EKG Cumulative Final Flashcards
(195 cards)
1
Q
What are the indications for getting an EKG?
A
Unexplained syncope
Unexplained palpitations
Episodic Pain, Dizzy, Fatigue, SoB
Neuro events w/ transient A-Fib/Flutter
2
Q
Sequence/Pathway of signals through the heart?
A
SA, AV Node, AV Bundle, Septum, Purkinje Fibers
3
Q
What part of the pathway connects the atria to the ventricles and conducts impulses through the interventricular septum?
A
AV Bundle
4
Q
What part of the conduction pathway stimulate the contractile cells of both ventricles, starting at the apex?
A
Purkinje Fibers
5
Q
What are the intrinsic conduction speeds of the heart?
What can change these speeds?
A
SA and AV- 0.01 - 0.02m/s
Atria and Ventricle- 1 m/s
Purkinje Fibers- 2 m/s
Altered by medication
6
Q
What are the BPMs of the different areas of the heart?
What alters these numbers?
A
SA Node- 60-100 Atrial cell- 55-60 AV Node- 45-50 Juntion- 40-60 His bundle- 40-45 Branch- 40-45 Purkinje- 35-40 Myocardial- 30-35 Ventricles- 20-40 Autonomic stimulus
7
Q
Define Automaticity Define Excitability Define Chronotrophy Define Inotropy Define Dromotropy
A
Discharge spontaneously w/out stimulus Ability to be depolarized by stimulus Affecting HR Affecting contractility Affecting conductivity
8
Q
Parasympathetic NS only affects ? part of heart?
Sympathetic NS affects ? parts?
A
Atria- Ach, decreases SA node pacing, dilates arteries
Atria and ventricles- Epi/NorEpi, Inc rate and force of contraction, constricts arteries
9
Q
What are two factors that can alter general/diffuse amplitude?
A
Increases w/ hypertrophy
Decreases w/ COPD
10
Q
Characteristics of a normal P wave?
A
Impulses through atria Upright in I, II, aVF and V2-6 Inverted in aVR Amplitude= up to 2.5mm Duration= <0.12 seconds
11
Q
Characteristics of Q waves?
A
.04 sec or 1/4 the R wave
12
Q
What does the QRS complex represent?
A
Depolarization through the ventricles
Normal is >.10 seconds
13
Q
What does the T wave represent?
A
Repolarization of the ventricles
Upright in I, II, III, aVF, V3-6
Inverted in aVR
14
Q
What two waves usually show concordance?
A
Normal T wave and QRS complex
15
Q
What does the U wave represent?
A
Repolarization of Purkinje Fibers
Abnormally long in hypo Mg, Ca, K
16
Q
What does the PR interval measure?
A
Time for signal to travel from SA to ventricular muscles
17
Q
What does the QT interval measure?
A
Total time of duration of ventricular systole
18
Q
How does a normal pediatric ECG appear?
A
HR +100
Longer QTc
Dominant R, inverted T in V1-3
Sinus arrhythmia
19
Q
How do you test for premature atrial contractions?
How are they treated?
A
Holter/Event monitor
Echo
Labs w/ E+
Treat underlying cause, not the HR
20
Q
What are the criteria for WAP?
A
HR below 100bpm
Multi focal rhythm originating from atria
3 different P wave morphologies
Pace maker shifts between SA node, AV node and Atria
21
Q
What are the etiological causes of WAP?
How is it treated?
A
Idiopathic, Vagal tone, Dig toxicity, Inflamed atria, VHD
Treat underlying cause, usually ASx
22
Q
What are the characteristics of MAT?
A
SA node doesn’t pace the heart, several groups of cells in atria do
3 or more morphologically different P waves
HR +100bpm
Irregular P-R, R-R and P-P intervals
23
Q
What are the etiological reasons that cause MAT?
A
COPD- common finding
Pneumonia
Hypoxia
CHF
24
Q
How do PTs with MAT present?
How is it treated?
