
Q

Which test confirms autoimmune hemolytic anemia:
by the indirect Coombs test
by the direct Coombs test
evidence of spherocytes in a blood smear
erythrocyte osmotic resistance test
immunofixation

A

by the direct Coombs test

93
Q

Evidence of microangiopathic hemolytic anemia is characterized by all but: (Int. P. 1286 )
A. increase in LDH concentration
B. the presence of schistocytes - fragmented erythrocytes
C. increase in haptoglobin concentration
D. increase in unconjugated bilirubin concentration
E. negative direct Coombs test

A

C. increase in haptoglobin concentration

94
Q

Approximately one-third of cases of symptomatic autoimmune hemolytic anemia occur in:
viral infections
lymphoproliferative diseases
rheumatic diseases
chronic inflammation
nonhematological malignancies

A

lymphoproliferative diseases

95
Q

Warm autoantibodies in autoimmune hemolytic anemia usually belong to immunoglobulins of the class:
IgM
IgA
IgG
IgE
IgD

A

IgG

96
Q

In autoimmune hemolytic anemia with warm antibodies, the following signs may be present EXCEPT:
pale
jaundice
enlarged spleen
enlarged liver
cyanosis

A

cyanosis

97
Q

Treatment of newly discovered autoimmune hemolytic anemia with warm antibodies begins with:
cyclosporine A
glucocorticoids
cyclophosphamide
azathioprine
rituximab

A

glucocorticoids

98
Q

A 45-year-old patient was accidentally diagnosed with mild macrocytic anemia with reticulocytosis. Clinical examination was normal except for subicterus. Results of laboratory tests: Hb 110 g / L, PVE 109 fL, reticulocytes 480x10 9 / L, leukocytes 9.6, neutrophils 8.2, platelets 259, there are individual spherocytes in the blood smear, direct Coombs is positive, total bilirubin 59 µmol / L, direct 8 µmol / L. Which of the following diagnoses would be most correct:
A. megaloblastic anemia
B. autoimmune hemolytic anemia
C. myelophthisical anemia
D. hereditary spherocytosis
E. thalassemia

A

B. autoimmune hemolytic anemia

99
Q

The characteristics of the disease due to cold agglutinins are all EXCEPT:
acrocyanosis , which occurs in the cold
high titer of cold agglutinins
negative direct Coombs test with monospecific serum for IgG
positive direct Coombs test with monospecific complement serum
is always due to lymphatic neoplasms

A

is always due to lymphatic neoplasms

100
Q

Autoantibodies in cold agglutinin disease belong to immunoglobulins of the class:
IgA
IgG
IgE
IgM
IgD

A

IgM

101
Q

Typical causes of mechanical erythrocyte damage are all listed EXCEPT:
aortic valve defects
thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
in DIK syndrome
during a long run on hard ground
arterial vascular stents

A

arterial vascular stents

102
Q

Characteristics of anemia due to mechanical damage of erythrocytes: (2)
hemolysis is intravascular
hemolysis is extravascular
schizocytes are visible in the blood smear
acanthocytes are visible in the blood smear
in erythrocytes are Howell-Jolly bodies

A

hemolysis is intravascular
schizocytes are visible in the blood smear

103
Q

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria is: (3)
acquired hemolytic anemia
congenital hemolytic anemia
corpuscular hemolytic anemia
extracorpuscular hemolytic anemia
hemolysis is extravascular
hemolysis is intravascular

A

acquired hemolytic anemia
corpuscular hemolytic anemia
hemolysis is intravascular

104
Q

Which of the following anemias is characterized by intravascular hemolysis: (3)
cold agglutinin disease
paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
hereditary spherocytosis
anemia due to mechanical damage to erythrocytes
paroxysmal hemoglobinuria due to cooling

A

paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
anemia due to mechanical damage to erythrocytes
paroxysmal hemoglobinuria due to cooling

105
Q

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria applies to all but the following:
is a clonal disease
a characteristic defect in the blood cell membrane is present
cytopenias of varying degrees may be present
the risk of venous thrombosis is increased
the number of reticulocytes is reduced, so the anemia is microcytic

A

the number of reticulocytes is reduced, so the anemia is microcytic

106
Q

The characteristics of hereditary spherocytosis are: (2)
gender-related inheritance
enlarged spleen
transient rapid exacerbations of anemia
hemolysis is intravascular
belongs to extracorpuscular hemolytic anemias

A

enlarged spleen
transient rapid exacerbations of anemia (crisis)

107
Q

Inherited spherocytosis is treated with:
glucocorticoids
splenectomy
erythrocyte transfusions
immunoglobulins
with cyclosporine A

A

splenectomy

108
Q

A 26-year-old patient sought help for years of jaundice. This has become more pronounced in recent months. Father and uncle also had jaundice and had their spleen removed. On examination, it is pale, the skin and whites are straw yellow, the spleen is palpable 4 cm below the costal arch. Laboratory: Hb 87 g / L, PVE 85 fL, reticulocytes 142x10 9 / L, there are spherocytes in the blood smear, the concentration of total bilirubin is 102 µmol / L, indirect 6.8 µmol / L. Which of the following diagnoses would be most correct:
A. autoimmune hemolytic anemia
B. megaloblastic anemia
C. myelophthisical anemia
D. hereditary spherocytosis
E. thalassemia

A

D. hereditary spherocytosis

109
Q

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G-6-PD) deficiency: (3)
is the most common enzymopathy worldwide;
the gene for G-6-PD is located on the Y chromosome;
the G-6-PD gene is located on the X chromosome;
acute hemolysis may be triggered by infection or certain medications;
we find drepanocytes in the blood;

A

is the most common enzymopathy worldwide
the G-6-PD gene is located on the X chromosome
acute hemolysis may be triggered by infection or certain medications

110
Q

The characteristics of thalassemia beta minor are: (3)
reduced PVE (MCV)
decreased serum iron and ferritin
increased serum iron and ferritin concentrations
increased proportion of Hb A2 in erythrocytes
decreased proportion of Hb A2 in erythrocytes

A

reduced PVE (MCV)
increased serum iron and ferritin concentrations
increased proportion of Hb A2 in erythrocytes

111
Q

The characteristics of sickle cell anemia are: (2)
pain crises
koilonihija
ragade in the corners of the mouth
Hunter’s glossitis
signs of hemolytic anemia are present

