Emergency and Critical Care Nursing (Large Animal) Flashcards
(117 cards)
1
Q
any condition that causes abdominal pain
A
Colic
2
Q
Most common emergency in equine medicine
A
Colic
3
Q
cramping of the GI tract
A
Spasmodic Colic
4
Q
What 7 “supply packs” are needed for a colic workup?
A
- NG intubation
- Standard blood work
- Sedation
- IV catheterization
- Ultrasonography
- Rectal exam
- Abdominocentesis
5
Q
NG intubation for a colic work up requires the VT to collect what materials?
A
- NG tube
- 2+ buckets
- pump
- towels
- elastic/nonelastic adhesive tape
- 3mL syringe case
6
Q
Standard bloodwork for a colic workup requires the VT to collect what materials?
A
- 20 gauge needle
- 12mL syringe
- EDTA (purple-top)
- Red-top
- Blue-top tubes
7
Q
Sedation for a colic workup requires the VT to collect what drugs?
A
- Xylazine
- detomidine
- butorphanol
- romifidine
- acepromazine
8
Q
IV catheterization for a colic workup requires the VT to collect what materials?
A
- 14 gauge x 5 1/4” cath or smaller
- short extension + injection port
- suture
- normal saline flush
- clippers
- chlorhexidine or iodine scrub
- 3mL mepivacaine
- exam gloves
- sterile gloves
9
Q
Ultrasonography for a colic workup requires the VT to collect what materials?
A
- Ultrasound machine
- 70% isopropyl alcohol
- ultrasound gel
- clippers
10
Q
A rectal exam for a colic workup requires the VT to collect what materials?
A
- Palpation sleeve
- water-soluble lube
- towels
- hyoscine butylbromide
- lidocaine in a syringe with a long extension tubing connected
11
Q
Abdominocentesis for a colic workup requires the VT to collect what materials?
A
- Clippers
- chlorhexidine or iodine scrub
- 3mL mepivacaine
- exam gloves
- sterile gloves
- 18 gauge x 1.5” needles
- teat cannula
- metal bitch catheter
- Tuohy needle
- sterile 4x4 gauge sponges
- # 15 scalpel blade
- purple-top tube with EDTA shaken out
- red-top tube
12
Q
curling back the upper lip to expose the front teeth and gums
A
Flehmen Response
13
Q
Pain Level Assessment:
- Pawing
- Stretching out - with or without urination attempts
- Flehmen Response
- Standing quietly + no desire to move or eat
A
Mild Pain
14
Q
Pain Level Assessment:
- Elevated HR
- Repeated attempts to lie down + stand up
- Comfortable for short periods (<1 hr) or not at all (Even with sedation)
A
Moderate
15
Q
Pain Level Assessment:
- Violent attempt to throw itself on the ground
- Inability to stand for short periods
- Constant rolling while recumbent
- Banging side of head on the ground
A
Severe
16
Q
Signs of severe pain before vet staff arrival includes what?
A
Abrasions on head, face, eyes, bony parts of the body and lots of dirt, hay, mud in the coat
17
Q
Abdominal auscultation is recorded in the record by:
1.
2.
A
- Abdominal quadrants - upper right, upper left, lower right, lower left
- Intensity of sounds - absent, decreased, normal, increased
18
Q
Gas/fluid reflux via an NG tube indicates inability to pass gas/fluid in the oral-to-aboral direction. What may cause this? Give 2
A
- Ileus
- Mechanical obstruction
19
Q
the excess fluid that is removed via an NG tube in a colic patient
A
Gastric reflux
20
Q
Total Reflux Obtained - Total Amount of Water Introduced
A
Net Reflux Amount
21
Q
a nosebleed
A
Epistaxis
22
Q
What is common after NG tube removal or passage?
A
Epistaxis
23
Q
stones within the GI tract
A
Enteroliths
24
Q
a high-pitched loud noise upon inspiration that is typically caused by an upper respiratory obstruction
A
Inspiratory Stridor
25
Most respiratory emergencies are caused by but not limited to:
1.
2.
3.
1. Oxygen inability to diffuse across alveoli due to lung disease
2. Lungs inability to expand enough to take in sufficient oxygen
3. Oxygen inability to reach the lungs
26
Oxygen's inability to diffuse across alveoli due to lung disease is most commonly due to ____
pneumonia
27
The lungs inability to expand enough to take in sufficient oxygen is most commonly due to ___
pneumothorax
28
Oxygen's inability to reach the lungs is most commonly due to ___
upper airway obstruction or bronchoconstriction
29
Upper airway emergencies are commonly caused by ____
obstruction of airflow to lungs
30
Lower airway emergencies are commonly caused by ____ and ____
lung disease and failure to inflate lungs
31
a high-pitched loud noise upon expiration that is typically caused by an upper respiratory obstruction
Expiratory Stridor
32
Why should you always evaluate both lungs when auscultating for a possible pneumothorax in horses?
