Drugs Flashcards
(245 cards)
1
Q
A
2
Q
What is the drug name of the muscarinic receptor agonist with M3 selectivity?
A
Bethanechol
Used for stimulating detrusor muscle contraction, dysautonomia, and increasing GI motility.
3
Q
What are the indications for Bethanechol?
A
Stimulating detrusor muscle contraction, dysautonomia, increased GI motility, uterine contraction, equine ileus, horse esophagitis
Specifically indicated for muscle atony.
4
Q
What are the adverse effects associated with Bethanechol?
A
SLUDD signs
Includes salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation, and gastrointestinal distress.
5
Q
What is the route of administration for Neostigmine?
A
Oral tabs, Inj
Used as a reversal agent for competitive neuromuscular blockers.
6
Q
What are the indications for Neostigmine?
A
Reversal of neuromuscular blockers, rumen atony, increased GI motility, increased bladder emptying, treatment/diagnosis of Myasthenia Gravis
It is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor.
7
Q
What are the contraindications for Neostigmine?
A
Urethral/GI obstruction, pregnancy, other cholinesterase inhibitors
Can cause medium onset and duration effects.
8
Q
What is the drug name of the reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used for Myasthenia Gravis?
A
Pyridostigmine
It has a long-lasting effect and is an AChE antagonist.
9
Q
What are the adverse effects of Pyridostigmine?
A
SLUDD signs, dose-related cholinergic effects
Increases vagal tone.
10
Q
What is the primary indication for Edrophonium?
A
Tensilon test for Myasthenia Gravis, reversal of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers
It has a very fast onset and very short duration.
11
Q
What is the drug name of the anticholinergic used for treating bradycardia?
A
Atropine
Administered via injection, oral tab, or ophthalmic drops.
12
Q
What are the indications for Atropine?
A
Cardiac arrest, bradycardia, arrhythmias, AChEI toxicity, cholinergic crisis
Also used to decrease upper respiratory/GI secretions.
13
Q
What are the contraindications for Atropine?
A
Glaucoma, hypothermic bradycardia, GI disease, obstructive urinary tract disease, Myasthenia gravis
It can cross the blood-brain barrier.
14
Q
What is the mechanism of action of Glycopyrrolate?
A
Muscarinic competitive/reversible antagonist
Used to decrease upper respiratory/GI secretions.
15
Q
What are the indications for Oxybutynin?
A
GI/urinary antispasmodic, relax detrusor muscle, treatment for bradyarrhythmia
It is effective for hyperactive bladder.
16
Q
What is the drug name of the non-selective β agonist used for bronchodilation?
A
Isoproterenol
Administered via inhalation or parenteral route.
17
Q
What are the adverse effects of Isoproterenol?
A
Tachycardia, anxiety, tremors, arrhythmias
Limited use in veterinary medicine.
18
Q
What is the primary use of Dopamine in veterinary medicine?
A
Treatment of hypotension and inadequate vascular tone
It is the choice vasopressor post-arrest.
19
Q
What is the mechanism of action of Phenylephrine?
A
α1 agonist
Induces systemic vasoconstriction leading to reflex bradycardia.
20
Q
What are the contraindications for Phenylephrine?
A
Hypertension
Used for hemorrhage control and treatment of hypotension.
21
Q
What is the drug name of the selective β2 agonist commonly used as a bronchodilator?
A
Albuterol
Administered via inhalers.
22
Q
What are the indications for Carprofen?
A
Osteoarthritis
Administered orally or via injection.
23
Q
What are the adverse effects of NSAIDs like Carprofen?
A
Renal disease
Caution required due to potential side effects.
24
Q
What is the mechanism of action of Morphine?
A
Prototypical analgesic
Administered via IV, IM, or epidural.
25
What is the onset and duration of action for Fentanyl?
Rapid ~1 min, Short ~30 min
## Footnote
Administered via CRI, IV, IM, or transdermal patch.