A
Palipitations, SoB, Chest pain, Light headed, Syncope
O2
Treat underlying cause
Rate control- CCBs
25
How can you tell if a impulse originated from the SA node, Junction or Ventricle?
```
Atria= upright P wave
Junction= inverted/absent wave
Ventricle= widened QRS
```
26
When are Atrial Escape Beats usually seen and what causes them?
Healthy PTs from sinus node depression from meds, ischemia or respiratory failure
27
What can cause Junctional Escape Beats?
Stimulants, Nicotine Caffeine, Low E+ or Hypoxia
28
The occurrence of bigeminy beats is associated w/ what underlying issue?
Hypoxia
29
What is the first key to diagnosing SVTs?
12 lead
| Electrophysiologic tests is definitive way to distinguish SVT from V-Tach
30
What are the criteria for an unstable tachcardic PT?
HOTN
AMS
Chest pain
HF (dyspnea)
31
Sinus tachycardia criteria= ?bpm?
Rarely exceeds 180bpm
32
What leads need to be examined when considering junctional tachycardia?
No P waves
| Negative deflections in II, III, aVF can be retrograde P waves
33
Criteria for AVNRT
120-220
Buried/inverted P waves
Narrow QRS unless BBB is present
34
What is the most common SVT in all age groups?
What type of PT is it normally seen in?
AVNRT
| Young adults and women exacerbated by pregnancy or menstrual cycle
35
What is the definitive treatment for AVNRT?
EP study and ablation
36
What type of defect is AVNRT?
What type of defect is AVRT?
Accessory pathway in/near AV node
Anatomic bypass bundle between atria and ventricles
37
What is the difference between Orthodromic AVRT and Antidromic AVRT?
Ortho- impulse travels down AV node but return to atria through Kent bundle causing narrow tachycardia
Anti- impulse travels down Kent bundle and up to AV node causing wide complex tachycardia
38
WPW Type A pattern is seen ? and mimics?
WPW Type B pattern is seen ? and mimics?
L sided pathway w/ tall R in V1-3 mimicing RVH
R sided path w/ tall R and inverted T in inferior leads that mimics LVH
39
Orthodromic WPW look like ? so it's treated as such
Antidromic WPW looks like ? so it's treated as such
SVT
VT
40
When/where do we not use ABCD medications in order to prevent blocking AV node and speeding the heart up?
AVRT- WPW Antidromic
41
What are the characteristics of LGL Syndrome?
PR interval is <0.12sec
Normal QRS
No delta wave
Paroxysmal tachycardia
42
Characteristics of A-Fib?
No P wave
| Irregularly irregular
43
What are the causes of A-Fib?
```
PIRATES
Pulmonary
Ischmia
Rheumatic HDz
Alcohol/Anemia
Thyroid/Toxins
E+/Endocarditis
Sepsis/SSS
```
44
Time frame for paroxysmal, persistent and permanent A-Fib?
Paroxysmal- less than 7 days
Persistent- more than 7 days
Permanent- always there even when medications are used
45
All A-Fib PTs must be ?
Anticoagulated
46
How is A-Fib managed?
Acute and no HOTN= rate control w/ DMV ED
New onset and good conversion candidates= DARE
Transesophageal echo prior to conversion or anti-coag for 4wks before and after
47
What are the BPMs for A-Flutter?
250-300
48
What leads are examined when considering A-Flutter?
How is A-Flutter diagnosed?
Counterclockwise- II, III, aVF
ECG
49
How is A-Flutter treated?
Control ventricular rate w/ BB/CCB
Ablation is primary definitive Tx due to reoccurrence
Can treat w/ cardioversion, rate control, antiarrhythmics
50
How is A-Flutter treated?
IV Ibutilide- 65% effective
| Cardioversion- 95% effective
51
Prior to converting A-Flutter, PTs INR must be below ? on what drugs?
INR between 2-3 w/ Warfarin or,
| DARE 4wks prior to conversion
52
What are the criteria/characteristics for V-Tach?