A

signs of hemolytic anemia are present
pain crises

112
Q

What is leukoerythroblast blood count:
A.there are increased numbers of eosinophils and platelets in the blood
B.there is an increased number of immature granulocytes and normoblasts in the blood
C.there is an increased number of normoblasts and reticulocytes in the blood
D.there is an increased number of lymphocytes and reticulocytes in the blood
E.there is an increased number of eosinophilic granulocytes and reticulocytes in the blood

A

B.there is an increased number of immature granulocytes and normoblasts in the blood

Leukoerythroblastic reaction. In addition to immature granulocytes,
polychromatic and orthochromatic normoblasts can be found in the
blood

113
Q

The characteristics of agranulocytosis are: (3)
A. the number of granulocytes in the blood is less than 0.2 x 10 9 / L
B. necrotizing angina with sepsis
C. the number of granulocytes in the blood is less than 1.0 x 10 9 / L
D. occurs after taking certain medications
E. it always occurs after vaccination

A

A. the number of granulocytes in the blood is less than 0.2 x 10 9 / L
B. necrotizing angina with sepsis
D. occurs after taking certain medications

114
Q

The characteristics of idiopathic leukocytosis in smokers are:
the number of leukocytes in the blood up to 29 x 10 9 / L and the normal differential white blood count
the number of leukocytes in the blood up to 15 x 10 9 / L and the normal differential white blood count
the number of leukocytes in the blood up to 29 x 10 9 / L and an increase in the number of eosinophils
the number of leukocytes in the blood up to 29 x 10 9 / L and moderate anemia
the number of leukocytes in the blood up to 29 x 10 9 / L and accelerated erythrocyte sedimentation

A

the number of leukocytes in the blood up to 29 x 10 9 / L and the normal differential white blood count

115
Q

Procedure for treating infection in a patient with severe acute neutropenia: (3)
A. we take blood culture and other samples of infections
B. treated with a broad-spectrum antibacterial drug parenterally
C. treated with glucocorticoids
D. treated with an antifungal drug parenterally
E. treated with G-CSF 5 ug / kg body weight per day sc

A

A. we take blood culture and other samples of infections
B. treated with a broad-spectrum antibacterial drug parenterally
E. treated with G-CSF 5 ug / kg body weight per day sc

116
Q

A patient with myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) is treated:
A. as soon as the disease is diagnosed
B. only when patients have problems
C. one month after the diagnosis
D. when severe thrombocytopenia occurs
E. never

A

B. only when patients have problems (bleeding, anemia, infections)

117
Q

The characteristics of myelodysplastic syndromes are: (3)
macrocytic anemia
it is most common in younger people
it is most common in the elderly
the disease often progresses to acute myeloblastic leukemia
the disease often progresses to acute lymphoblastic leukemia

A

macrocytic anemia
it is most common in the elderly
the disease often progresses to acute myeloblastic leukemia

118
Q

The following tests are needed to define myelodysplastic syndrome: (3)
complete blood count and cytological examination of bone marrow;
bone marrow staining on iron;
haemostasis investigations;
serum and urine electrophoresis;
cytogenetic testing;

A

complete blood count and cytological examination of bone marrow;
bone marrow staining on iron;
cytogenetic testing;

119
Q

Typical chromosomal abnormalities of malignant lymphomas: (3)
determine the natural course of the disease
are irrelevant for determining the natural course of the disease
allow differential diagnostic identification of lymphoma
allow prediction of treatment success
are irrelevant to the prediction of treatment success

A

determine the natural course of the disease
allow differential diagnostic identification of lymphoma
allow prediction of treatment success

120
Q

The following tests are needed to diagnose malignant lymphoma: (+1)
cytological and histological examination of the affected tissue
determination of cellular markers on lymphoma cells
cytogenetic and molecular genetic investigations
biochemical blood tests
cytochemical staining

A

cytological and histological examination of the affected tissue
determination of cellular markers on lymphoma cells
cytogenetic and molecular genetic investigations
biochemical blood tests

121
Q

In malignant lymphoma, the most commonly affected are: (3)
lymph nodes in the neck and supraclavicular cavities
lymph nodes in the armpits
lymph nodes in the groin
enlarged spleen
lymph nodes in the interstitium

A

lymph nodes in the neck and supraclavicular cavities
lymph nodes in the armpits
enlarged spleen

122
Q

In disseminated plasmacytoma, the patient most often has problems due to: (3)
back pain
renal failure
frequent pneumonia
arterial hypertension
heart failure

A

back pain
renal failure
frequent pneumonia

123
Q

The characteristics of chronic lymphocytic leukemia are: (3)
A.symmetrically enlarged lymph nodes in the neck, armpits and groin
B.enlarged spleen
C.pancytopenia in the blood
D.in the blood of more than 4.0 x 10 9 / L lymphocytes
E.occurs before the age of 50 years

A

A.symmetrically enlarged lymph nodes in the neck, armpits and groin
B.enlarged spleen
D.in the blood of more than 4.0 x 10 9 / L lymphocytes

124
Q

The characteristics of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia of clinical stage C are:
a. haemoglobin <100 g /L or platelet count <100 x 10-9/L
b. average survival less than 2.5 years
c. all peripheral lymph nodes very enlarged
d. very enlarged spleen
e. haemoglobin <70 g /L

A

a. haemoglobin <100 g /L or platelet count <100 x 10-9/L

125
Q

Large B cell lymphoma and follicular lymphoma: When we decide to treat it, we treat it with:
fludarabine
chlorambucil
R-CHOP
imatinib
interferon alpha

A

R-CHOP (rituximab-cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, vincristine and prednisone)

126
Q

The following signs of the disease are present in the clinical developmental stage IIIB of Hodgkin’s disease: (1+)
A. the lymph nodes above the diaphragm are enlarged
B. the lymph nodes above and below the diaphragm are enlarged
C. general signs of the disease are present
D. the disease has spread to the bone marrow
E. conc. hemoglobin <100 g / L

A

B. the lymph nodes above and below the diaphragm are enlarged
C. general signs of the disease are present

127
Q

The characteristics of diffuse large B cell lymphoma are: (3)
A. is the most common B lymphoma, rapid progression, especially with enlarged lymph nodes and concomitant involvement of other organs
B. confirmation of the diagnosis is histological examination of the affected tissue and determination of cellular markers on lymphoma cells
C. usually treated with glucocorticoids only
D. often found in a blood smear of hair cells to confirm the diagnosis
E. it is usually treated with a combination of R-CHOP (rituximab-cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, vincristine and prednisone)

