Emerging, Re-emerging & Epidemic Prone Diseases Flashcards

(31 cards)

1
Q

What is the causative organism of measles?

A

Measles virus (genus Morbillivirus, family Paramyxoviridae).

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2
Q

Describe the chain of infection for measles.

A
  1. Reservoir: Infected humans.
  2. Transmission: Airborne droplets from coughing/sneezing.
  3. Portal of Entry: Respiratory tract (nose/throat).
  4. Susceptible Host: Unvaccinated individuals or those without prior immunity.
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3
Q

What are the key symptoms of measles?

A

High fever, runny nose, cough, red/watery eyes, Koplik’s spots (white mouth lesions), followed by a facial rash spreading to the body.

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4
Q

How is measles treated?

A
  • Supportive care (rest, hydration, acetaminophen).
  • Vitamin A supplementation for children in deficient areas.
  • Antibiotics for secondary bacterial infections (e.g., pneumonia).
  • Isolation to prevent spread.
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5
Q

What prevents measles outbreaks?

A
  • MMR vaccine (two-dose regimen).
  • Herd immunity (≥95% vaccination coverage).
  • Infection control (hand hygiene, respiratory etiquette).
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6
Q

What pathogen causes polio?

A

Poliovirus (types 1, 2, 3; genus Enterovirus, family Picornaviridae).

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7
Q

Outline the chain of infection for polio.

A
  1. Reservoir: Humans (virus shed in feces/oral secretions).
  2. Transmission: Fecal-oral route (contaminated water/food).
  3. Portal of Entry: Mouth/nose.
  4. Susceptible Host: Unvaccinated individuals, especially children.
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8
Q

What are the clinical forms of polio?

A
  • Subclinical: Asymptomatic but infectious.
  • Non-paralytic: Flu-like symptoms (fever, sore throat, muscle stiffness).
  • Paralytic: Limb paralysis, permanent disability, or death.
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9
Q

How is polio managed?

A
  • Supportive care: Pain relief, bed rest.
  • Rehabilitation: Physical therapy for paralysis.
  • Assistive devices: Braces, wheelchairs.
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10
Q

What strategies prevent polio transmission?

A
  • Vaccination: OPV (oral) and IPV (inactivated).
  • Supplementary Immunization Activities (SIAs): Mass campaigns in high-risk areas.
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11
Q

Which viruses cause avian influenza?

A

Influenza A viruses (H5N1, H7N9; highly pathogenic strains).

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12
Q

Describe the chain of infection for avian influenza

A
  1. Reservoir: Wild birds (e.g., waterfowl).
  2. Transmission: Direct contact with infected poultry or contaminated environments.
  3. Portal of Entry: Respiratory tract/mucous membranes.
  4. Susceptible Host: Poultry workers, unvaccinated populations.
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13
Q

What are the symptoms of severe avian influenza in humans?

A

Fever, cough, pneumonia, respiratory failure, and multi-organ dysfunction.

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14
Q

How is avian influenza treated?

A
  • Antivirals: Oseltamivir or zanamivir (early use).
  • Supportive care: Oxygen therapy, ICU support.
  • Isolation: To limit rare human-to-human transmission.
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15
Q

Name three prevention strategies for avian influenza.

A
  • Biosecurity: Restricted farm access, disinfection.
  • Poultry vaccination: Targeted for high-risk strains.
  • Surveillance: Early detection in birds/humans.
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16
Q

What causes Ebola?

A

Ebola virus (genus Ebolavirus, family Filoviridae; e.g., Zaire ebolavirus).

17
Q

Explain the chain of infection for Ebola.

A
  1. Reservoir: Fruit bats.
  2. Transmission: Contact with infected animal fluids; human-to-human via bodily fluids/contaminated objects.
  3. Portal of Entry: Mucous membranes/broken skin.
  4. Susceptible Host: Close contacts, healthcare workers.
18
Q

What are the severe symptoms of Ebola?

A

Sudden fever, vomiting, diarrhea, hemorrhage (internal/external bleeding), organ failure.

19
Q

How is Ebola treated?

A
  • Supportive care: IV fluids, electrolyte balance.
  • Experimental therapies: Monoclonal antibodies (e.g., REGN-EB3).
  • Isolation: Strict quarantine of cases.
20
Q

What prevents Ebola outbreaks?

A
  • Infection control: PPE use, disinfection.
  • Safe burials: Avoid contact with corpses.
  • Vaccines: rVSV-ZEBOV vaccine for high-risk groups.
21
Q

Define “emerging disease” and give two examples.

A

Newly identified or rapidly spreading diseases (e.g., Zika virus, SARS-CoV-2).

22
Q

rWhy do re-emerging diseases like tuberculosis resurge?

A

Drug resistance, breakdowns in public health systems, or reduced vaccination rates.

23
Q

What makes a disease “epidemic-prone”?

A

High transmissibility, low population immunity, and environmental suitability (e.g., cholera in flood-prone areas).

24
Q

List three global strategies to control epidemic-prone diseases.

A
  1. Strengthen surveillance and rapid response.
  2. Mass vaccination campaigns.
  3. Public education on hygiene and outbreak reporting.
25
What vaccination strategy prevents measles?
The **MMR vaccine** (measles-mumps-rubella) given in two doses for lifelong immunity.
26
Why is herd immunity critical for measles prevention?
≥95% vaccination coverage protects vulnerable groups (e.g., infants, immunocompromised) who cannot be vaccinated
27
Name two polio vaccines and their key differences.
- **OPV (Oral Polio Vaccine)**: Live-attenuated, provides intestinal immunity. - **IPV (Inactivated Polio Vaccine)**: Injectable, no risk of vaccine-derived polio.
28
Why are supplementary immunization activities (SIAs) used in polio prevention?
To boost immunity in high-risk areas through mass vaccination campaigns.
29
Why is surveillance critical for avian influenza control?
Early detection in birds/humans allows rapid containment (e.g., culling flocks, isolating cases).
30
What experimental treatment has shown efficacy against Ebola?
Monoclonal antibodies (e.g., REGN-EB3, mAb114).
31
How do safe burial practices reduce Ebola transmission?
They minimize contact with highly infectious corpses during funeral rites.