150-250bpm
Dissociated P waves
Wide complexes
53
Define R on T Phenomenon
PVC hits a T wave and causes V-Tach (shark fin appearance)
54
How is V-Tach managed?
```
Unstable= Synchronized conversion @ 200J
Stable= Procainamide, Amiodarone, Lidocaine
Pulseless= defibrillation
```
55
How is Torsades de Pointes treated?
Unsynchronized conversion if unstable
| IV Magnesium sulfate
56
What are the characteristics of V-Fib?
Variable wide complex rhythm over 300bpm and no P waves
57
What are the 5 Hs and 5Ts of PEA?
Hypovolemia, Hypoxia, H+ excess, HypoK, Hypotemp
Tamponade, Toxins, Tension Pneumo, Thrombosis
58
Define SSS
Dropped P wave and/or QRS complex with escape contraction that manifests as sinus brady w/out normal escape mechanisms
59
What is the etiology, presentaiton, Dx and Tx for SSS?
Etiology: CAD
Presents: palpitations, light headed, syncope
Dx: holter monitor
Tx: pacemaker
60
What are the two types of 2* AV blocks?
Mobitz Type 1- Wenckebach (going, going, gone)
| Mobitz Type 2 (duck duck goose)
61
Wenkebach Blocks can be caused if what vessel is occluded?
RCA
62
3* blocks are rarely caused by ?
They can present with what unique characteristic?
Medications
Cannon A Waves
63
How is Bradycardia treated?
Unstable- Atropine 1mg or Isoproterenol infusion, temp pace maker
Stable- remove medications, consider implant pacemaker especially if brady is caused by Mobtiz 2 or 3* Block
64
A BBB is defined by what finding on EKG?
What if it's between 0.10-0.12?
QRS longer than 0.12 seconds
QRS that is 0.10-0.12- defined as intraventricular conduction delay
65
What are the causes of RBBB?
RANCID PE
| RVH ASD Normal variant Cardiomyopathy Ischemia Degeneration Massive PE
66
What leads are examined when investigating RBBBs?
Wide "slurred" S in I, V4-6
| Depressed ST, Inverted T, or RSR' V1 or V2 (R' taller than R)
67
What can cause LBBBs?
INLAND HH
| Ischemia Normal LVH Aortic stenosis New LBBB c/w STEMI Degeneration HTN HyperK
68
What are the criteria for LBBBs?
```
QRS > 0.12sec in any lead
High S in V1 or 2
Tall r in V5 or 6, I and aVL
ST depression in V5, V6 1 and aVL
Inverted T in V5, V6 1 and aVL
```
69
What does the RCA supply?
What does the LCA supply?
Posterior LBB and AV node
RBB and anterior LBB
70
What leads are examined for an anterior fascicular block?
Q1S3 also II and aVF
| Normal to slightly wide QRS
71
What leads are examined for a posterior fascicular block?
Why are these rare?
S1Q3 and RAD
Deep/wide S in I
Q in III
Dual blood supply
72
What types of occlusions can result in a bifasicular block?
RBBB + anterior fasicular block
| RBBB = posterior hemi block
73
What types of occlusions can result in an anterior or 3* block?
Anterior hemi + posterior hemi= LBBB
RBBB + AFB + PFB= 3* block
74
What can cause LAD?
```
LVH
Inferior MI
LAFB
LBBB
WPW
```
75
What can cause RAD?
```
RVH
Lateral MI
LPFB
Acute lung Dz (PE)
COPD
```
76
What are the two things that can cause extreme RAD?
V-Tach
| Hyperkalemia
77
Define Horizontal Zone of Transition
How deflection moves across precordial leads
78
What four things can cause poor R wave progression?
Anterior infarction
RVH
Chronic Lung Dz
Obesity
79
What can cause Left Atrial Enlargement
CHF
HTN
MS or MR/AS or AR
80
What can cause Right Atrial Enlargement?