It can be bilateral or unilateral
33
Abnormal lung sounds like crackles and wheezes are characteristics of ____
pneumonia
34
Severe distress, anxiety, and inspiratory stridor are signs of a(n) ______ airway emergency
Upper
35
Lung disease (pneumonia or asthma) and failure to inflate lungs (pneumothorax) are signs of a(n) ______ airway emergency
Lower
36
If performing an equine chest tap to remove fluid, aseptically prepare (dorsally/ventrally) between the ____ and ____ ribs.
ventrally between 12th and 15th ribs
37
If performing an equine chest tap to remove air, aseptically prepare (dorsally/ventrally) between the ____ and ____ ribs.
dorsally between 12th and 15th ribs
38
If PaO2 is less than ____ mmHg > need oxygen supplementation
If PaO2 is less than ____ mmHg > urgent oxygen
100 mmHg > need oxygen supplementation
60 mmHg > urgent oxygen
39
Attach a _____ to oxygen delivery tubing when administering oxygen to horses
bubble humidifier
40
Nasal cannulas for horses are measured from _____ to _____
opening of the nares to the medial canthus of the eye
41
Most common location for equine tracheotomy is on the ____ midline of the neck between the _____ and ____ thirds of the trachea
ventral midline between cranial and middle thirds of the trachea
42
a commercially available splint used to stabilize equine distal forelimbs
Kimzey Leg Saver
43
What kind of splint is this?
Kimzey Leg Saver
44
a nonviable segment of bone that acts as a foreign body and frequently prevents full wound healing until it is removed
Sequestrum
45
Common equine musculoskeletal emergencies include
1.
2.
3.
4.
1. Fractures
2. Lacerations
3. Infections
4. Luxations
46
Inject ___-___ mL of _______ or _______ at the procedure site when prepping a horse for a tracheotomy (if time permits)
10-20 mL lidocaine or mepivacaine
47
Oxygen is administered at a rate of ____ L/min in foals/mini horses and at least ____ L/min in adult horses
Foals/Mini Horses > 5 L/min
Adults > at least 15 L/min
48
hyperresonate sounds produced by percussion of the lateral abdominal wall in large animals that represent gas pockets within the viscera and can be a sign of displaced abdominal viscera
Pings
49
Why should you always follow hypertonic saline with additional IV or oral fluids?
Avoids hypernatremia
50
twisting of the intestine or other gastric structure that can cause life threatening intestinal obstruction
Volvulus
51
Abdominal surgery in cattle is performed at the (right/left) paralumbar fossa
right
52
The VT should prepare the following equipment for abdominal surgery in food animals:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
1. Large Drape
2. Towel clamps -x10
3. Hemostats - Kelley x10, mosquito x5
4. Scalpel
5. Mayo scissors
6. 4x4 gauze sponges
7. Basin with warmed isotonic saline
8. Sterile palpation sleeves
9. Suture + needles
10. Suction + decompression set
53
a non-obstructive GI problem that can result in profound dehydration, low protein, and hypovolemic shock within hours of onset
Diarrhea
54
Diarrhea is common in what 3 species?
Sheep, goats, camelids
55
a condition in which that is an inability to expel the excessive gas accumulates within the rumen
Ruminal Tympany
56
Ruminal Tympany is also known as ____
bloat
57
a condition in which a foam-like substance forms within the rumen that cannot be expelled like normal gas
Frothy Bloat
58
a condition in which a physical blockage or decrease in rumen motility prevents eructation
Free Gas Bloat
59
burping
Eructation
60
_____ bloat must be treated with medication
Frothy
61
a medication used to treat frothy bloat by breaking the surface tension of the foam in the rumen
Poloxalene
62
the surgical and permanent decompression of the rumen achieved by creating a permanent hole in the rumen
Rumenostomy
63
Rumenostomy in cattle is performed at the (right/left) paralumbar fossa
left
64
a device inserted through the left flank into the rumen to relieve severe bloat in cattle (emergency only)
Rumen Trocar
65
Rumen Trocar
66
a large-bore esophageal tube that can be used for removal of solid ingesta, liquid, and gas from the rumen
Kingman Tube
67
Kingman Tube
68
an esophageal obstruction usually caused by swallowing a foreign body
Choke
69
Normal rumen pH = ____
7
70
Rumen pH of high grain diets = ____
5.5
71
Methylene Blue Reduction Test:
Healthy rumen flora returns to normal color in ___ min
5 min
72
PROCEDURE - Ruminal Fluid Methylene Blue Reduction Test
1. Fill 2 tubes with strained ruminal fluid
1. Just for color control
2. 9.5 mL for test
2. Add 0.5 mL of 0.03% methylene blue to tube #2
3. Methylene blue colors ruminal contents blue > watch how long it takes to return to normal color
**Healthy rumen flora > reduces methylene blue > colorless solution > ruminal fluid returns to normal color in 5 min
73
Microscopic exam of ruminal fluid is performed under ___ power
low power (x10)
74
Describe normal microscopic exam of ruminal fluid vs abnormal
Normal > Many different sized + active protozoa
Abnormal > Few + inactive protozoa
75
Why should microscopic exam of ruminal fluid be performed immediately?