A

A. is the most common B lymphoma, rapid progression, especially with enlarged lymph nodes and concomitant involvement of other organs
B. confirmation of the diagnosis is histological examination of the affected tissue and determination of cellular markers on lymphoma cells
E. it is usually treated with a combination of R-CHOP (rituximab-cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, vincristine and prednisone)

128
Q

The most effective treatment for disseminated plasmacytoma in most patients is:
A. treatment with high doses of glucocorticoids
B. induction treatment with cytotoxic drugs and autologous hematopoietic stem cell transplantation
C. treatment with a combination of R-CHOP (rituximab-cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, vincristine and prednisone)
D. interferon alpha treatment
E. treatment with allogeneic hematopoietic stem cell transplantation

A

B. induction treatment with cytotoxic drugs and autologous hematopoietic stem cell transplantation

129
Q

The most effective supportive treatment and prevention of complications in a patient with disseminated plasmacytoma is: (combination)
A. regular administration of bisphosphonates to reduce osteoclastic activity
B. irradiation with ionizing rays of osteolytic changes on statically important parts of the skeleton
C. administration of iv immunoglobulins in patients with frequent infections
D. continuous treatment with glucocorticoids
E. administration of interferon alpha

A

A, B, C

130
Q

The most common histological type of Hodgkin’s lymphoma is:
lymphocyte predominance
nodular sclerosis
shape with different cells
form with a small number of cells
all four histological types are evenly represented

A

nodular sclerosis

131
Q

With the onset of so-called hairy cell leukemia neutropenia and hair cells in the blood (combinations)
A. enlarged spleen
B. “Dry puncture” of the bone marrow
C. enlarged lymph nodes in the neck and armpits
D. enlarged spleen and liver

A

A. enlarged spleen
B. “Dry puncture” of the bone marrow
C. enlarged lymph nodes in the neck and armpits

132
Q

The 68-year-old patient had a fever for 2 days without chills, limb pain, and serous nasal discharge. He had several enlarged individual, movable, painless lymph nodes in his neck and armpits. We did not feel the enlarged organs in the abdomen. In the blood picture, he had a hemoglobin concentration of 138 g / L, reticulocyte count 58 x 10 9 / L, leukocyte count 58.8 x 10 9 / L, lymphocyte count 55.3 x 10 9 / L, platelet count 156 x 10 9 / L and Gumprecht shadows in a blood smear. The patient most likely has:
A. hairy cell leukemia
B. large cell diffuse B lymphoma
C. chronic lymphocytic leukemia
D. lymphoplasmocytoid lymphoma
E. disseminated by plasma cells

A

C. chronic lymphocytic leukemia

(smudge cells)

133
Q

A 62-year-old patient who was being treated for high blood pressure and had low back pain for 2 months was found to have greatly accelerated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (93 mm / hour). Examination of the patient revealed reduced mobility of the spine in the lower back with limited anterior tilt, inclination, and lateral tilt. In the blood picture, she had a hemoglobin concentration of 108 g / L, a reticulocyte count of 32 x 10 9 / L, a leukocyte count of 6.2 x 10 9 / L, and a platelet count of 172 x 10 9 / L. In the proteinogram, the concentration of beta globulins was increased (monoclonal tooth 32 g / L). Skeletal radiographs revealed diffuse demineralization of the axial skeleton, compression fractures of the 4th and 5th bodies of the lumbar vertebrae, and osteolysis in the pelvis and skull. The patient most likely has:
A. chronic lymphocytic leukemia
B. large cell diffuse B lymphoma
C. heavy chain disease
D. lymphoplasmocytoid lymphoma
E. disseminated by plasma cells

A

E. disseminated by plasma cells

134
Q

Which of the investigative methods is not crucial in the classification, diagnosis, and subsequent treatment of acute leukemias?
A. cytological examination of the bone marrow
B. bone marrow biopsy (histological examination)
C. Immunophenotype of leukemic cells
D. cytogenetic characteristics (abnormalities) of leukemic cells
E. molecular-genetic characteristics (abnormalities) of leukemic cells

A

B. bone marrow biopsy (histological examination)

135
Q

“Philadelphia chromosome”, a translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22 (t (9; 22)) is characterized by:
A. acute myeloid leukemia and acute lymphocytic leukemia
B. acute myeloid leukemia and non-Hodgkin’s lymphomas
C. acute lymphocytic leukemia and chronic lymphocytic leukemia
D. chronic myeloid leukemia and chronic lymphocytic leukemia
E. acute lymphocytic leukemia and chronic myeloid leukemia

A

E. acute lymphocytic leukemia and chronic myeloid leukemia

136
Q

What clinical features of the disease can be seen in a patient with newly diagnosed acute leukemia?
A. subcutaneous and mucosal bleeding (purpura)
B. dyspnoea due to pneumonia and / or septic condition
C. gingival hypertrophy
D. clinical picture of cerebral hemorrhage
E. rapidly progressing body failure (weight loss, fatigue…)

A

A, B, C, D, E

137
Q

The diagnosis of disseminated intravascular coagulation syndrome in a patient with acute leukemia is confirmed by:
A. arterial blood gas analysis
B. blood count
C. hemostasis tests
D. basic biochemical investigations
E. Doppler examination of arteries and veins

A

C

138
Q

In which form of acute leukemia is there a high risk of threatening bleeding due to DIK (CID) syndrome with the breakdown of leukemia cells in the first treatment:
acute monoblastic leukemia
acute myelomonocytic leukemia
acute megakaryocytic leukemia
acute promyelocytic leukemia
acute erythroblastic leukemia

A

acute promyelocytic leukemia

139
Q

In the treatment of acute leukemias with transfusions of concentrated erythrocytes, treatment is performed in order to maintain the approximate value of hemoglobin greater than:
60 g / L
70 g / L
90 g / L
110 g / L
120 g / L

A

b. 70 g/L

With transfusions of concentrated erythrocytes,
hemoglobin is maintained above 70 g/l. This is the level where prolonged anemia can impair the functioning of key organ systems

140
Q

According to cellular immune markers (immunophenotype) on lymphoblastic cells of patients with acute lymphocytic leukemia we distinguish:
B ALL in T ALL
B ALL in M ​​ALL
M ALL in Ph ALL
B ALL in Ph ALL
Ph ALL in T ALL

