EENT Flashcards

1
Q

What type of infxn are steroid inhalers most likely to have?

A

Fungal infxn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What underlying disorders are patients with nasal polyps most likely to have?

A

Asthma, ASA/NSAID allergy (ASA triad)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the most aggressive and worst type of thyroid CA?

A

Anaplastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the RF for thyroid CA?

A

Female, Asian, hx of goiter, hx of radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the most common thyroid CA?

A

Papillary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the types of thyroid CA?

A

Papillary, follicular, anaplastic, medullary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the most common laryngeal CA?

A

Squamous cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is bacterial infxn on the floor of the mouth that could be potentially life threatening?

A

Ludwing angina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is L sided supraclavicular adenopathy?

A

Virchow’s node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is painless, unilateral adenopathy?

A

Hodgkin’s lyphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What drugs can cause gingival hyperplasia?

A

CCB, phenytoin (seizure meds), cyclosporine (DMARDS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What bug causes mumps?

A

Paramyxovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What bug causes sialadenitis?

A

S. Aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What glands are affected in sialadenitis? Sialolithiasis?

A

1) parotid 2) submandibular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What bug causes epiglottis?

A

H. influenzae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What bug causes mono?

A

EBV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Most common area for posterior epistaxis?

A

Woodruff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the 3 common bugs causing bacterial sinusitis?

A

M. Catarrhalis, H. influenzae, S. Pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Is Meniere’s peripheral or central cause of vertigo?

A

Peripheral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Patient has positive Dix Hallpike?

A

BPPV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What systemic disease can lead to hearing loss?

A

Lyme, neurosyphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What drug can be used to perforated TM?

A

Fluroquinolones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the common non-suppurative cause of sialadenitis?

A

Mumps/paromyxovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

45yo male presents with progressive enalargement of R submandibular gland over last week?

A

Sialolithiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What GI disorder can lead to laryngitis if not treated?
GERD
26
68yo male drinker presents with 3mo of hoarseness?
Squamous cell carcinoma
27
How to treat peritonsillar abscess?
IV ampicillin or IV clindamycin
28
Patient has dark urine after pharyngitis couple weeks ago. UA reveals RBC casts, what lab should you order next?
ASO titers for post-strep glomerulonephritis
29
6yo male presents with chronic sinusitis, what to expect on PE?
Enlarged adenoids
30
Bilateral acoustic neuroma occurs only when?
Neurofibromatosis II
31
How to differentiate labyrinthitis vs vestibular neuritis?
Labyrinthitis has hearing loss, vestibular neuritis does not
32
What disease should be considered with a patient who has a recent diagnosis of toxoplasmosis?
Vestibular neuritis
33
What must be r/o’d if patient has vertigo + syncope?
Vertebral basilar insufficiency
34
What is the most common fungal otitis externa?
Aspergillus
35
Most common cause for retinal artery occlusion?
carotid plaque from carotid
36
Central vision loss vs peripheral vision loss dx?
central - macular degeneration, peripheral - glaucoma
37
"Blood and thunder" on otoscopy exam?
central retinal vein occlusion
38
What congenital infxn can lead to childhood glaucoma?
TORCH infxn
39
Dendritic ulcers on cornea with fluorescein stain?
herpes simplex
40
4 drug classes to treat open angle glaucoma?
alpha agonist, beta blockers, topical carbonic anhydrase, prostaglandins
41
What nerve could be damaged with a blowout fracture?
infraorbital nerve
42
What PE will show with infraorbital nerve damage?
paresthesia in the gums, upper lips and cheek
43
What are 3 concerns for blowout fracture?
loss of EOM, parestheisa, diplopia
44
What congenital malformation leads to dacroadenitis and resolves w/in the first year?
dacryostenosis
45
Common cause for optic neuritis?
MS
46
What must be r/o'd with acute loss of monocular vision/amaurosis fugax?
artery occlusion, optic neuritis, giant arteritis
47
Patient complains of floaters, bright lights, loss of vision in one field?
retinal detachment
48
Common cause for orbital cellulitis?
staph, strep
49
Common cause of viral conjunctivitis?
adenovirus
50
Pressure to dx glaucoma?
>21
51
Unilateral deep painful red eye decreased vision, halos, steamy/cloudy cornea pupil, fixed, dialted?
acute angle glaucoma
52
Other sx/PE for acute angle glaucoma?
unilateral HA, N/V, photophobia
53
What is term for inflammation of the lacrimal gland?
dacryoadenitis
54
Swelling of the medial corner of eye with erythema, tenderness, d/c, and excess tearing?
dacryocystitis
55
What muscle may become entrapped with blowout fracture?
inferior rectus muscle
56
Patient has hyphema with no trauma, what must be r/o'd?
blood disorders
57
Patient has gradual onset of central vision loss?
macular degeneration
58
HIV patient has retinopathy, what's the bug?
CMV
59
Immunocompressed patient with retinopathy, 2bugs?
CMV, toxo
60
Patient has sudden blurred vision and retinal vein occlusion will have what kind of occlusion?
central
61
What are the bugs with bacterial conjunctivitis?
s. aurues, s. pneumonia, m. catarrhalis, h. influeanzea
62
When to start screening for glaucoma?
40yo
63
Patient has disk ratio of 0.7, what must be done to r/o?
tonometry for acute close angle glaucoma
64
What disorder is characterized by congenital malformation or failure to open nasolacrimal duct?
dacryostenosis