Cor Pulmonale (Pulm HTN and RVH)
Tricuspid Dz
Congenital Dz
81
What leads are best assessed for Right Atrial Enlargement?
What leads are best assessed for Left Atrial Enlargement?
II, III, aVF
Any lead but II is best
82
What are the criteria for RVH?
RAD
Normal QRS without BBB
Reverse R wave progression
V1 or V2 strain pattern
83
Define Scott Criteria
Deepest S in V1 or V2
Tallest R in V5 or V6
>35mm= hypertrophy
84
What leads are best examined for strain patterns?
Lateral leads- I, aVL, V5, V6 w/ prominent R waves
| Classically w/ ST depression and asymmetric negative T waves
85
Why do PTs die from HOCM?
Arrhythmia outflow obstruction
86
What are the ST elevation criteria for men and women?
>2mm for men
>1.5mm for women
Or >1mm in two or more contiguous leads
87
What are the 3 Phases of MI changes in an ECG?
Hyper/Early Acute
Evolved
Chronic- stabilized
88
What events are occurring during the hyperacute phase of MI changes?
Heightened and widened T waves over injury
ST segment shift from concave to convex
Sxs
Not generalized
89
What events are occurring during the evolved acute phase of MI changes?
ST segments regress
T waves invert
Q waves
90
What events are occurring during the chronic phase of MI changes?
ST segment return to baseline
| Q waves remain
91
Anterior MI involves ? leads and which vessel?
V3 and V4
| LAD
92
Septal MI involves ? leads and which vessel?
V1 and V2
| LAD
93
Anterior septal MI is commonly associated with what two issues?
Cardiogenic shock
| Hemodynamic compromise
94
Lateral MIs involve ? leads and ? vessel?
I, aVL, V5, V6
| Proximal LAD
95
Inferior MIs involve ? leads and ? vessel?
II, III, aVF
| RCA, LCX
96
Inferior lateral MIs involve ? leads and ? vessel?
II, III, aVF, V5 and V6
| LCX
97
Apical MIs involve ? leads and ? vessel?
I II III aVF aVL V2-6
| RCA
98
What ECG changes will be seen in an inferior Mi with right extension?
Lead III will be taller than lead II
99
What is the way to remember elevation and location of reciprocal changes?
Elevation: PAILS
Depression: AILSP
100
How is coronary artery disease diagnosed?
Multi-slice CT
101
Why are stress tests performed?
Precipitate ischemia for ECG to detect
Abnormal perfusion on radionuclide studies
Transient wall motion abnormalities
102
What test is performed to assess left ventricle function, ischemia and assess viable myocardium?
Radionuclide studies
103
What info do cardiac catheterizations measure?
Gradients across stenotic valves
Severity of shunts
Measure intracardiac pressure
104
What value do coronary angiography provide?
Definitive Dx of CAD
| Necessary prelude to PCI or coronary bypass graft surgery
105
What are the three classes for Ambulatory Electrocardiography?
I- palpitation, syncope, dizzy
II- SoB, pain, fatigue
III- Sxs not expected to come from arrhythmias
106
All PTs with known or suspected cardiac disease get what two things?
ECG
| Chest x-ray
107
What are the 4 types of ECG monitoring their timeframes?
Holter- 24-48hrs and ST segment analysis
Event/Loop- one month and activated by PT
Mobile OPT Telemetry- one month
Implantable loop- 3yrs
108
Exercise tests are performed to asses what two things?
Exercise induced arrhythmia
| Chronotropic incompetence in bradyarrhythmias
109
When is formal invasive electrophysiological studies useful?
Dx of V/SVT wide complexes
110
What are the 3 classes for electrophysiological studies?
I- ECGs fail to document palpitations
II- sporadic Sxs and can't be documented
III- palipitations from extracardiac causes (hyper thyroid)
111
What are the 3 classes of echo studies?