A

B ALL in T ALL

141
Q

Clonal cytogenetic abnormalities in patients with acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) are characterized by: (3)
A. they are present in more than half of patients
B. they are present only exceptionally
C. have a major impact on the treatment and course of the disease
D. the most common abnormality is the t (9; 22) - Philadelphia chromosome
E. have a certain prognostic significance only in patients older than 65 years

A

A. they are present in more than half of patients
C. have a major impact on the treatment and course of the disease
D. the most common abnormality is the t (9; 22) - Philadelphia chromosome

142
Q

Lymphoblasts in patients with acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) outside the bone marrow most commonly form leukemic infiltrates in:
pancreas
heart muscle
orbits
central nervous system
kidneys

A

central nervous system

143
Q

Secondary acute leukemia is the result of all of the above except:
infections with certain RNA viruses (eg HTLV-1; human T-leukemia virus type 1)
prior treatment with alkylating cytostatics (eg cyclophosphamide, melphalan)
exposure to benzene and certain chemical compounds
irradiation with ionizing rays
exposure to heavy metals (eg lead, mercury)

A

exposure to heavy metals (eg lead, mercury)

144
Q

Hematopoietic stem cells for autologous or allogeneic hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (PKMC) can be obtained from: (combination)
cerebrospinal fluid
umbilical cord blood
peripheral blood
liver punctures
bone marrow

A

umbilical cord blood
peripheral blood
bone marrow

145
Q

Multipotent hematopoietic stem cells are characterized by a cellular immune marker (antigen) on their membrane:
CD 4
CD8
CD20
CD34
CD56

A

CD34

146
Q

In the case of allogeneic hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (PKMC), an appropriate hematopoietic stem cell (CMC) donor may: (3)
antigenically HLA fully compliant brother
antigenically otherwise HLA non-compliant brother, but with the same blood type
antigenically HLA fully compliant sister
antigenically otherwise HLA non-compliant nurse but with the same blood type
antigenically HLA compliant unrelated donor

A

antigenically HLA fully compliant brother
antigenically HLA fully compliant sister
antigenically HLA compliant unrelated donor

147
Q

If the patient has one sibling, it is likely that only this will be a suitable donor of hematopoietic stem cells:
20%
25%
30%
40%
50%

A

25%

148
Q

The graft response to tumor / leukemia (GVT / GVL) is characterized by:
induction chemotherapy
consolidation treatment with chemotherapy
immunosuppressive drugs used in hematology
allogeneic hematopoietic stem cell transplants
autologous hematopoietic stem cell transplants

A

allogeneic hematopoietic stem cell transplants

149
Q

The most common indications for treatment with allogeneic hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (allogeneic PKMC) are:
acute myeloid and acute lymphocytic leukemia
lymphoproliferative diseases
myeloproliferative diseases
myelodysplastic syndromes
autoimmune diseases

A

acute myeloid and acute lymphocytic leukemia

150
Q

The most common indications for treatment with autologous hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (autologous PKMC) are:
acute myeloid and acute lymphocytic leukemia
plasmacytoma
aplastic anemia
myelodysplastic syndromes
autoimmune diseases

A

plasmacytoma

151
Q

For the first 10-14 days after hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (PKMC), the most common infections in patients with severe bone marrow aplasia are:
A. viral infections
B. mycobacterial infections
C. fungal infections
D. parasitic infections (eg toxoplasmosis)
E. bacterial infections

A

E. bacterial infections

152
Q

The most common complications of treatment with allogeneic hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (allogeneic PKMC) include ALL BUT:

acute graft-versus-host disease (aGVHD)
chronic graft-versus-host disease (cGVHD)
venoocclusive liver disease
acute autoimmune thyroiditis
the occurrence of opportunistic infections

A

acute autoimmune thyroiditis

153
Q

The late consequences of hematopoietic stem cell transplantation include:

psychoorganic syndrome
infertility in men and women
occurrence of secondary cancers several years after PKMC
endocrine hypofunction
post-transplant kidney disease

A

infertility in men and women
occurrence of secondary cancers several years after PKMC
endocrine hypofunction (not described in Internal , but part of a combination)

154
Q

Chronic myeloid leukemia is:
rare disease
common disease
the etiology of the disease is known
they most commonly affect between 20 and 30 years of age
no chromosomal changes are found in it

A

rare disease

155
Q

Chronic myeloproliferative diseases include:
essential thrombocythemia
malignant lymphoma
acute myeloblastic leukemia
diffuse plasma cell
amyloidosis

A

essential thrombocythemia

156
Q

Chronic myeloid leukemia is characterized by: (1+)
A. that the disease is acquired
B. presence of Philadelphia chromosome
C. the disease progresses in three periods
D. osteolytic lesions in the skull are observed
E. the number of leukocytes at the detection of the disease is reduced

A

A. that the disease is acquired
B. presence of Philadelphia chromosome (t (9; 22) (q 34: q 11))
C. the disease progresses in three periods

157
Q

Which drug significantly improved the effectiveness of treatment of chronic myeloid leukemia?
cytosinarabinoside
cyclophosphamide
imatinib mesylate
hydroxyurea
chlorambucil

A

imatinib mesylate

158
Q

The real polycythemia is: (3)
chronic myeloproliferative disease
it is most common between the ages of 40 and 60
patients complain of headache, dizziness, tinnitus
the spleen is never enlarged
the hematocrit value is within normal limits

A

chronic myeloproliferative disease
it is most common between the ages of 40 and 60
patients complain of headache, dizziness, tinnitus

159
Q

Itching of the skin after bathing occurs in true polycythemia due to:
increased secretion of histamine from blood basophils
enlarged spleen
increased hematocrit
increased platelet count
frequent venipunctures

A

increased secretion of histamine from blood basophils

160
Q

In true polycythemia, the concentration of serum erythropoietin is:
normal
increased
reduced
we do not specify it
sometimes increased, sometimes decreased

A

reduced

161
Q

Chronic idiopathic myelofibrosis is:(3)
A. clonal myeloproliferative disease
B. it is very rarely diagnosed with anemia
C. often the first sign is an enlarged spleen
D. the platelet count is always increased
E. it is characterized by the growth of connective tissue and the formation of new bone tissue in the bone marrow

A

A, C, E

162
Q

Chronic idiopathic myelofibrosis is considered to be:
A. we always start treating it immediately with cytostatics
B. we decide on an allogeneic hematopoietic stem cell transplant as soon as possible
C. patients often need erythrocyte transfusions
D. the drug of choice is imatinib mesylate
E. there are many atypical lymphocytes in the blood picture upon detection

A

C

163
Q

Essential thrombocythemia is characterized by: (3)
A. is a clonal myeloproliferative disease
B. is caused by radiation with ionizing rays
C. it is characterized by the proliferation of megakaryocytes in the bone marrow
D. bleeding is due to impaired platelet function
E. is a curable disease

A

A. is a clonal myeloproliferative disease
C. it is characterized by the proliferation of megakaryocytes in the bone marrow
D. bleeding is due to impaired platelet function

164
Q

In essential thrombocythemia is:
A. platelet function is normal
B. platelet count is usually above 600 G / L
C. the Philadelphia chromosome is present in the bone marrow
D. the spleen is greatly enlarged
E. anemia is always present

A

B. platelet count is usually above 600 G / L (Int. p. 1318:> 400 x10 9 / l or more , usually between 1000 and 2000 )

165
Q

Idiopathic hypereosinophilic syndrome is characterized by: (combination)
A. more than 1.5 x 10 9 / L peripheral blood eosinophils
B. Philadelphia chromosome present in bone marrow
C. is a clonal myeloproliferative disease
D. the disease affects the heart, lungs, central nervous system, skin, gastrointestinal tract
E. the spleen is never enlarged

A

A. more than 1.5 x 10 9 / L peripheral blood eosinophils
C. is a clonal myeloproliferative disease
D. the disease affects the heart, lungs, central nervous system, skin, gastrointestinal tract

166
Q

Chronic myelomonocytic leukemia is today classified as:
myelodysplastic syndromes
myeloproliferative syndromes
myelodysplastic - myeloproliferative syndromes
lymphoproliferative diseases
malignant lymphoma

A

myelodysplastic - myeloproliferative syndromes

167
Q

Chronic myelomonocytic leukemia includes:
is a disease of the elderly
there are more than 1 x 10 9 / L monocytes in the blood picture
acute leukemia always develops later
in the clinical picture, the spleen and liver are enlarged
the Philadelphia chromosome is always present in the bone marrow

A

is a disease of the elderly
there are more than 1 x 10 9 / L monocytes in the blood picture
in the clinical picture, the spleen and liver are enlarged

168
Q

The 40-year-old patient felt tightness under the left costal arch for a month. He visited a doctor who found a high white blood cell count and referred him to a hematology clinic. On examination, we felt an enlarged spleen 12 cm below the left costal arch, and the liver 3 cm below the right costal arch. Laboratory tests: leukocytes 353 x 10 9 / L, Hb 117 g / L, platelets 360 x 10 9 / L. The differential blood count was dominated by neutrophils at different stages of maturation, the most numerous being segmented neutrophils and myelocytes. Uric acid values ​​and LDH activity were increased. The karyotype of the bone marrow, there is an a Philadelphia chromosome (t (9; 22))
Which of the following diagnoses would be more correct?
A. acute myeloblastic leukemia
B. chronic myeloid leukemia
C. essential thrombocythemia
D. chronic myelomonocytic leukemia
E. chronic lymphocytic leukemia

A

B. chronic myeloid leukemia

169
Q

Primary hemostasis is:
A. the process of platelet clot formation at the site of vascular wall injury
B. the process of fibrin formation in the clot
C. activity of coagulation inhibitors
D. activity of the fibrinolytic system
E. bleeding at the site of vascular wall injury

A

A. the process of platelet clot formation at the site of vascular wall injury

170
Q

The hemostasis system under normal conditions allows for effective cessation of bleeding. Choose the main factors: (1+)
A. platelets and vascular wall
B. leukocytes
C. coagulation and fibrinolytic proteins
D. coagulation and fibrinolysis inhibitors
E. endothelial cells

A

A. platelets and vascular wall
C. coagulation and fibrinolytic proteins
D. coagulation and fibrinolysis inhibitors

171
Q

The size of the hemostatic clot determines:
A. platelet activity and coagulation,
B. platelet activity, coagulation, fibrinolysis,
C. coagulation activity,
D. fibrinolysis activity
E. vascular wall activity

A

B. platelet activity, coagulation, fibrinolysis,

172
Q

Platelets participate in the process of primary hemostasis with three events:
A. adhesion or adhesion to subedothelial tissues
B. platelet aggregation or adhesion
C. secretion or excretion from granules
D. dissolving the clot
E. inhibition or inhibition of coagulation

A

A. adhesion or adhesion to subedothelial tissues
B. platelet aggregation or adhesion
C. secretion or excretion from granules

173
Q

Platelet aggregation is the connection of two adjacent platelet receptors. What is a binding molecule?
A. Von Willebrand factor
B. fibrinogen
C. ADP and serotonin
D. Protein C
E. coagulation factors

A

B. fibrinogen

174
Q

Determine the properties of endothelial cells: (combination)
A. have anticoagulant properties,
B. they are completely inert and are the boundary between blood and tissue,
C. have procoagulant properties,
D. have fibrinolytic properties

A

A. have anticoagulant properties,
C. have procoagulant properties,
D. have fibrinolytic properties

175
Q

Coagulation proteins are formed: (1+)
A. in the liver,
B. in the kidneys,
C. in macrophages, megakaryocytes, platelets, endothelial cells
D. in the bone marrow

A

A. in the liver,
C. in macrophages, megakaryocytes, platelets, endothelial cells

176
Q

Which of the statements is correct?
A. Studies have shown that coagulation takes place in vitro by intrinsic and extrinsic pathways. In vivo, the course is different.
B. Studies have shown that coagulation takes place in vitro by intrinsic and extrinsic pathways. In vivo, the course is the same, but more complicated.
C. Studies have shown that coagulation takes place in vitro by intrinsic and extrinsic pathways. In vivo it takes place only in an intrinsic way.
D. Studies have shown that coagulation takes place in vitro by intrinsic and extrinsic pathways. In vivo, it takes place only by the extrinsic route.
E. Studies have shown that coagulation takes place in vitro by intrinsic and extrinsic pathways. In vivo, we don’t know how it goes.

A

B. Studies have shown that coagulation takes place in vitro by intrinsic and extrinsic pathways. In vivo, the course is the same, but more complicated.

177
Q

Petechiae are:
minor bleeding in the skin or mucous membranes
bleeding into the muscles
bleeding into the joints
bleeding into body cavities
bleeding in haemophilia

A

minor bleeding in the skin or mucous membranes

178
Q

Spontaneous bleeding into the joints is found almost exclusively in:
leukemia
hemophilia
thrombocytopenia
prostate cancer
plasmacytoma

A

hemophilia

179
Q

Bleeding that occurs for the first time in an adult is mostly:
congenital
obtained
abundant
occult
irrelevant

A

obtained

180
Q

A 20-year-old girl developed venous thrombosis in the second half of her pregnancy. What could be the cause?
A. hereditary deficiency of coagulation inhibitors
B. pregnancy
C. a combination of hereditary deficiency of coagulation inhibitors and pregnancy
D. hemophilia
E. multiple pregnant

A

A. hereditary deficiency of coagulation inhibitors
B. pregnancy
C. a combination of hereditary deficiency of coagulation inhibitors and pregnancy
SE SOLO 1 C

181
Q

Choose the correct statement!
A. The pathogenesis of bleeding can only be determined through laboratory tests.
B. The pathogenesis of bleeding is determined through a clinical examination.
C. Diagnosis of bleeding includes history, clinical examination, and laboratory.
D. Laboratory tests are only important to determine the cause of the bleeding .
E. History is the only criterion for determining the cause of bleeding .

A

C. Diagnosis of bleeding includes history, clinical examination, and laboratory.

182
Q

Choose the correct statement! The INR is used to assess the disorder:
extrinsic coagulation
intrinsic coagulation
fibrinolysis
platelet function
vascular walls

A

extrinsic coagulation

183
Q

Tests to assess primary hemostasis are: (3)
determination of platelet count
Prothrombin time
closing time
Partial thromboplastin time
aggregometry

A

determination of platelet count
closing time
aggregometry

184
Q

Closing time is:
A. Screening test to assess platelet function
B. Allows you to estimate the platelet count
C. In vivo examination to assess vascular wall function
D. Test to assess the activity of the intrinsic coagulation system
E. Test to assess the activity of the extrinsic coagulation system

A

A. Screening test to assess platelet function

185
Q

We use aggregometry to estimate:
A. platelet count
B. hemoglobin concentration in the blood
C. platelet function “in vitro”
D. phagocytic capacity of leukocytes
E. spleen function

A

C. platelet function “in vitro”

186
Q

We speak of thrombocytopenia when the platelet count is:
increased
reduced
normal
at a platelet count below 300 x 10 9 / L
at a platelet count above 300 x 10 9 / L

A

reduced (<140 × 10 ^ 9 / l)

187
Q

Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura is a disease:
children
adults
children and adults
men
women

A

children and adults

188
Q

Acute idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura is primarily a disease:
children
adults
children and adults
men
women

A

children

189
Q

Chronic idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura is primarily a disease:
children
adults, more often women
adults, more often men
children and adults
men

A

adults, more often women

190
Q

Can life-threatening bleeding occur in patients with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura?
no
yes, at less than 1%
yes, at 10%
yes, at 20%
yes, at 30%

A

yes, at less than 1%

191
Q

Thrombocytopenia may be due to: (combination)
A. stem cell defects in the bone marrow (eta n ol)
B. bone marrow infiltration with leukemia, lymphoma
C. idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
D. hemolytic anemia
E. hemophilia

A

A. stem cell defects in the bone marrow (eta n ol)
B. bone marrow infiltration with leukemia, lymphoma
C. idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

192
Q

What bleeding is characteristic of thrombocytopenia? (combination)
Petechiae in the skin and mucous membranes
Deep subcutaneous hematomas
Purpura in the skin and mucous membranes
Ecchymosis in the skin and mucous membranes
Bleeding into the joints

A

Petechiae in the skin and mucous membranes
Purpura in the skin and mucous membranes
Ecchymosis in the skin and mucous membranes

193
Q

Treatment of patients with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura is indicated by platelet count: (3)
A. under 100 x 10 9 / L
B. under 30 x 10 9 / L
C. below 50 x 10 9 / L if bleeding is present
D. below 50 x 10 9 / L and if risk factors for bleeding such as arterial hypertension, ulcer disease are present
E. only below 10 x 10 9 / L

A

B. under 30 x 10 9 / L
C. below 50 x 10 9 / L if bleeding is present
D. below 50 x 10 9 / L and if risk factors for bleeding such as arterial hypertension, ulcer disease are present

194
Q

Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) occurs: (1+)
A. more often after treatment with standard heparin
B. more often after treatment with low molecular weight heparin
C. between 5 and 14 days after starting heparin treatment
D. in 50% of patients treated with heparin

A

A. more often after treatment with standard heparin
C. between 5 and 14 days after starting heparin treatment

195
Q

With what changes in the blood picture should we consider the possibility of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura?
A. leukopenia and anemia
B. leukopenia and thrombocytopenia
C. microangiopathic hemolytic anemia and thrombocytopenia
D. microcytic anemia
E. thrombocytopenia

A

C. microangiopathic hemolytic anemia and thrombocytopenia (smear schizocytes)

196
Q

The correct statements are: (1+)
A. in the mild form of hemophilia, there is no increased incidence of bleeding after injury and surgery
B. in mild hemophilia, spontaneous bleeding is rare
C. in moderate hemophilia, spontaneous bleeding is absent
D. in moderate hemophilia, spontaneous bleeding is uncommon

A

B. in mild hemophilia, spontaneous bleeding is rare
D. in moderate hemophilia, spontaneous bleeding is uncommon

197
Q

A patient with known haemophilia A seeks help for knee pain. There are no external signs of bleeding on examination. How do we act?
A. observed until signs of bleeding and then treated by replacement of the missing coagulation factor,
B. we immediately replace the missing coagulation factor, then decide on other procedures
C. first we paint the knee, then we perform the other measures
D. do along the knees, then other measures
E. we give an analgesic and send the patient home

A

B. we immediately replace the missing coagulation factor, then decide on other procedures

198
Q

It is a bleeding in the knee in hemophilia B after cycling. Treatment includes: (combination)
A. stopping bleeding
B. rest and cold not lining
C. physiotherapy after remediation of bleeding
D. nonsteroidal antirheumatic drugs and a spirin due to knee pain
E. prohibition of every sport activity