26
What is the primary indication for Naloxone?
Reversal of opioid-induced adverse effects
## Footnote
Used in cases of overdose, toxicity, or severe respiratory depression.
27
What is Naloxone?
Competitive µ antagonist used for reversal of opioid-induced adverse effects and analgesic
## Footnote
Rapid onset (minutes), short duration (1-2 hours).
28
What are the indications for Naloxone?
Overdose, toxicity, severe opioid-induced respiratory depression, cardiac arrest, CPR
## Footnote
Used in emergency situations for opioid overdose.
29
What is Butorphanol?
Mixed κ agonist and µ antagonist (mild)
## Footnote
Routes of administration include IV, IM, SC, PO.
30
What is Tramadol?
Oral analgesic, weak opioid µ agonist, inhibits serotonin and norepinephrine
## Footnote
Risk of serotonin syndrome if used with SSRIs/MAOIs.
31
What is Hydrocodone?
Oral semisynthetic opioid, primarily used as an antitussive.
32
What is Acepromazine?
Phenothiazine derivative, D1/D2 receptor central competitive antagonist
## Footnote
Used as a sedative and neuroleptic.
33
What are the effects of Acepromazine?
Sedative, neuroleptic, antiemetic
## Footnote
Blocks D receptors in CNS and inhibits α2 receptors.
34
What is the onset and duration of Acepromazine?
Slow onset (15-60 min), long duration depending on route of administration.
35
What are the contraindications for Acepromazine?
Brachycephalic animals, MDR1 sensitive dogs, aggressive dogs, excited patients
## Footnote
Not approved for use in food animals.
36
What is Diazepam (Valium)?
Benzodiazepine derivative, GABA competitive agonist
## Footnote
Used as a neuroleptic, anxiolytic, and muscle relaxant.
37
What are the effects of Diazepam?
Sedation, behavioral modification, anticonvulsant
## Footnote
Caution: paradoxical excitation can occur.
38
What is Flumazenil?
GABA antagonist used for reversal of benzodiazepine receptor agonism.
39
What is Dexmedetomidine?
α2 agonist used as a sedative and analgesic
## Footnote
Administered IV, IM, or epidurally.
40
What are the effects of Dexmedetomidine?
Sedative, analgesic, ANS effects leading to vasoconstriction
## Footnote
Do not use with diabetic patients.
41
What is Atipamezole?
Specific competitive antagonist of Dexmedetomidine and Medetomidine
## Footnote
Used to reverse α2 agonist toxicity.
42
What is Ketamine?
Non-competitive NMDA receptor antagonist
## Footnote
Used to suppress central nociception sensitization.
43
What are the contraindications for Ketamine?
Renal problems in cats, patients with increased intracranial pressure, seizure disorders
## Footnote
Must intubate if using due to aspiration risk.
44
What is Thiopental?
Barbiturate used for anesthesia induction, potentiating GABA agonist
## Footnote
Causes dose-dependent CNS depression.
45
What is Propofol?
GABA agonist used as an induction agent
## Footnote
Rapid onset, short duration, must intubate.
46
What is Methocarbamol?
Centrally acting muscle relaxant
## Footnote
Used to reduce muscle spasm in acute inflammatory conditions.
47
What is the mechanism of action of Benzodiazepines?
GABA agonism leading to sedation, anxiolysis, and anticonvulsant effects.
48
What is Levothyroxine (T4)?
Hormone replacement therapy for hypothyroidism in dogs
## Footnote
Lifelong medication with regular T4 monitoring.
49
What is Methimazole?
Inhibits thyroid hormone synthesis
## Footnote
Used for hyperthyroidism in cats.
50
What is the use of Calcium Chloride?
Replacement for calcium deficit, used in acute hypocalcemia
## Footnote
Caution: caustic if given IM/SQ.
51
What is Dextrose 50% solution used for?
Treatment for hypoglycemic crisis
## Footnote
Must be diluted for IV administration.
