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Drug MoA Flashcards

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1
Q

What does heparin combine with to inactivate thrombin?

A

Antithrombin III (ATIII)

Heparin rapidly inactivates thrombin through this combination.

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2
Q

What is the mechanism of action of warfarin?

A

Inhibits VKOR c1, keeping Vitamin K oxidized

This prevents carboxylation of coagulation factors, keeping them inactive.

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3
Q

What is the primary action of hydralazine?

A

Vasodilation via NO and cGMP production

It acts directly on smooth muscle as an anti-hypertensive.

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4
Q

What type of drug is primidone?

A

Anticonvulsant, barbiturate

Used to control seizures.

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5
Q

What is the action of carprofen?

A

Inhibits COX 1 and COX 2

It is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID).

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6
Q

What do beta-lactam antibiotics inhibit?

A

Formation of peptidoglycan cross-linkage in cell wall

The beta-lactam ring binds to enzyme DD-transpeptidase.

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7
Q

What is the mechanism of action of sulfonamides?

A

Inhibit folic acid synthesis

They do this via competitive inhibition of enzyme dihydropteroate synthetase.

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8
Q

What do tetracyclines inhibit?

A

30S ribosomal subunit

This inhibits protein synthesis.

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9
Q

What type of antibiotic is polymyxin-B?

A

Gram-negative antibiotic

It disrupts the outer cell membrane.

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10
Q

How does chloramphenicol work?

A

Binds to the 50S ribosomal subunit

This inhibits protein synthesis.

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11
Q

What is the mechanism of action for aminoglycoside antibiotics?

A

Bind to 30S ribosomal subunit

They inhibit protein synthesis and can cause damage in tubular epithelium.

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12
Q

What does griseofulvin target?

A

Dermatophytes

It binds to tubulin and inhibits mitosis.

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13
Q

What is the effect of clopidogrel on platelets?

A

Irreversible inactivation of P2Y12 ADP receptor

This blocks platelet aggregation.

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14
Q

How does cyclosporine affect T cell function?

A

Binds calcineurin, decreasing IL-2 production

This leads to decreased T cell activation.

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15
Q

What does azathioprine inhibit?

A

Purine synthesis

It decreases T and B cell replication.

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16
Q

What is the action of mycophenolate?

A

Inhibits purine synthesis via irreversible binding to IMPDH

This specifically targets T and B cells.

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17
Q

What does leflunomide inhibit?

A

Ribosomal enzyme for pyrimidine synthesis

This is necessary for DNA and RNA synthesis.

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18
Q

What do beta-adrenergic blockers inhibit?

A

B1/B2 receptors

This results in decreased chronotropy, dromotropy, inotropy, and lusitropy.

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19
Q

How is sotalol primarily eliminated?

A

Renal

Sotalol is a potassium channel and beta-adrenergic blocker.

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20
Q

What type of drug is buprenorphine?

A

Partial mu agonist

Used for pain management.

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21
Q

What is the effect of theophylline?

A

Inhibits MC degranulation, promotes bronchial relaxation

It is a methylxanthine and a competitive antagonist of A1 adenosine receptors.

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22
Q

What is terbutaline used for?

A

Bronchodilator

It is a beta-2 adrenergic agonist.

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23
Q

What does diltiazem do?

A

Ca channel blocker

It slows conduction through the AV node.

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24
Q

What is the mechanism of action of amiodarone?

A

Blocks K, Na, and Ca channels plus mild beta blockade

It has properties of all four classes of anti-arrhythmic drugs.

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25
What condition can sildenafil treat?
Pulmonary arteriolar dilation ## Footnote It is a PDE5 inhibitor.
26
What type of drug is spironolactone?
Aldosterone receptor antagonist ## Footnote Its receptor is located in the cytosol.
27
What does hydrochlorothiazide inhibit?
Sodium/chloride cotransporter in the distal convoluted tubule ## Footnote It is a thiazide diuretic.
28
What is the mechanism of action of dobutamine?
Enhances contractility and heart rate ## Footnote It has strong B1 and weaker B2, a1 adrenergic effects.
29
What type of drug is milrinone?
PDE3 inhibitor ## Footnote It increases contractility.
30
What is the action of digitalis?
Positive inotrope via inhibition of Na-K-ATPase pump ## Footnote It raises intracellular Ca and strengthens contraction.
31
What is the mechanism of action of ondansetron?
Serotonin receptor antagonist ## Footnote Used to prevent nausea and vomiting.
32
What is the action of metoclopramide?
Dopamine receptor antagonist, serotonin agonist ## Footnote It increases gastric contraction and LES tone.
33
What do loop diuretics inhibit?
Na-2Cl-K cotransporter in thick ascending loop of Henle ## Footnote Examples include furosemide and bumetanide.
34
What is the effect of phenobarbital?
Stimulates GABA receptors ## Footnote Increases chloride influx, decreasing neuronal excitability.
35
What does potassium bromide do?
Competes with chloride transport ## Footnote This raises seizure threshold and limits spread of epileptic discharges.
36
What is the action of levetiracetam?
Affects neurotransmitter release by binding to SVA2 ## Footnote It prevents hypersynchronization of epileptiform burst-firing.
37
What do GPIIb/IIIa inhibitors target?
Cell surface receptor on platelets ## Footnote Examples include abciximab, eptifibatide, and tirofiban.
38
What is felbamate's action?
Positive modulator of GABAA receptors and NMDA receptor blocker ## Footnote It is used in seizure management.
39
What does zonisamide inhibit?
Sodium channels and reduces inward currents ## Footnote It stabilizes neuronal membranes and suppresses seizure activity.
40
What is the effect of 2-mercaptoproprionylglycine?
Reduces cystine to more soluble cysteine ## Footnote It has a high rate of adverse effects.
41
What do nonselective COX inhibitors include?
Aspirin and ibuprofen ## Footnote They inhibit cyclooxygenase enzymes.
42
What do COX-2 selective NSAIDs target?
COX-2 enzyme ## Footnote Examples include carprofen and meloxicam.
43
What is the action of methenamine?
Dissociates into formaldehyde and ammonia at acid pH ## Footnote It is used as an antibacterial agent.
44
What is the mechanism of action of febuxostat?
Xanthine oxidase inhibitor ## Footnote It is used to treat gout.
45
What does phenylpropanolamine do?
Alpha receptor agonist ## Footnote It produces contraction at the bladder neck.
46
What is the use of oxybutynin?
Antimuscarinic agent for detrusor instability ## Footnote It increases bladder capacity.
47
What is the effect of tamsulosin?
Uroselective alpha-1 antagonist ## Footnote It can help in conditions like BPH.
48
What does dantrolene do?
Inhibits calcium movement in striated muscle ## Footnote It is a direct muscle relaxant.
49
What is the action of neostigmine?
Anti-acetylcholinesterase ## Footnote It increases acetylcholine levels at synapses.
50
What is the effect of atropine?
Blocks action of acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors ## Footnote It is a parasympatholytic agent.
51
What does mesna do?
Binds acrolein in the bladder ## Footnote It decreases the risk of hemorrhagic cystitis.
52
What is the action of dexrazoxane?
Binds iron and reduces cardiotoxicity of doxorubicin ## Footnote It also reduces necrosis in dogs and cats.
53
What does imiquimod activate?
TLR7 and 8 receptors ## Footnote It has activity in certain skin cancers.
54
What is the function of the canine DNA-based vaccine Oncept?
Uses human tyrosinase 2 gene ## Footnote It is approved for stage I or II melanoma.
55
What do chemotherapy drugs affecting Tregs include?
Metronomic cyclophosphamide, Palladia, doxorubicin ## Footnote These can influence regulatory T cells.