A

a. stop bleeding,
b. dormancy and cold packs,
c. physiotherapy after bleeding repair,

199
Q

Antibodies to coagulation factor VIII are produced:
a. in haemophilia A after treatment
b. in the elderly, but rarely
c. in venous thrombosis
d. in haemophilia B
e. In von Willebrand disease

A

a. in haemophilia A after treatment
e. In von Willebrand disease (type III)

200
Q

The 20-year-old patient has frequent nosebleeds and menorrhagia, otherwise healthy. Choose one of the options!
A. suspected haemophilia, or a carrier of haemophilia,
B. suspected of von Willebrand’s disease,
C. bleeding is insignificant and accidental
D. suspected of acquired haemophilia
E. suspected immune thrombocytopenia

A

B. suspected of von Willebrand’s disease,

201
Q

Choose the correct statements:
A. type 1 von Willebrand disease is the most common. Bleeding is usually not severe
B. Type 2 von Willebrand’s disease is as common as type 1, bleeding is rare
C. Type 3 von Willebrand’s disease is very rare, bleeding is as severe and severe as in haemophilia

A

A. type 1 von Willebrand disease is the most common. Bleeding is usually not severe
C. Type 3 von Willebrand’s disease is very rare, bleeding is as severe and severe as in haemophilia

202
Q

In von Willebrand’s disease, bleeding occurs due to:
A. reduced von Willebrand factor (VWF) concentrations
B.from the modified VWF building
C. decreased F VIII activity (too little vWf to bind and protect against blood proteolysis)

A

A. reduced von Willebrand factor (VWF) concentrations
B.from the modified VWF building
C. decreased F VIII activity (too little vWf to bind and protect against blood proteolysis)

203
Q

Acquired deficiency of coagulation factors II, VII, X can be in: (1+)
liver disease
in vitamin K deficiency
in vitamin C deficiency
treatment or coumarin poisoning
chronic inflammation (eg rheumatoid arthritis)

A

liver disease
in vitamin K deficiency
treatment or coumarin poisoning

204
Q

Disseminated intravascular coagulation occurs as a complication in many diseases. It is characterized by the occurrence of all of the above EXCEPT:
thrombosis
bleeding
thrombocytopenia
organ and tissue ischemia
normal D-dimer value

A

normal D-dimer value

205
Q

Disseminated intravascular coagulation is an expected complication in all of the following EXCEPT:
sepsis
severe injuries and operations
malignant tumors
burns
treatment with unfractionated heparin

A

treatment with unfractionated heparin

206
Q

Disseminated intravascular coagulation is characterized by laboratory changes: (1+)
thrombocytopenia
coagulation disorders
activated fibrinolysis
INR more than 5

A

thrombocytopenia
coagulation disorders
activated fibrinolysis

207
Q

In a previously healthy man, prolonged bleeding occurs after major prostate surgery. Which of the options is most likely?
hemophilia B
hemophilia A
von Willebrand disease
local hyperfibrinolysis
thrombocytopenia

A

local hyperfibrinolysis

208
Q

Choose the correct statements! (3)
antithrombin (AT) is a key inhibitor of coagulation.
AT is a key inhibitor of fibrinolysis.
AT deficiency is associated with thrombosis.
AT deficiency is hereditary or acquired.

A

antithrombin (AT) is a key inhibitor of coagulation.
AT deficiency is associated with thrombosis.
AT deficiency is hereditary or acquired.

209
Q

Arrange the treatment elements of disseminated intravascular coagulation in order of importance!
a. heparin
b. trasfusion platelets and plasma
c. treatment of the underlying disease

The correct order of answers is: a, b, c
The correct order of answers is: b, c, a
The correct order of answers is: c, b, a
The correct order of answers is: a, c, b
The correct order of answers is: b, a, c

A

The correct order of answers is: c, b, a

210
Q

An 18-year-old boy visited a doctor for bleeding from both nostrils and tiny spotted bleeding in the skin of the shin, abdomen and in the oral mucosa. He had a bit of a cold for the last three days and did not intend to have a fever. The water did not burn him, he did not notice diarrhea, the stool was of a normal color. His throat didn’t hurt, he had no trouble swallowing. He has not been receiving any medication recently.
Clinical status was within normal limits except for tiny petechiae and purpura in the skin of the tibia, abdomen, and oral mucosa. He had an anterior nasal tamponade in both nostrils, which was done in a personal physician’s office.
Laboratory tests : in the blood picture are L 6.4 x 10 9 / L, Hb 145 g / L, MCV 85 fl, and no. platelets Tr 4 x 10 9 / L. All biochemical investigations were within normal limits. Inflammatory parameters were not increased. Which of the following diagnoses would be the most correct as a working diagnosis?
A. acute idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
B. chronic idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
C. thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
D. heparin-induced thrombocytopenia
E. disseminated intravascular coagulation

A

A. acute idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

211
Q

The 20-year-old girl was brought to the internal medicine emergency by her parents due to the growing confusion and drowsiness that had occurred in the last 2-3 days. At home, she also mentioned headaches, slightly worse eyesight and paretic changes in the fingers of her left hand, which disappeared within a few hours and then appeared in the fingers of her right hand. In addition, small hemorrhages were observed in the skin of the tibia. She was healthy before that.
In clinical status, it was occasionally disoriented, otherwise eupnoic, febrile up to 37.5 ° C. Heart and lung status within normal limits. The abdomen is soft, without enlarged organs, in the skin of the shin a few tiny petechiae.
Laboratory, microbiological tests: leukocytes L 5.6 x 10 9 / L, hemoglobin Hb concentration 85 g / L, MCV 90 fL, platelet number Tr 15 x 10 9 / L, no. reticulocytes 150 x 10 9 / L, in DKS the presence of numerous fragmented erythrocytes (schizocytes) . Coombs tests negative. LDH activity was increased, urea and creatinine were within normal limits, as were hemostasis tests. Microbiological tests remained negative. Which of the following diagnoses would be the most correct as a working diagnosis?
A. chronic idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
B. thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
C. heparin-induced thrombocytopenia
D. disseminated intravascular coagulation

A

B. thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura

212
Q

What applies to hemophilia C ?: (3)
it is a lack of blood clotting factor XII
it is a lack of blood clotting factor XI
in hemostasis tests, prolonged PD is prolonged
in hemostasis tests, aPTT is prolonged
bleeding is generally not as extensive as in haemophilia A and B.

