Domande Nicole

Question 1

Which statements are correct for lymphomas?
A. They are more common than acute leukaemias
B. Stage is determined by
C. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphomas are more common than Hodgkin’s lymphomas
D. At diagnosis, some patients do not need treatment
- The correct answers are: A, B, D
- The correct answers are: A, C, D
- The correct answers are: A, B, C, D
- The correct answers are: B, C, D

Answer 1

The correct answers are: A, C, D

Question 2

A significantly enlarged spleen (15 cm below the rib arch) is characteristic of:
- Myelodysplastic syndrome
- Acute leukaemia
- Primary myelofibrosis
- Liver cirrhosis with hypersplenism

Answer 2

• Primary myelofibrosis

Question 3

Which statement applies to disseminated plasmacytoma:
- It is associated with a risk of hyperviscosity syndrome
- Causes hypocalcaemia
- Splenectomy is often indicated
- Serum albumin is increased

Answer 3

.

Question 4

Which statement applies to disseminated plasmacytoma:
- It is associated with a risk of hyperviscosity syndrome
- Causes hypocalcaemia
- Splenectomy is often indicated
- Serum albumin is increased

Answer 4

• It is associated with a risk of hyperviscosity syndrome

Question 5

. The following statements apply to non-Hodgkin lymphomas:
A. An enlarged spleen is associated with a poor prognosis
B. Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) may be increased
C. Fluorescent in situ hybridisation (FISH) may show chromosomal rearrangements
D. Bone marrow involvement represents stage 4 disease
- The correct answers are: A, C, D
- The correct answers are: A, C, D
- The correct answers are: A, B, C, D
- The correct answers are: B, C, D

Answer 5

• The correct answers are: B, C, D

Question 6

Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia is characterised by:
- None of the following
- It has a rapid course and leads to death within 5 years of diagnosis
- Rarely infiltrates the bone marrow
- Causes painful enlargement of lymph nodes
- Usually arises from T lymphocyte precursors

Answer 6

• None of the following

Question 7

The most common molecular genetic abnormality in true polycythemia is
- Mutation in the MPL gene
- KIT D816V mutation
- JAK2 V617F mutation
- Mutation in the CALR gene
- BRAF V600E mutation
- MYD88 L265P mutation

Answer 7

• JAK2 V617F mutation

Question 8

The choice of treatment for chronic lymphocytic leukaemia is influenced by
- the immunophenotype of the cells
- the number of lymphocytes
- IgHV mutation status
- the presence of B symptoms

Answer 8

• IgHV mutation status

Question 9

Common B symptoms in Hodgkin’s disease include:
- Fever
- Bleeding
- Bone pain
- Headache

Answer 9

• Fever

Question 10

In febrile neutropenia after chemotherapy treatment:
- Administration of G-CSF (filgrastim) increases platelet count.
- Penicillin V is an appropriate broad-spectrum antibiotic
- It is important to wait for the results of microbiological tests before starting an antibiotic
- The blood count will improve on its own within three days after completion of chemotherapy
- None of the answers is correct

Answer 10

• None of the answers is correct

Question 11

. Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia grade A without symptoms
- Start treatment in younger patients
- treat at a leucocyte count above 100 x 109/L
- treat only with anti-CD20 antibodies
- no treatment

Answer 11

• no treatment

Question 12

. In the diagnostic process of patients with lymphoma: SEGNATA DIVERSA
A. CT scan may show enlarged lymph nodes in the abdomen
B. Cytological aspiration is as sensitive as histological bone marrow biopsy
C. Ultrasound may show an enlarged spleen
D. Positron emission positron emission tomography (PET-CT) can help us follow treatment
- The correct answers are: B, C, D
- The correct answers are: A, C, D
- The correct answers are: A, B, C, D
- The correct answers are: A, B, C

Answer 12

• The correct answers are: A, C, D

Question 13

. Primary immune thrombocytopenia is considered to be:
A. a congenital autoimmune disease
B. occurs most frequently in pregnancy
C. it is characterised by bleeding into the skin and mucous membranes
D. glucocorticoids are the first choice of treatment
E. it is caused by increased platelet breakdown and insufficient platelet production
The correct answers are: all of the following
The correct answers are: C, D, E
Correct answers are: D, E
Correct answers are: B, C, E
Correct answers are: A, C, D, E

Answer 13

The correct answers are: C, D, E

Question 14

. Screening tests for haemostasis include
a.Platelet count
b. determination of antithrombin activity
c. activated partial thromboplastin time
d. aggregometry
e. determination of fibrinogen concentration
- The correct answers are: A,C,E
- The correct answers are: A,B,D
- The correct answers are: A,B,C
- The correct answers are: C,D,E
- The correct answers are: B,C,D

Answer 14

• The correct answers are: A,C,E

Question 15

. Laboratory signs of haemolysis are:
A. Reduced serum haptoglobin concentration
B.Increased serum haptoglobin concentration
C.Increased unconjugated bilirubin concentration
D.Increased conjugated bilirubin concentration
E.Reticulocytosis
- Correct answer: BCD
- Correct answer: ADE
- Correct answer: ACE
- Correct Answer: ABC
- Correct Answer: CDE

Answer 15

• Correct answer: ACE

Question 16

. A 74-year-old patient with chronic lymphocytic leukaemia grade A seeks help for new-onset obtundation
and jaundice. The following abnormalities are seen in the results: haemoglobin 60 g/L, reticulocyte count
258 x 109/L, leucocyte count 58.8 x 109/L, lymphocyte count 55.3 x 109/L, total bilirubin 100 umol/L (ref. <
17 umol/L) and LDH 10 ukat/L (ref. < 4.12 ukat/L). Think of:
- Progression of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia to stage C
- Gastrointestinal bleeding
- Vitamin B12 deficiency
- Iron deficiency
- Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia

Answer 16

• Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia