Drugs for PNA Flashcards

(41 cards)

1
Q

The fluoroquinolone, Ciprofloxacin, inhibiys what enzyme?

A

DNA Gyrase

important in killing Gram - bacteria (pseudomonas)

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2
Q

Fluoroquinolones that block Topo IV is important for killing which type of organisms?

A

Gram +

(streptococcus respt. infections)

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3
Q

Are fluoroquinolones a first choice drug or a last resort drug for CAP?

A

Last resort for CAP

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4
Q

Should penicillins and aminoglycosides be combined in the same IV?

A

NO!

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5
Q

What is the MOA of Amoxicilin?

What step of peptidoglycan synthesis is inhibited?

Is it effective against G+ and G-?

A

inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis by binding to PBP

the final transpeptidation step is inhibited

Yes

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6
Q

Does Amoxicillin +/- Clavulanate kill Pseuodomonas?

What is this combination used for?

A

No!

CAP

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7
Q

what are the main adverse effects of Amoxicillin +/- Clavulanate?

A

Anaphylactic Rxn

C. Diff

In Mono-rash

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8
Q

What is the MOA of Piperacillin?

What is the MOA of Tazobactam?

Is it active against Pseudomonas?

A

inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis

Inhibits beta-lactamases

Yes!

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9
Q

Piperacillin + Tazobactam kill which types of pathogens?

A

Gram + and Gram - aerobic and anaerobic, including those who produce beta-lactamases

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10
Q

What are the main indications for Piperacillin + Tazobactam?

A

CAP and HAP/VAP

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11
Q

What is the benefit of using Ceftriaxone in patients with kidney diseases?

A

It is not eliminated by the kidney, so the dose does not need to be adjusted for renal impairment

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12
Q

What class of drugs can cause bleeding tendencies?

A

Cephalosporins

(cefmetazole, cefoperazone, cefotetan, ceftriaxone)

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13
Q

What are the third and fourth generation parenteral cephalosporins?

A

Ceftriaxone (3rd)

Cefepime (4th)

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14
Q

What are the third generation oral cephalosporins

A

Cefditoren

Cefpodoxime-Proxetil

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15
Q

What are the clinical applications for Cefpodoxime?

A

COPD

OM

CAP outpatient tx

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16
Q

What are the clinical applications for Cefditoren?

A

exerbation of chonric bronchitis

CAP

pharyngitis

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17
Q

Are Cefpodoxime and Cefditoren orally active?

What is the 1/2 life?

Are there any drug-drug interactions?

A

Yes

2-3 hours and 1.6hrs, increased with worsening renal function

Yes

18
Q

What are some concerning adverse effects of Cefpodoxime and Cefditoren?

A

B-lactam allergies

Superinfection (C.diff)

19
Q

Which drug class is bacteriostatic at the 30S subunit ?

A

Tetracyclines

Kills bacteria that lack cell walls (Mycoplasma pneumonia)

20
Q

Which tetracycline is the drug of choice for CAP?

21
Q

Who should not receive Tetracyclines and why?

A

Don’t use in children due to risk of teeth staining

22
Q

What things interfere with tetracycline absorption?

What is recommended to avoid GI upset?

Should it be combined with bactericidal drugs (PNC)?

A

Antacids (Aluminum, Ca, Mg, Fe) and dairy products

Take with water

No, generally not recommended

23
Q

Which drug class binds to the 50S subunit and blocks elongation and is BacterioStatic ?

A

Macrolides (Erythromycin)

24
Q

What are the macrolide drug of choice for CAP?

A

Azithromycin

Clarithromycin

25
Macrolides are effective against which bugs?
**Most Aerobic and anaerobic gram + bugs** Not Gram negatives except: Pasturella, Haemophilus, Neisseria **Legionella, Mycoplasma, mycobacteria, rickettsia, chlamydia** No fungi
26
Which drug is a well knwon inhibitor of cytochrome P450?
Erythromycin increases concentration of other drugs
27
Which drug causes less GI upset, erythromycin or clarithromycin?
Clarithromycin causes LESS GI upset
28
Unlike Erythromycin, which macrolide does NOT disrupt CP450?
Azithromycin concentrates in cells and slowly releases bacteriostatic levels over 2-4 days (1/2 life)
29
Which drug class is broad-spectrum, administered orally, and is more effective than tetracyclines or macrolides for PNA?
Fluoroquinolones (-Oxacins) Use as LAST RESORT to minimize tolerance
30
What is the main adverse effect of Fluoroquinolones?
Tendon rupture, especially Achille's Tendon in elderly, children, and those at risk
31
What are the indications for Vancomycin? What can infusing too fast cause?
MRSA, MRSE, serious allergy to PNC C. diff Red Man Syndrome
32
Which drug binds to ribosomal A to prevent tRNA binding, thus inhibiting the first step of protein synthesis
Linozolid
33
What are the clinical applications of Linezolid?
VRE CAP (methicillin susceptible) and HAP (methicillin-susceptible and resistant)
34
Linezolid can be administered which two ways? It inhibits which important enzyme, leading to which side effects?
Oral and IV MAO--\> neurologic sx, serotonin syndrome
35
What is the MOA of Aztreonam? What is it effective against?
inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis by binding to PBP Gram -, including Pseudomonas No use against Gram + or anearobes
36
What is the MOA of Imipenem? What is it effective against?
inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis by binding to PBP Wide spectrum of G+ and G-, aerobes and anaerobes, many MDR strains
37
What is the main clinical application of Imipenem?
lower respiratory tract infections
38
Gentamicin binds to which ribosomal subunit thus inhibiting growth? What is Gentamicin used for?
30S subunit Respiratory tract infections?
39
What are the main toxicities of Gentamicin?
Nephrotoxicity Neurotoxicity Ototoxicity
40
What drug used to be the drug of choice for aspiration PNA but now is associated with C. diff?
Clindamycin
41
What bugs undergo post-translational modifications that give rise to antibiotic resistance? (mnemonic)
ESKAPE E. Coli Staphylococcus Klebsiella Acinetobacter Pseudomonas Enteroccocus