I- arrhythmias from heart Dz, FamHx of arrhythmias
II- arrhythmia commonly from but not associated w/ heart Dz, A-Fib, A-Flutter
III- palpitations w/out evidence of arrhythmias or minor arrhythmias w/out evidence of heart dz
112
An echo is the most useful test to analyze what parts of the heart?
Echos are always done on PTs w/ ? presentation?
Valve/ventricle function
Stenotic and regurgitant lesions
Syncope and no obvious neurocardiac cause
113
When/why are transesophageal studies preferred?
Evaluate possible aortic dissections
| ID clot in cardiac chambers
114
How do you get a PTs angina history?
SAMPLE w/ CC in PTs own words
Meds- SHOP (stree, herbal, OTC, Rxf
OPQRST
115
Define Levine Sign
Hand over heart/chest to describe chest/ischemic pain
116
What are the four anginal equivalents?
Dyspnea
Fatigue
Lightheaded/dizzy
Belching
117
What are the atypical qualities of chest pain and when are they more commonly seen?
Women, Elderly, DM, CVD
Mild epigastric burning or numbness
118
What are the five non-invasive heart studies and when are they performed?
Treadmill- angina or moderate chance for CADz
SPECT- abnormal EKG
Stress Echo- new wall motion abnormalities and heart structure
MRI
PET Scan
119
Prinzmetal angina is associated with what three risk factors?
Raynauds
Smoking
Migraine HA
120
How is Prinzmetal angina diagnosed?
How is it managed?
Documented transient ST elevation during chest pain w/out corresponding CAD
CCBs and Nitrates
121
# Define Wellens Sydrome
Why is this so critical to ID?
Indicates occlusion of proximal LAD or Left Main
Will lead to extensive anterior MI in 8.5 days from Sx onset
122
# Define Type A Wellens Syndrome
Define Tpe B Wellens Sydrome
Biphasic T wave in anterior leads
Deep T wave inversions in V2 and V3
123
How are Left Main occlusions treated?
Rapid PCI
| Emergent CABG
124
What lead is examined to assess for Left Main occlusions?
What patterns can be seen?
aVR- 77% sensitive and 82% specific
STE in aVR >1.5mm
STE in aVL
125
Define Sgarbossa Criteria
ST elevation 1mm or more concordant w/ QRS- 5pts
ST depression in V1-V3- 3pts
ST elevation 5mm or more discordant w/ QRS- 2pts
Score >2= 90% specificity for MI w/ LBBB
126
What leads are examined for posterior wall STEMIs?
```
ST depression in V1-3 for:
Horizontal ST depression
Tall broad R waves
Upright T waves
Dominant R wave in V2
```
127
What ECG changes does cocaine cause?
What ECG changes does meth cause?
Wide QRS, QT prolongation
QT prolongation
128
How is cocaine toxicity treated?
Sodium Bicarbonate
129
# Define Early Repolarization
What type of PT is it normally seen in?
0.1mV or greater J-point elevation in two or more adjacent leads that are either slurred or notched
ASx young athletic PT
130
What are the 6 benign ECG findings found with athletic heart?
```
Abnormal beat/rhythm
1* block
Mobitz Type 1
Isolated voltage criteria for LVH
Early repolarization
Mild RAD in young PTs
```
131
Characteristics of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Autosomal dominant defect
Dyspnea on exertion, chest pain, syncope or death
Creshendo/Decrescendo systolic murmur inc w/ valsalva and dec w/ squatting
132
How is hypertrophic cardiomyopathy diagnosed?
Why is this so important to detect?
Echo
Most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young athletes
133
What is looked for on an ECG for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
Large amplitude QRS'
Significant Qs in inferior/lateral leads
Tall R waves in V1-V2
LVH
134
How is HCM managed?
Echo for Dx
Ambulatory ECG w/ no vigorous activities
Verapamil or BB
Consider implanting defibrillator
135
Criteria for Long QTc Syndrome?
