embryology Flashcards

(72 cards)

1
Q

sonic hedgehog gene

A

made in base of limbs in the zone of polarizing activity —anterior/posterior patterning; involved in CNS development

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2
Q

Wnt-7 gene

A

made at apical ectodermal ridge (distal end of growing limbs); for dorsal/ventral organization

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3
Q

FGF gene

A

made at apical ectodermal ridge; stimulates mitosis for limb lengthening

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4
Q

Hox (homeobox) genes

A

segmental organization of embryp in a craniocaudal fashion

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5
Q

hox mutation causes…

A

appendage in wrong place

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6
Q

10 weeks of early fetal development

A

day 0 - fertilization forms a zygote; embryogenesis initiated week 1 - hCG secretion and implantation of blastocyst week 2 - 2 wks = 2 layers –> bilaminar disc (epiblast and hypoblast) week 3 - 3 wks = 3 layers –> trilaminar disc; gastrulation; primitive streak, notochord, mesoderm, and neural plate begin to form weeks 3-8 - extremely susceptible to teratogens week 4 - heart begins to beat; limb buds begin to form (4wks = 4 limbs) week 6 - fetal cardiac activity visible by transvaginal ultrasound week 10 - sex specific genitalia

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7
Q

gastrulation

A

process that forms the trilaminar disc (ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm germ layers) starts with the epiblast invaginating to form the primitive streak

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8
Q

what forms the CNS? PNS?

A

cns = neuroectoderm pns = neural crest

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9
Q

mesodermal defects

A

VACTERL vertebral anal atresia cardiac trachea-esophageal fistula renal limb (bone and muscle)

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10
Q

what is derived from surface ectoderm?

A

eye lens, oral cavity linings, ear sensory organs and olfactory epithelium, anal canal below pectinate line, parotid/sweat/mammary glands

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11
Q

what is derived from the neuroectoderm?

A

CNS brain, retina, optic nerves, spinal cord

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12
Q

what is derived from neural crest?

A

pns dorsal root ganglia, schwann cells, melanocytes, bones of skull, odontoblasts, aorticopulmonary septum, chromaffin and parafollicular cells

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13
Q

what is derived from the mesoderm?

A

muscle, bone, CT, serous linings of cavties (peritoneum), spleen, CV structures, lymphatics, blood, wall of gut tube, vagina, kidneys, dermis, testes, ovaries,

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14
Q

endoderm forms the…

A

gut tube epithelium, anal canal above pectinate line, urethra and luminal epithelium derivatives (lungs, liver, gallbladder, Eustachian tube, thymus, etc)

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15
Q

agenesis

A

absent organ due to absent primordial tissue

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16
Q

aplasia

A

absent organ despite present primordial tissue

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17
Q

hypoplasia

A

incomplete organ development

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18
Q

disruption

A

secondary breakdown of a previously normal structure

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19
Q

malformation vs deformation

A

M = intrinsic disruption; during the embryonic period (wks 3 - 8) D = extrinsic disruption; after the embryonic period

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20
Q

sequence error

A

abnormalities result from a single embryological event ex: oligohydramnios –> potter sequence

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21
Q

when is embryo most susceptible to teratogens?

A

weeks 3-8 (embryonic period) during organogenesis before week 3 –> all or none effect after week 8 –> growth and function affected

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22
Q

fetal alcohol syndrome

A

mothers consume a lot of alcohol during pregnancy –> increased risk for congenital malformations —intellectual disability, retardation, microcephaly, holopresencephaly, facial abnormalities, limb dislocation, and heart defects

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23
Q

dizygotic twins

A

arises from 2 eggs that are separately fertilized by 2 different sperm (always 2 zygotes) –2 different amniotic sacs and 2 separate placentas (chorions)

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24
Q

monozygotic twins

A

from 1 fertilized egg (1 egg + 1 sperm) that splits into 2 zygotes in early pregnancy