52
What is Glucagon?
Stimulates gluconeogenesis and decreases pancreatic insulin release
## Footnote
Used for hypoglycemia and insulinoma.
53
What is insulinoma?
CRI for treatment of refractory hypoglycemia
## Footnote
Insulinoma is a tumor of the pancreas that secretes insulin, leading to hypoglycemia.
54
What is the treatment for hypoglycemic crisis?
Dextrose 50% solution IV, slowly and dilute with crystalloid
## Footnote
Mucosal absorption should not exceed 5% concentration.
55
What is diazoxide used for?
Oral treatment for chronic hypoglycemia, inhibits pancreatic insulin release
## Footnote
Not for emergency treatment.
56
What is the primary use of regular insulin?
Treatment for hyperglycemic crisis due to uncontrolled diabetes mellitus
## Footnote
It is the only formulation that can be administered IV.
57
What is the peak action time for short-acting insulin?
0.5-2 hours
## Footnote
Short-acting insulin is not for long-term management.
58
What type of insulin is NPH?
Intermediate-acting insulin
## Footnote
Peak action is 2-10 hours.
59
What is the formulation of Vetsulin/caninsulin?
Lente insulin, added to delay absorption and extend clinical effect
## Footnote
It is used as a starter insulin for canines.
60
What does PZI stand for?
Protamine zinc insulin
## Footnote
It has a long-acting effect with a peak at 4-8 hours.
61
What is glipizide used for?
Oral hypoglycemia agent for Type II diabetic cats
## Footnote
Only 20-30% effective and not for use in dogs.
62
What are glucocorticoids primarily used for?
Suppress immune response and manage hypoadrenocorticism
## Footnote
They have both genomic and non-genomic effects.
63
What is the administration route for prednisone?
Orally (PO)
## Footnote
It is the most commonly used steroid.
64
What is the drug name for desoxycorticosterone?
DOCP
## Footnote
It mimics aldosterone and is used to treat Addison’s disease.
65
What is the mechanism of action of mitotane?
Selective destruction of adrenal cortex
## Footnote
It is cytotoxic to cells of the fasciculata.
66
What is the primary treatment for Cushing's disease?
Trilostane
## Footnote
It inhibits cortisol production by the adrenal gland.
67
What is the effect of selegiline?
Inhibits MAO-B, decreasing ACTH and cortisol production
## Footnote
It is used for canine cognitive dysfunction and rarely for Cushing's.
68
What is the treatment of choice for typical Addison’s disease?
Prednisone + DOCP/fludrocortisone
## Footnote
Typical Addison’s is characterized by a lack of both glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids.
69
What is the administration route for benzodiazepines used as appetite stimulants?
IV or IM
## Footnote
More effective in cats but can be hepatotoxic when given orally.
70
What is capromorelin?
Ghrelin agonist, used as an appetite stimulant in dogs
## Footnote
It is a potent and selective agent.
71
What is the mechanism of action for maropitant citrate?
NK1 antagonist that blocks substance P
## Footnote
It is used to treat acute vomiting in dogs and cats.
72
What are H2 blockers used for?
Competitive inhibition to reduce gastric acid secretion
## Footnote
Examples include cimetidine, ranitidine, and famotidine.
73
What is the primary effect of omeprazole?
Irreversibly inhibits the H+/K+/ATPase proton pump
## Footnote
It significantly reduces HCl production in the stomach.
74
What is the purpose of misoprostol?
Increases mucus production and bicarbonate secretion
## Footnote
It is used to treat NSAID-induced ulcers.
75
What is lactulose used for?
Osmotic cathartic to treat hepatic encephalopathy
## Footnote
It draws fluid into the GI lumen to decrease systemic ammonia levels.
76
What is N-acetylcysteine (NAC) used to treat?
Hepatotoxic conditions and acetaminophen toxicity
## Footnote
It acts as an antioxidant by replenishing tissue glutathione.
77
What is the role of glucocorticoids in immunosuppression?
Inhibit local chemotactic factors and cytokine activity
## Footnote
They are the first line of therapy for immune-mediated diseases.
78
What is azathioprine?
Antimetabolite that impairs DNA synthesis in immune cells
## Footnote
It is contraindicated in cats due to potential liver and bone marrow toxicity.
79
What is the function of cyclosporine?
Inhibits calcineurin to decrease T-cell activation
## Footnote
It is used for atopic dermatitis and canine keratoconjunctivitis sicca.
80
What is cyclophosphamide used for?
Suppresses cell-mediated and humoral immunity
## Footnote
It is used in chemotherapy protocols.
81
What is the mechanism of action of amides?
Suppress cell-mediated (CMI) and humoral immunity, prevent DNA separation through cross-linking.
82
What is a common side effect of chemotherapy protocols?
Hemorrhagic cystitis.
83
Which cytotoxic agent is sensitive to rapidly dividing cells?
Chlorambucil.
84
In cats, which drug is preferred for immune-mediated diseases instead of azathioprine?
Chlorambucil.
85
What is the drug class of Diphenhydramine?
Antihistamines (H1 antagonists).
86
What are the indications for Diphenhydramine?
Allergic reactions (Type 1 hypersensitivity), adjunct for anaphylaxis treatment.
87
What are the side effects of Hydroxyzine?
Adjunct management of signs associated with allergies.
88
What is the notable characteristic of Loratadine?
2nd generation, non-sedating.
89
Which Janus kinase inhibitor is used in dogs for allergic dermatopathy?
Oclacitnib.
90
What is the mechanism of action of Zafirlukast?
Leukotriene receptor antagonist.
91
What is the primary use of Trazodone?
Behavior disorders in dogs and cats.
92
What is the route of administration for Mannitol?
IV ONLY.
93
What is the mechanism of action of Furosemide?
Inhibit Na/K/Cl symporter at luminal membrane in TAL of loop of Henle.
94
What is the primary indication for Hydrochlorothiazide?
Adjunct: pulmonary edema from CHF.
95
What is the mechanism of action of Spironolactone?
Competitive antagonist of aldosterone receptor.
96
What is the mechanism of action of Acetazolamide?
Reversible inhibition of carbonic anhydrase.
97
What condition is Desmopressin used to treat?
Central diabetes insipidus.
98
What type of drugs are catecholamines?
Cardiac stimulants.
99
What is the mechanism of action of Digoxin?
Inhibit Na/K ATPase in myocardial cell membrane.
100
What class of antiarrhythmic drugs does Quinidine belong to?
Class I Na+ channel blocker.
101
What is the primary use of Propranolol?
TX: catecholamine-induced tachyarrhythmias.
102
What is the mechanism of action of Sotalol?
Prolong effective refractory period of cardiac action potential.
103
What is the mechanism of action of Diltiazem?
Calcium entry blockade.
104
What type of agents are Vitamin K1 and Protamine sulfate?
Hemostatic agents.
105
What is the main indication for Aminocaproic acid?
Bleeding due to hyperfibrinolysis.
106
Fill in the blank: Oclacitnib is a _______.
JAK inhibitor.
107
True or False: Mannitol can be administered to dehydrated patients.
False.
108
What is the primary effect of Pimobendane?
Positive inotrope & balanced vasodilator.
109
What is the choice drug for severe hyperkalemia?
Calcium gluconate.
110
What adverse effects are associated with the use of Furosemide?
Hypokalemia, ototoxicity, hypotension.
111
Which drug is a selective α-1 antagonist?
Prazosin.
112
What do ACE inhibitors do?
Inhibit angiotensin II synthesis.
113
What is the mechanism of action of Sildenafil?
PDE-5 inhibitor.
114
What is the primary use of Nitroprusside?
Hypertensive crisis.
115
What are the symptoms of hypotension?
Hypotension, bradycardia, pulmonary hypertension, dyspnea
## Footnote
Possibly hypersensitivity
116
What is the mechanism of action of Aminocaproic acid?
Inhibits fibrinolysis via inhibitory effects on plasminogen activator & antiplasmin action
117
What are the therapeutic uses of Aminocaproic acid?
Bleeding due to hyperfibrinolysis, prophylactic treatment post-op bleeding in greyhounds
118
What is the primary indication for Desmopressin acetate (DDAVP)?
Von Willebrand’s disease
119
What is the mechanism of action of Desmopressin acetate?
Dose-dependent increase in plasma factor VIII & plasminogen factor
120
What is the primary use of Unfractionated Heparin (UFH)?
Certain thromboembolic diseases and prophylactic treatment for at-risk thromboembolic patients
121
What does Unfractionated Heparin (UFH) bind to?
Antithrombin III
122
What does Warfarin sodium inhibit?
Enzyme Vit K epoxide reductase
123
Which drug is a PLT aggregation inhibitor?
Clopidogrel bisulfate (Plavix)
124
What is the mechanism of action of Aspirin?
Inhibits synthesis of thromboxane A2
125
What are the indications for Fresh Whole Blood (FWB) transfusion?
Hemorrhage, hypervolemic anemia (non-hemorrhagic)
126
What is the difference between Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP) and Frozen Plasma (FP)?
FFP is frozen within 6 hours; FP is frozen >8 hours after collection
127
What is Cryoprecipitate used for?
Von Willebrand Disease, pre/post-op Hemophilia A
128
What type of fluid is Normosol-R?
Crystalloid
129
What is the primary goal of treatment for esophageal impaction?
Relieve obstruction
130
What is the mechanism of action of Cimetidine?
H2 antagonists - interfere with histamine stimulation of HCL secretion
131
Which drug is a proton pump inhibitor?
Omeprazole
132
What is the primary objective of treating gastric ulcers in horses?
Alleviate discomfort and promote healing
133
What does Metoclopramide do?
Stimulates motility of upper GI and distal esophageal peristalsis
134
What is the effect of Atropine on GI motility?
Decreases GI motility
135
What are the indications for prokinetic drugs?
Gastric stasis, ileus, and other motility disorders
136
What is the mechanism of action of Neostigmine?
Increases receptor levels of Ach by inhibiting cholinesterase
137
What is the common cause of gastrointestinal stasis?
Inflammation, necrosis, and distention
138
What is the contraindication for using Mineral oil?
Aspiration risk
139
What is the mechanism of action of Misoprostol?
Synthetic analog of prostaglandin E2 that suppresses gastric secretion
140
What is an important consideration when using Lidocaine as a prokinetic?
Light sensitive medication
141
What is the purpose of using Epsom salts in treatment?
Draws fluid into the lumen of GIT
142
What is the treatment for nephrosplenic ligament entrapment?
Fasting, exercise, supportive therapy, rolling the horse
143
What is renal insufficiency?
A condition where the kidneys fail to adequately filter waste products from the blood.
## Footnote
Can lead to complications like hypocalcemia and compromised intestinal integrity.
144
What is hypocalcemia?
A medical condition characterized by low levels of calcium in the blood.
## Footnote
It can complicate treatments for magnesium overdose.
145
What is nephrosplenic ligament entrapment?
Also known as left dorsal displacement of the colon, where the pelvic flexure moves into the nephrosplenic space.
## Footnote
Treatment includes fasting, exercise, and rolling the horse.
146
What is the mechanism of action of phenylephrine?
It acts as an alpha1 adrenergic receptor agonist, causing peripheral vasoconstriction and splenic contraction.
147
What are the indications for using phenylephrine?
Used to cause splenic contraction and release the colon from nephrosplenic space.
148
What are the potential adverse effects of phenylephrine?
Fatal hemorrhagic events and predisposition to arrhythmias.
149
What is colitis?
Inflammation of the large colon.
## Footnote
Treatment focuses on controlling infection and decreasing inflammation.
150
What is endotoxemia?
A condition due to the presence of endotoxins in circulation, often from Gram-negative bacteria.
151
What is the role of hyperimmune plasma in treating endotoxemia?
Provides antibodies against endotoxins, helping to neutralize their effects.
152
What is polymyxin B?
A broad-spectrum cyclic peptide antibiotic with potent endotoxin-binding activity.
153
What is the mechanism of action of heparin?
Promotes anticoagulant activity of antithrombin III.
154
What are the indications for using flunixin meglumine?
Used as an anti-endotoxic agent to reduce prostanoid metabolites from arachidonic acid.
155
What is the primary use of butorphanol?
A centrally acting analgesic used for visceral analgesia.
156
What is Potomac Horse Fever caused by?
Caused by Neorickettsia risticii, leading to ehrlichial colitis syndrome in horses.
157
What is the choice of treatment for Rhodococcus Equi pneumonia?
Clarithromycin and rifampin combination therapy.
158
What are the indications for using aminoglycosides?
Effective against Gram-negative bacilli and used for susceptible aerobic bacteria.
159
What is the mechanism of action of tetracyclines?
They bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit, preventing ribosomal translation.
160
What is the potential side effect of using macrolides in adult horses?
GI disturbances.
161
What is the effect of chloramphenicol?
Inhibits microbial protein synthesis by binding to the 50S subunit of the ribosome.
162
Fill in the blank: The drug _______ is used to treat intraocular inflammation in horses.
Dexamethasone
163
What is the primary use of lidocaine in equine medicine?
Local anesthetic for nerve blocks.
164
What are the adverse effects of phenylbutazone?
GI ulceration and renal papillary necrosis.
165
What is the primary mechanism of action of NSAIDs like ketoprofen?
They inhibit COX-1 and COX-2, reducing inflammation and pain.
166
What is the role of dexamethasone in equine ocular pharmacology?
It is used as an anti-inflammatory for adnexal inflammation.
167
What is the mechanism of action of chloramphenicol?
Inhibit microbial protein synthesis by binding to the 50S subunit of the 70S ribosome and impairing peptidyl transferase activity
168
What is the dosing frequency for chloramphenicol?
3-4 times per day
169
What is the spectrum of activity for chloramphenicol?
Broad spectrum; effective against many gram (+), gram (-), and several anaerobes (e.g., Bacteroides fragilis)
170
What major adverse effect is associated with chloramphenicol?
Human aplastic anemia
171
What is the primary metabolic pathway for chloramphenicol?
Extensive hepatic metabolism
172
What are fluoroquinolones used to treat?
Aerobic gram (-) and gram (+) strains, including salmonella in foals
173
What is the mode of action of fluoroquinolones?
Inhibit necessary enzymes for synthesis of bacterial DNA and RNA
174
What are the contraindications for fluoroquinolones?
Not effective against anaerobic bacteria; transient damage to cartilage in foals
175
What is the mode of action of sulfonamides?
Block several enzymes needed for the biogenesis and other metabolic reactions necessary for formation of RNA
176
What type of bacteria do sulfonamides inhibit?
Gram (+), gram (-), and some protozoa
177
What is the effect of potentiated sulfonamides?
Sequential blockade of microbial enzyme systems occurs with bactericidal consequences
178
What is metronidazole primarily used for?
Antiprotozoal and antibacterial activity
179
What types of bacteria is metronidazole effective against?
Effective against anaerobic bacteria; less effective against non-spore forming, gram (+) bacilli
180
What is the mechanism of action of polyene antifungals like nystatin?
Bind to ergosterol of the protoplast membrane of fungi to alter permeability and allow leakage of cell content
181
What is amphotericin B used to treat?
Systemic fungal infections in dogs, cats, and horses
182
What is the primary action of azoles such as clotrimazole?