QTc is more than 1/2 longer than cardiac cycle
136
What medications can cause long QT Syndrome?
LAZAF Anti-DAPH
Levaquine, Amiodarone, Zofran, Azithromycin, Fluconazole
Anti depressant, ABX, histamine, psychotic
137
How is Long QT Syndrome treated?
BB
| ICD
138
Define Short QT Syndrome?
QTc under 360
139
How can Short QT Syndrome present?
SIDS
Sudden arrest
A-fib
Polymorphic VT/VF
140
What can cause acquired short QT syndrome?
Hyper K, Ca
Digitalis
Acidosis
141
What treatment option is considered for Short QT Syndrome?
ICD
142
How is Brugada Syndrome managed?
ICD
| Genetic Studies
143
Define Arrhythmogenic Right Ventricle Cardiomyopathy
Genetic defect causing fibrosis of R ventricle
| Presents w/ PVCs, arrhythmias, sudden death
144
What are the evaluation studies for Arrhythmogenic Right Ventricle Cardiomyopathy?
```
ECG- usually shows ventricular arrythmia w/ LBBB
Holter
Exercise ECG
Echo
MRI
```
145
What are the 3 signs of Arrhythmogenic Right Ventricle Cardiomyopathy
Prolonged S wave upstroke
T wave inversion in V1-3
Epsilon wave- most characteristic
146
What is the best and first tool used to distinguish between VT or SVT?
12 lead
147
What can be done/used to help reduce the severity of VT vs SVT?
What needs to be avoided?
Vagal or Adenosine
CCBs- may impact structural diseases or WPW
148
What are the typical traits of SVT?
```
Young PT w/ no CAD
QRS < .14
No capture/fusion beats
Normal axis
BBB/SVT supports Dx
```
149
What are the typical traits of V-Tach?
```
Older PT w/ CAD
QRS > .14
Capture/Fusion beats present
P wave dissociation
Pos/Neg concordance
Extreme RAD
Cannon A waves w/ JVP
```
150
Define Cannon A waves
Simultaneous contraction of atria and ventricle seen at JVP
151
Define Takotsubo Cardiomyopathy
Apical left ventricular dysfunction that mimics MIs
152
What are the causes of hyperkalemia?
K SAT BAN BUD
| CKDz, DM, Dehydrate, Excess K diet, ACEI, ARB, NSAID, Spirinolactone, Trimamterine, Bactrim
153
What are the ECG changes of hyperkalemia?
```
ST depression
Peaked T waves
QRS widening
QT shortening
Widened P waves
```
154
How is hyperkalemia treated?
IV Calcium gluconate
K redistribution w/ IV Dextrose, insulin, Beta agonists
Lower K w/ diuretics, dialysis and GI binder
155
What are the common causes of hypokalemia?
CD MEALS
| CKDz, Diuretics, Mg, Eating d/o, Aldosteronims, Laxative, Sweating
156
What are the ECG findings of hypokalemia?
Flat/inverted T wave
| U waves
157
ECG effects of hypokalemia have been shown to be due to ?
Suppression of K channels
| Low K activates Na and Ca channels
158
What are the ECG findings of K levels less than 2/5, >6.0, >7.5, >9.0
```
<2.5= depressed ST, diphasic T, U waves
>6= tall T wave
>7.5= long PR, wide QRS, tall T
>9= no P wave, sinusoidal wave
```
159
What are the causes of hypercalcemia?
What are the ECG changes?
T CHIK
TZD, CA, Hyperthyroid, Immobile, Kidney failure
Short QT
160
How is hypercalcemia treated?
IV hydration
| Antiresorptives- biphosphonates, calcitonin
161
What are the common causes of hypocalcemia?
What are the ECG changes seen?
Parathyroid hypo
D deficiency
Failure, renal
Prolonged QT interval
162
How is hypocalcemia treated?
IV calcium gluconate
| Chronic= oral Ca and Vit D
163
What ECG changes are seen with pericarditis?
Pericarditis is most commonly caused by ?
Widespread concave ST elevation/PR depression
Sinus tachy is common due to pain or pericardial effusion
Coxsackie virus
164
Define Dressler's Syndrome
Pericarditis from MI weeks prior
165
What are the treatment options for pericarditis?
```
ASA
NSAIDs
Colchicine
Steroids- if refractory
Surgery
```
166
What is the most common cause of electrical alterans?
Pericardial effusion
167
How is cardiac tamponade diagnosed?
How is it treated?
Echo
Emergent- pericardiocentesis
Stable- eval and catheter drainage w/ Echo guide
168
What is the key indicator of PE on an ECG?
S1Q3T3 from acute pressure and volume overload of the right ventricle
169
What is the acute treatment for PEs?
Anticoag w/ LMWH or Fondaparinux
Fibrinolytics if shock/HOTN, RV dysfunction, clot burden or right atrial thrombus
Catheter/surgical embolectomy
170
Define Low Voltage Echocardiogram
QRS amplitude:
<5mm in limb leads
<10mm in chest leads
171
What is the temp criteria for hypothermia?
Less than 95*
172
Define Osborn Waves
Positive deflection of the J point most prominent in precordial leads and proportional to the degree of hypothermia
173
How is dilated cardiomyopathy managed?
What must not be given to these PTs?
BB/CCBs
Positive inotropes and nitrates
174
What are the most common causes of restrictive cardiomyopathy?
Amyloidosis
| Hemochromatosis
175
How do PTs w/ restrictive cardiomyopathy present?
Peripheral edema
Dyspnea
Fatigue
Signs of heart failure
176
What are the diagnostic studies used for restrictive cardiomyopathy?
Echo shows impaired diastolic filling and preserved systolic function
ECG shows low voltage
177
What is the most common sustained dysrhythmia?
A-Fib
178
Electrical impulses of A-Fib are ? compared to A-Flutter which are ?
Fib- disorganized
| Flutter- organized
179
What is the difference between Mobitz Type I and II?
I- Progressive PR elongation until QRS is dropped, block is in AV node
II- Fixed and constant PR interval, block is below AV node in Purkinje system
180
How are 3* heart blocks managed?
If Sxs- atropine or isoproterenol
| Definitive Tx= permanent pacemaker
181
WPW is a ? syndrome
What are the three parts of the WPW triad?
Pre-excitation
Delta
Wide QRS
Short PR interval
182
How is WPW managed?
Unstable- cardioversion
Procainamide
Definitive= ablation
183
How do PTs with PSVTs present?
How are they treated?
Palpitations, anxiety and heart rate of 120-200bpm
Vagal and Adenosine
Unstable= cardioversion
184
How is SSS managed?
Pacemaker
| Medication rate control
185
Criteria for Sinus Bradycardia
HR less than 60 but above 45
186
How is V-Fib managed?
Defib at biphasic 200J
187
What two medication classes can cause Torsades de Points?
Antipsychotics
| Methadone
188
When is aorta coarctation considered and how is id diagnosed?
BP in arms higher than legs
| Echo for Dx
189
Anterior and Septal leads are ? and are supplied by ?
V1-4
| LAD
190
Inferior leads include ? and are supplied by ?
II III aVF
| RCA more commonly than by LCx
191
Lateral leads include ? and are supplied by ?
I aVL V5-6
| LCs
192
What biomarker is the first to arrive during an MI?
What use does CK-MB have for MIs?
Myoglobin
Reinfarction Dx
193
What are the triad ECG indications of pericarditis?
PR elevation in aVR- Thumb print sign
PR depression
Concave ST elevation
194
What leads are investigated for suspected Dressler's Syndrome?
How is it managed?
PR depressions
PR elevation in aVR
Diffuse ST concaved elevation
Colchicine, steroid, NSAID
195
How does cardiac tamponade present on ECG?
Low voltage QRS
Electrical alterans
Diastolic collapse of right ventricle