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25
what determines degree of separation of monozygotic twins?
depends on when the fertilized egg splits into 2 zygotes --timing determines the number of chorions and amnions
26
amnion vs chorion
Amnion is the inner layer that surrounds the amniotic cavity while chorion is the outer layer that covers amnion, yolk sac and the allantois amnion does not contain any vessels or nerves
27
early separation of monozygotic twins? middle latest separation of monozygotic twins?
before morula (0-4 days) --\> dichorionic diamniotic after morula, before blastocyst (4-8 days) --\> monochorionic diamniotic after blastocyst stage (8+ days) --\> monochorionic monoamniotic
28
where are nutrient and gas exchanged between mother and fetus?
placenta
29
three components forming the placenta?
cytotrophoblast, syncytiotrophoblast, and decidua basalis
30
cytotrophoblast
inner layer of chorionic villi of placenta (fetal component)
31
syncytiotrophoblast
outer layer of chorionic villi; secretes hCG; fetal component of placenta
32
hCG stimulates what?
stimulates the corpus luteum to secrete progesterone during first trimester
33
decidua basalis
derived from the endometrium; maternal blood in lacunae; layer on outside of placenta where maternal veins and arteries pass through into placenta
34
35
umbilical cord contains...
2 unbilical arteries, 1 umbilical vein, allantoic duct, wharton jelly, and amniotic epithelium
36
what do umbilical arteries do?
returns deoxy blood from fetal internal iliac arteries to placenta
37
what does umbilical vein do?
supplies oxy blood from placenta to fetus; drains IVC via liver or ductus venosus
38
what are umbilical arteries and veins derived from?
the allantois
39
allantois
made from yolk sac in 3rd week, and becomes the urachus
40
urachus
formed from the allantois the urachus is a duct between fetal bladder and yolk sac
41
failure of urachus to obliterate can result in three conditions--\>
1 - patent urachus (urine comes out umbilicus) 2 - urachal cyst (fluid filled cavity between umbilicus and bladder, can cause infection or adenocarcinoma) 3 - vesicourachal diverticulum (bladder outpouching)
42
vitelline duct
connects yolk sac to midgut lumen obliterates in week 7
43
failure of vitelline duct to obliterate can cause these 2 conditions...
vitelline fistula - meconium comes out the umbilicus meckel diverticulum -- partial closue, with patent portion attached to ileum (TRUE diverticulum)
44
1st-6th branchial arches
1 = Ms to CHEW (meckel cartilage, mandible, malleus, mandibular ligament, muscles of mastication, massetter, medial pterygoid, mylohyoid) --- CNV2 and V3 2 = S/SMILE (stapes, styloid process, stylohyoid ligament, muscles of facial expression, stapedius, stylohyoid, platySma) ---CN7 3 = SWALLOW STYLishly/CN9 ( stylopharyngeus/glossopharyngeal nerve) 4= CNX superior laryngeal (swallow) - cricothyriod, pharyngeal constrictors, levator veli palatini 6 = CNX recurrent laryngeal branch (talk) - intrinsic muscles of larynx
45
treacher collins syndrome
1st arch neural crest fails to migrate --\> mandibular hypoplasia, facial abnormalities
46
congenital pharyngocutaneous fistula
persistence of cleft and pouch --\> fistula between tonsillar area and lateral neck (2nd arch abnormality)
47
digeorge syndrome
aberrant development of 3rd and 4th pouches --\> T cell deficiency (thymic aplasia) and hypocalcemia (failure of parathyroid development) associated with cardiac defects (conotruncal abnormalities)
48
MEN 2a
mutation of RET (neural crest cells) that causes: pheochromocytoma (adrenal medulla) parathyroid tumor (3/4 pharyngeal pouch) parafollicular cells/medullary thyroid cancer (4/5 pharyngeal pouches)
49
cleft lip
failure of fusion of the maxillary and medial nasal processes (formation of the primary palate)
50
cleft palate
failure of fusion of the two lateral palatine processes or failure of fusion of lateral palatine processes with the nasal septum and or median palatine process (formation of the secondary palate)
51
cleft lip and cleft palate.....
often occur together but have different etiologies
52
default genital development
is the female form --mesonephric duct degenerates and paramesonephric duct develops
53
male genital development
SRY gene on ch. Y produces testis-determining factor --\> testes development Sertoli cells secrete Mullerian inhibitory factor (MIF) that suppresses development of paramesonephric ducts Leydig cells secrete androgens that stimulate the development of the mesonephric ducts
54
mullerian duct
aka the paramesonephric duct default; develops into female structures --\> fallopian tubes, uterus, and upper vagina
55
mullerian duct abnormalities results in...
presents as primary amenorrhea in females with fully developed secondary sex characteristics (indicates functional ovaries)
56
wolfian duct
aka the mesonephric duct develops into male internal structures (except prostate) --\> Seminal vesicales, Epididymis, Ejaculatory duct, and Ductus deferens (SEED)
57
bicornuate uterus
results from incomplete fusion of the paramesonephric ducts can cause anatomical defects --\> recurrent miscarriages
58
complete failure of paramesonephric ducts fusion causes --? incomplete fusion...?
complete failure --\> double uterus and vagina incomplete failure --\> bicornuate uterus
59
where do you find sertoli and leydig cells?
testes
60
what produces testis determining factor (TDF)?
SRY gene on Y ch.
61
sertoli cells produce? leydig cells produce?
Sertoli --\> MIF (mullerian inhibitory factor) leydig --\> testosterone
62
MIF causes...
degeneration of the paramesonephric duct (so no female genitalia)
63
if there are not sertoli cells or MIF --\>
develop both male and female internal genitalia and male external genitalia
64
5alpha reductase deficiency
inability to convert testosterone to DHT --\> has male internal genitalia, ambiguous external genitalia until puberty (when increased testosterone causes masculinization)
65
gubernaculum 1) male remnant 2) female remnant
1 - anchors testes within scrotum 2 - ovarian ligament + round ligament of uterus
66
processus vaginalis 1) male remnant? 2) female remnant?
1 - forms tunica vaginalis 2 - obliterated
67
hypospadias vs epispadias
H - abnormal opening of urethra on INFERIOR/VENTRAL side of penis due to failure of urethral folds to close E - abnormal opening of urethra on SUPERIOR/DORSAL side of penis due to faulty positioning of genital tubercle; associated with exstrophy of bladder ( Epispadias hits your EYE when you pEE)
68
genital tubercle becomes what... 1) with DHT (dihydrotestosterone) 2) with estrogen
1) glans penis, corpus cavernosum, and songiosum 2) glans clitoris and vestibular bulbs
69
urogenital sinus becomes what... 1) with DHT (dihydrotestosterone) 2) with estrogen
1 - bulbourethral glands and prostate gland 2 - greater vestibular glands of bartholin and urethral and paraurethral glands of skene
70
urogenital folds becomes what... 1) with DHT (dihydrotestosterone) 2) with estrogen
1 - ventral shaft of penis (penile urethra) 2 - labia minora
71
labioscrotal swelling becomes what... 1) with DHT (dihydrotestosterone) 2) with estrogen
1 - scrotum 2 - labia majora
72