Inhibit synthesis of ergosterol in the fungal cytoplasmic membrane
183
What are the common adverse effects of corticosteroids?
Immunosuppression, increased blood pressure, hyperglycemia, and electrolyte imbalances
184
What is the primary mode of action of NSAIDs?
Inhibit cyclooxygenase (COX) to reduce the biosynthesis of prostaglandins
185
What is flunixin meglumine used for?
TX of abdominal pain in horses and as an anti-endotoxic agent
186
What is the mechanism of action of amantadine?
Inhibits the uncoating process of viruses
187
What is the primary use of acyclovir?
Inhibits viral DNA polymerase
188
What is the mode of action of idoxuridine?
Inhibits translation
189
What is the primary function of biphosphonate drugs?
Reduce bone breakdown by preventing osteoclasts from resorbing bone
190
What is the indication for tiludronate disodium?
Lameness associated with navicular disease
191
What is the primary action of topical anti-inflammatories like diclofenac sodium?
Control pain and inflammation associated with osteoarthritis in horses
192
What is the effect of corticosteroids on blood cell and lymphoid tissue?
Increase circulating erythrocytes, neutrophils, and platelets while decreasing lymphocytes
193
What are the contraindications for using corticosteroids?
Hypoadrenocorticism, diabetes mellitus, and corneal ulcers
194
What is the significance of glucocorticoids in metabolism?
Increase gluconeogenesis and lipolysis, potentially leading to hyperglycemia
195
What adverse effects are associated with long-term glucocorticoid use?
Osteoporosis, increased susceptibility to infections, and potential damage to pancreatic B-cells
196
What is the FDA-approved topical application in horses for the control of pain and inflammation associated with osteoarthritis?
sodium (SURPASS®)
## Footnote
Specifically for hock, knee, fetlock, and pastern joints.
197
What is Dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) primarily used for?
A chemical solvent and vehicle for topical application of pharmaceuticals
## Footnote
Has analgesic and anti-inflammatory activity.
198
What are the adverse effects of DMSO if given at greater than 10% solution?
Hemolytic effects.
199
What is the most commonly used prokinetic agent in equine medicine?
Lidocaine.
200
What are the anti-inflammatory effects of Lidocaine?
* Amelioration of the cytokine response to endotoxemia
* Reduce neutrophil free-radicals production
* Impaired leukocyte phagocytic function
* Inhibit leukocyte migration
201
What is the mode of action of Lidocaine?
Blocks the inhibitory effect of NANC neurotransmitter on smooth muscle.
202
What is the absorption characteristic of local anesthetics when applied to mucus membranes?
Significant absorption.
203
What is the administration route for Acepromazine maleate?
IV, IM, SQ.
204
What is the action of Acepromazine maleate in horses?
Produces sedation by inhibiting postsynaptic central dopaminergic receptors.
205
What are the advantages of using Acepromazine maleate in perianesthetic periods?
Better anesthetic outcomes and decrease risk of anesthetic morbidity and mortality.
206
What is a potential adverse effect of using Acepromazine maleate?
Prolonged paraphimosis.
207
Which local anesthetic has the longest duration of action?
Bupivacaine.
208
True or False: Lidocaine has a slower onset and longer duration compared to Bupivacaine.
False.
209
What condition is Proparacaine primarily used for?
Ophthalmic use.
210
What is the main characteristic of Levobupivacaine compared to Bupivacaine?
Less toxic than bupivacaine.
211
What is the mode of action for intravenous regional nerve block?
Enter and block open sodium channels of nerve cells.
212
What is the duration of anesthesia provided by Mepivacaine HCL?
90-120 minutes.
213
What type of anesthesia involves injecting local anesthetic immediately adjacent to a sensory nerve?
Field block anesthesia.
214
What are the effects of opioids in equine medicine?
* Prototypical analgesic
* Antidiarrheal
* Antitussive
215
What is the risk associated with the use of Butorphanol?
Potential for abuse and addiction.
216
What is the main mechanism of action for benzodiazepine derivatives like Diazepam?
GABA agonist.
217
Fill in the blank: _______ is a dopamine D2 blocker used in veterinary medicine.
Fluphenazine.
218
What is the primary use of Yohimbe in equine medicine?
A2-adrenergic antagonist for reversal.
219
What is a common side effect of using phenothiazine derivatives?
Extrapyramidal side effects.
220
What is the action of reserpine in equine medicine?
Blocks storage of some brain chemical messengers including NE.
221
What is the therapeutic index of Fluphenazine?
Narrow therapeutic index.
222
What are the specific contraindications for using Lidocaine?
CI in IVRA, small animal, ventricular arrhythmias, myocardial depression.
223
What is the common adverse effect of opioids?
Sedation, inhibition of respiration, slowed GI.
224
What is the mechanism of action for beta-lactams?
Inhibit cell wall synthesis by inhibiting penicillin-binding proteins, which cross-link bacterial cell walls.
225
What are examples of penicillins?
* Amoxicillin
* Ampicillin
* Methicillin
* Oxacillin
* Ticarcillin
* Piperacillin
226
What is the spectrum of activity for aminopenicillins?
* Gram positive (aerobes > anaerobes)
* Some gram negative (E. coli, Pasteurella, Salmonella)
227
True or False: Beta-lactamase inhibitors increase susceptibility to inactivation by beta-lactamase.
False
228
What are the adverse effects commonly associated with penicillins?
* GI effects
* Allergic reactions (usually mild, delayed)
* IMHA
* Ataxia
229
List the generations of cephalosporins.
* 1st gen: cefazolin, cephalexin, cefadroxil
* 2nd gen: cefoxitin, cefuroxime
* 3rd gen: ceftazidime, cefpodoxime, cefovecin, cefotaxime
230
What is the spectrum of activity for 3rd generation cephalosporins?
* More gram negative coverage
* Limited efficacy against pseudomonas and anaerobes
231
What are the common adverse effects of carbapenems?
* Post-antibiotic effect
* Nephrotoxicity
232
What is the mechanism of action for glycopeptides like vancomycin?
Inhibits cell wall cross-linking in gram positive bacteria.
233
Fill in the blank: Fluoroquinolones inhibit _______.
DNA gyrase (topoisomerase II)
234
What is the primary adverse effect associated with aminoglycosides?
* Nephrotoxicity
* Ototoxicity
235
What are some examples of tetracyclines?
* Tetracycline
* Doxycycline
* Oxytetracycline
* Minocycline
236
What type of bacteria are tetracyclines effective against?
* 4-quadrant coverage
* Intracellular organisms (Rickettsia, Borrelia, Mycoplasma)
237
What is the mechanism of action for macrolides?
Binds 50s ribosomal subunit, inhibiting protein synthesis.
238
What are common adverse effects of lincosamides?
* Diarrhea
* Pseudomembranous colitis (C. diff)
239
What is the mechanism of action for nitroimidazoles?
Inhibits nucleic acid synthesis by disrupting DNA of microbes.
240
What are the two components of sulfonamides + diamino-pyrimidines?
* Sulfonamides: sulfamethoxazole, sulfadiazine, sulfasalazine
* Diaminopyridines: trimethoprim, ormetoprim
241
What are common adverse effects of nitrofurans?
* GI signs
* Peripheral neuropathy
* Hepatopathy
242
What type of bacteria do aminoglycosides primarily target?
* Gram negative aerobes
* Pseudomonas
* Mycoplasma
243
What are the common pharmacokinetic properties of fluoroquinolones?
* Good oral absorption
* Penetrates into deep tissues, prostate, CNS
* Renal excretion
244
What is the post-antibiotic effect?
A phenomenon where the effects of the antibiotic persist after the drug has been cleared.
245
Fill in the blank: Tetracyclines are primarily bacteriostatic and have _______ absorption decreased by food.
Oral