A

it is a lack of blood clotting factor XI
in hemostasis tests, aPTT is prolonged
bleeding is generally not as extensive as in haemophilia A and B.

213
Q

The 75-year-old gentleman visited a doctor due to a gradual decline in strength over the past six months, poor appetite and weight loss. On clinical examination, he had pale yellow skin, and a spindle-shaped systolic murmur was heard at the base of the heart. There were no other abnormalities. About d take him the blood for testing. Examination results showed pancytopenia (Hb 54 g / L, PVE (MCV) 132 fL, reticulocytes 14x109 / L, leukocytes 2.4x109 / L, neutrophils 1.4x109 / L, platelets 82x109 / L). Thus, the blood count was accompanied by greatly increased lactate dehydrogenase activity and a slightly increased bilirubin concentration (LDH 62.8 ukat / L, total bilirubin 22 umol / L, conjugated 7 umol / L). Which of the following diagnoses would be most likely?
A. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
B. Megaloblastic anemia due to B12 deficiency in atrophic gastritis
C. Aplastic anemia
D. Refractory anemia (MDS)
E. Hypersplenism in alcoholic liver cirrhosis

A

B. Megaloblastic anemia due to B12 deficiency in atrophic gastritis

214
Q

Myeloproliferative diseases include: (1+)
true polycythemia
idiopathic myelofibrosis
chronic myeloid leukemia
myelodysplastic syndrome
essential thrombocythemia

A

true polycythemia
idiopathic myelofibrosis
chronic myeloid leukemia
essential thrombocythemia

215
Q

Lymphoproliferative diseases include: (1+)
mantle cell lymphoma
monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance
Gaucher disease
large B cell lymphoma
chronic lymphocytic leukemia

A

mantle cell lymphoma
monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance
large B cell lymphoma
chronic lymphocytic leukemia

216
Q

Pale skin is always the result of anemia:
hold
not true

A

not true

217
Q

Ledinal anemia:
A. can be treated with erythropoietin immediately ( when all Hb F as less W and 110 g / l)
B. it is treated with iron replacement ( also together with EPO to achieve the target serum ferritin concentration> 100qg / l)
C. anemia and osteodystrophy significantly affect morbidity (in principle logically correct, but not directly in the Internal)

A

TUTTE

218
Q

Connect the concepts to get the disease + the appearance of bleeding + the site of bleeding!
A. hemophilia
B. Von Willebrand’s disease
C. thrombocytopenia
D. petechiae
E. muscles, joints

F. hematoma
G. bleeding
H. mucous membranes
I. skin, mucous membranes
Answer:
a + e + i / b + f + g / c + d + x (h)
a + f + i / b + e + x / c + e + g
a + d + i / b + d + g / c + d + i
a + e + x / b + f + i / c + f + g
a + d + i / b + e + g / c + d + i

A

a + e + i / b + f + g / c + d + x

219
Q

Chloroma (granulocytic sarcoma) is:
a. mixed acute myeloid leukaemia and acute lymphocytic leukaemia
b. solid leukaemic tumour outside the bone marrow
c. amyloid accumulation in leukaemic cells
d. leukaemic infiltrate in the gonads (testes or ovary)
e. leukaemic infiltrate in long bones of the skeleton

A

b. solid leukaemic tumour outside the bone marrow

220
Q

Myeloproliferative disorders include:
a. real polycythemia
b. idiopathic myelofibrosis
c. chronic myeloid leukaemia
d. myelodysplastic syndrome
e. essential thrombocythaemia

A

a. real polycythemia
b. idiopathic myelofibrosis
c. chronic myeloid leukaemia
e. essential thrombocythaemia

221
Q

It is a real polycythemia:
a. chronic myeloproliferative disease
b. most common between the ages of 40 and 60
c. patients complain of headaches, dizziness, tinnitus
d. the spleen is never enlarged
e. the haematocrit value is within normal limits

A

a. chronic myeloproliferative disease
b. most common between the ages of 40 and 60
c. patients complain of headaches, dizziness, tinnitus

222
Q

Hemophilia C
a. It is a deficiency of blood clotting factor XII
b. It is a deficiency of blood clotting factor XI
c. In haemostasis tests, the PD is prolonged
d. in haemostasis tests, aPTC is prolonged
e. Bleeding is usually not as extensive as in haemophilia A and B

A

b. It is a deficiency of blood clotting factor XI
d. in haemostasis tests, aPTC is prolonged
e. Bleeding is usually not as extensive as in haemophilia A and B

223
Q

What can cause erythrocytosis?
a. extreme obesity
b. liver disease

A

a. extreme obesity

224
Q

In an adult, all blood cells are formed in the blood marrow from a single germ cell.
Platelets also have antigens A, B and 0 on their surface.
a. both statements are correct
b. the first statement is correct, the second statement is incorrect,
c. the first statement is incorrect, the second statement is correct
d. both are incorrect

A

a. both statements are correct

225
Q

What is NOT prevented by irradiating platelets before transfusion?
a. bacterial infections
b. viral infections
c. allergic reactions
d. graft-versus-host reactions

A

c. allergic reactions

226
Q

After a transfusion, blood has a limited shelf life. This requires planning donations
throughout the year.
a. the first statement is correct, the second statement is incorrect
b. first statement false, second correct
c. both statements are correct
d. both are incorrect

A

c. both statements are correct

227
Q

What blood can we give to a patient we don’t know who needs an emergency
transfusion?
a. full blood
b. erythrocyte
c. blood group 0
d. AB blood group
e. Rh -
f. Rh+
g.
h. kell -
i. kell +
j. Rh is not important

A

b. erythrocyte
c. blood group 0
j. Rh is not important

228
Q

Essential thrombocytosis: (Int. P. 1318 )
a. greatly enlarged spleen ( usually
less than 5 cm below the costal arch)
b. always accompanied by
anemia ( when anemia is present, it is
normochromic and normocytic)
c. It is detected due to arterial and venous thrombosis,
bleeding and thrombosis are also common, and there are
more than 400 platelets .

A

c. It is detected due to arterial and venous thrombosis,
bleeding and thrombosis are also common, and there are
more than 400 platelets .

EMATOLOGIA (4 decks)

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