Protozoa will be less active if rumen cools
76
the transfer of ruminal microbes from one individual to another to enhance rumen function by repopulating rumen microbes
Transfaunation
77
Rumen flora is (different/similar) across species. Thus, rumen from cattle (can/cannot) be used for goats.
similar / can
78
What part of the rumen is used for transfaunation? What is done with the other part?
ruminal fluid is used for transfaunation
fibrous portion discarded or placed back in donor
79
Rumen cannulated cow
80
How are food animals restrained for an emergency tracheostomy?
Cross-tied with 2 halters and head extended up
81
the collapse of pulmonary alveoli which leads to partial or total loss of function in the affected lung
Atelectasis
82
the collapse of pulmonary alveoli due to extended periods of laying down on the same side, which leads to partial or total loss of function in the down lung
Recumbency Atelectasis
83
animals that cannot stand
Down Animals (Downers)
84
Downers should be assisted to stand EXCEPT certain ______ and ______ situations
ortho and neuro
85
_____ is the best method for assisted standing in cattle long term
Hydrofloatation
86
Dog/wild animal attacks on goats, sheep, and camelids commonly occur around what 3 parts of the body?
1. Head
2. Neck
3. Extremities
87
difficult labor or delivery
Dystocia
88
VT plays a lead role in _____ during dystocia emergencies
fetal extraction
89
farm animal obstetric equipment is kept in a mobile ______
dystocia box
90
a winch that is used to apply traction on obstetric chains and is particularly helpful in extracting a large fetus
Calf-Jack
91
a procedure that involves the cutting up of a dead fetus into smaller parts that can be extracted more easily
Fetotomy
92
a device that uses obstetric wire to cut a dead fetus into smaller parts that can be extracted more easily
Fetatome
93
a device that clamps more forcefully as traction is applied and can be used to grab fetal parts when a fetotomy is performed
Krey Hook
94
a device that attached under the medial canthus of the eyes to help apply traction to the head of the calf
Eye Hook
95
a device used for making cuts in a fetus while protecting maternal tissues
Finger Knife
96
What are 2 risks of epidural anesthesia during farm animal deliveries?
1. Dam cannot assist with vaginal delivery
2. Too much can make her recumbent
97
when the fetus is presented front legs + head first
Anterior Presentation
98
when the fetus is presented back legs first
Posterior Presentation
99
when the fetus is presented butt first and the high legs are retained
Breech Presentation
100
What equipment must a VT prepare for a bovine C-section?
1. Surgery pack
2. Drapes
3. Sutures with needles
4. Obstetric chains
5. Sterile sleeves
6. Basin with sterile saline
101
a condition in which the gravid uterus twists in relation to the maternal pelvis and causes dystocia
Uterine Torsion
102
a uterus that contains a developing embryo or fetus
Gravid Uterus
103
a condition in which the uterus folds inside out through the cervix and the vulvar lips
Uterine Prolapse
104
Severe metritis and mastitis can become ______
endotoxemia
105
inflammation of the uterine muscle
Metritis
106
a condition in which there are endotoxins in the blood
Endotoxemia
107
harmful substances released when bacterial cells undergo lysis
Endotoxins
108
a condition in which there is a presence of urinary calculi or stones and causes urethral obstruction
Urolithiasis
109
Urolithiasis is most common in what gender and species of farm animals?
male sheep + goats
110
Urolithiasis is often caused by _____ diets because they contain _____ levels
high-grain diets contain high phosphorus levels
111
Why is acepromazine the preferred sedative for urolithiasis patients over xylazine?
Xylazine has diuretic properties
112
abnormally high levels of nitrogen in the blood
Azotemia
113
a small, curved extension of the urethra located at the distal end of the penis and is the most common place for calculi to lodge
Urethral Process
114
a process that involves creating an opening in the urethra proximal to the obstruction
Urethrotomy
115
the hole created in the urethra proximal to an obstruction in order to empty the bladder
Urethrostomy
116
the placement of a Foley catheter in the bladder to provide temporary diversion of urine while urinary stones are dissolved or passed
Tube Cystotomy
117
Feed patients _____ to dissolve ______ calculi in order to prevent reoccurring uroliths
ammonium chloride to dissolve phosphatic calculi