56
What is masitinib?
Tyrosine kinase inhibitor ## Footnote It affects PDGF, KIT, and intracellular kinases.
57
What is the action of misoprostol?
Synthetic PGE analog ## Footnote It increases mucosal defense mechanisms.
58
What does acetaminophen do?
Inhibits COX and may interact with CNS systems ## Footnote It can be toxic due to cytochrome P450 metabolism.
59
What is the primary function of omal clodronate in canine sarcomas?
Depletes tumor-associated macrophages ## Footnote Can also be used in malignant histiocytosis.
60
Which chemotherapy drugs affect Tregs?
* Metronomic cyclophosphamide * Palladia * Doxorubicin
61
What is the legality status of Masitinib in the USA?
ILLEGAL
62
What type of inhibitor is Masitinib?
TK inhibitor
63
What does Misoprostol mimic?
Synthetic PGE analog
64
What is the mechanism of action of acetaminophen?
Inhibits COX and may interact with cannabinoid and serotonergic systems
65
How do anticoagulant rodenticides affect vitamin K1?
Inhibit recycling of vitamin K1 from VK1 epoxide reductase
66
What is the mechanism of action of Bromethalin?
Uncouples oxidative phosphorylation
67
What does zinc phosphide inhibit?
Cytochrome C oxidase
68
What type of damage does PAPP cause?
Oxidative damage to erythron leading to severe methemoglobinemia and hemolytic anemia
69
What role does Methylene blue play in treating methemoglobinemia?
Accelerates reduction of methemoglobin by NADPH-methemoglobin reductase
70
What is the role of ascorbic acid in methemoglobinemia?
Produces non-enzymatic reduction of methemoglobin
71
What compounds in Allium spp toxicosis cause oxidative damage to RBCs?
Disulfides and thiosulfates
72
What is Fomepizole used for?
Antidote to ethylene glycol poisoning
73
What is British Anti-Lewisite (BAL) used for?
Increase lead excretion in bile and urine
74
What is Succimer's relation to lead chelation?
Analog to BAL, leads to less renal and GI toxicity
75
What is the effect of acetazolamide?
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor; can reduce CSF production
76
What organism is ImmunoRegulin derived from?
Killed Propionibacterium
77
What is Staphylococcus phage lysate (SPL) used for?
Activates innate immunity to help clear chronic staphylococcal pyoderma
78
What is the primary function of cationic liposomes with Toll-like receptor ligands (CLDC)?
Activates innate immunity against chronic viral and fungal infections
79
What does Roferon-A do?
Activates innate and adaptive immunity for feline viral infections
80
What is the mechanism of action of Feline interferon omega?
Direct antiviral activity in feline viral infections
81
What type of drug is Imidocarb?
Urea derivative used to treat Babesia canis
82
How does Atovaquone affect parasitic metabolism?
Inhibits parasitic electron transport chain
83
What is the function of AZT (zidovudine)?
Thymidine analogue that inhibits FIV reverse transcriptase
84
What does Plerixafor promote?
Release of hematopoietic stem cells from bone marrow
85
What is the primary action of Fenoldopam?
D1 agonist that promotes natriuresis and diuresis
86
What effect do fluoroquinolones have on theophylline?
Increased serum theophylline concentrations
87
What is the mechanism of fluoroquinolones affecting theophylline?
Inhibition of theophylline clearance via CYP1A2
88
What is the effect of chloramphenicol on phenobarbital?
Prolonged elimination half-lives and prolonged sedation
89
What does propofol affect in dogs?
Prolonged elimination half-life and prolonged recovery
90
What drug interaction does ketoconazole have with cyclosporine?
Increased whole blood concentrations for a given dose
91
What does midazolam's prolonged elimination half-life indicate?
CYP3A12 inhibition
92
What is the effect of cimetidine on verapamil?
Decreased clearance of verapamil
93
What happens to theophylline when co-administered with certain drugs?
Trend toward prolonged elimination half-life
94
What is the effect of phenobarbital on digoxin?
Decreased digoxin elimination half-life acutely
95
What does propranolol's interaction with other drugs result in?
Decreased bioavailability and elimination half-life

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