Endocrinology Flashcards

(55 cards)

1
Q

Phaeochromocytoma - Definition and key facts

A

Catecholamine secreting tumour (typically in the adrenal medulla).

Most commonly occur in the 3rd-5th decade of life

  • 10% malignant
  • 10% bilateral

Can be familial (associated with MEN2a, MEN2b, NF1, VHL).

Paragangliomas are catecholamine producing tumours that originate from chromaffin cells (derived from the neural crest) in the autonomic ganglia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Phaeochromocytoma - signs, symptoms and Ix findings

A

Symptoms: episodic BP crises with paroxysmal (throbbing) headaches, diaphoresis, heart palpitations, anxiety, abdominal pain, nausea and pallor.

Signs: HTN,

Investigation Findings:

  • plasma catecholamines
  • raised urinary metanephrines (e.g. vanillylmandelic acid -> have higher diagnostic sensitivity than plasma catecholamines)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Phaeochromocytoma - Management

A
  1. alpha block (phenoxyenzamine - competitive irreversible antagonist of adrenaline)
  2. beta block (propranolo)
  3. surgical removal of the tumour/adrenal gland

You alpha block first to prevent hypertensive crisis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Blood supply of the adrenals

A

superior, middle and inferior adrenal artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Why are phaeochromocytomas dangerous and what life-threatening presentations can they cause?

A

can cause a dangerous surge of adrenaline

this can lead to:
- arrhythmias
- MI
- cerebral haemorrhage
- sudden death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What % of gynaecomastia is drug related?

A

25%

-> therefore always review the medication the patient is taking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is neonatal gynaecomastia?

A
  • due to placental transfer of maternal estrogens
  • sex independent, and spontaneously resolves within a few weeks or months
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Management of gynaecomasta

A
  • stop causative drugs
  • medication to fix hormone imbalance
  • surgery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which tests are useful in distinguishing between type 1 and type 2 diabetes?

A

C-peptide (low in type 1)
anti-GAD (glutamic acid decarboxylase) antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is type 3c diabetes?

What prescriptions do these patients need?

A

Can happen when the pancreas is damaged and stops producing enough insulin

can be as a result of: pancreatitis, pancreatic cancer, CF, haemochromatosis

patients present with lower GI sx (e.g. steatorrhoea, diarrhoea) and T1 diabetes sx (weight loss, can have hypoglycaemia) -> they have endocrine and exocrine dysfunction

they also don’t make glucagon so it needs to be prescribed.

  • insulin, glucagon, creon
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the general rule of thumb in prescribing insulin in T1 diabetes?

A

0.5 units / kg body weight
-> half should be long lasting, half should be the post meal doses

e.g. if someone weights 60 kg their total daily requirement is 30 U;
baseline long acting insulin: 15 U
5U with every meal (3 meals)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What acid base abnormality can be seen in Cushing’s syndrome?

A

hypokalaemia metabolic alkalosis

(increased potassium excretion; increased bicarbonate resorption in the tubules)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Sick day rules for adrenal hormone replacement

A

double the GC dose
keep normal MC dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How can sarcoidosis cause diabetes insipidus?

A

sarcoidosis can result in the formation of granulomas in the pituitary gland which can lead to neurogenic diabetes insipidus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the metabolic risks of acromegaly?

A

increased risk of
- diabetes
- HTN
- vascular disease (incl. cerebral aneurysms)
-> raised morbidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What causes acromegaly

A

benign pituitary adenoma causing excessive secretion of GH and IGF-1 (in adults; in children this would lead to gigantism, but in adults you don’t get linear growth because the epiphyses have fused)`

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Investigations in ?acromegaly

A

IGF-1 levels
OGTT with GH measurement
cranial MRI (pituitary)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Main cause of death in acromegaly

A

cardiovascular disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Pathophysiology of acromegaly

A

increased GH -> increased IGF-1 -> overstimulation of cell growth and proliferation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How can you measure GH to test for acromegaly?

A

Not random GH measurement! Pulsatile secretion, therefore a high measurement would not be helpful/diagnostic.
If ‘0’, it could exclude acromegaly

-> measure by doing OGTT; normally, this would suppress GH to zero. If there is no suppression or even an increase in GH, this suggests a somatotroph adenoma.
-> measure baseline GH and 2h GH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Management options for acromegaly

A

All patients should be discussed in the MDT

medical:
- dopamine agonists (some patients respond)
- somatostatin analogies (octreotide, lanreotide)
- GH antagonists (pegvisomant)

Surgery
- transsphenoidal adenomectomy

Radiotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the best single test for acromegaly?

A

Serum IGF-1 concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How do you test for acromegaly?

A
  1. serum IGF-1 -> if elevated to OGTT; if normal, acromeglay is ruled out
  2. OGTT with baseline and 2h GH -> if GH is suppressed, acromegaly is ruled out. If GH not suppressed: acromegaly confirmed, conduct pituitary MRI to determine the source of excess GH
  3. pituitary MRI
    adenoma -> confirmation of GH secreting adenoma

normal -> screen for an extra-pituitary cause

24
Q

waterhouse friedrichsen syndrome

A

acute primary insufficiency of the adrenal gland most commonly caused by adrenal haemorrhage (commonly associated iwht meningococcal meningitis; rarer causes include DIC, endotoxic shock and septicaemia due to other pathogens).

can be fatal

treat the underlying cause, parenteral fluid therapy and management of disorders of sodium balance

25
What is LADA?
latent onset diabetes of adulthood autoimmune diabetes autoimmune cell failure is slow (much slower than T1DM) - takes longer to become insulin dependent anti-GAD antibodies are present
26
What ranges are diagnostic diabetes?
HbA1c: >48 mmol/mol (but not for 1st diagnosis) Randon glucose: >11mmol/L Fasting glucose: >7mmol/L In patients that are asymptomatic, don't diagnose based on one reading. repeat it.
27
Management of diabetes
- refer to diabetes/endo for individualised care plan - provide advice and support e.g. Diabetes UK - provide advice on lifestyle measures - offer immunisations (influenza and pneumococcus) - HbA1c monitoring 3-6 monthly - eye/kidney/foot monitoring - monitoring medical management
28
Drugs for T1DM
Insulin education on self monitoring of glucose and optimal targets (devices such as FreeStyle Libre, insulin pump)
29
What diabetic medication is good in pts with heart disease?
SGLT2 inhibitors
30
T2Dm meds
1st line: metformin CVS/HF SGLT2i add info to this
30
Management of DKA
ADMIT IVF IV insulin + potassium replacement ix: urinalysis (ketones), blood gas shows acidosis (ketones high)
31
do DKA patients always need admission?
yes
32
management of HHS
delete
33
How is DKA and HHS different?
no ketones in HHS
34
learn ranges for Addison's
- Fluids! (IV sodium chloride) - VTE prophylaxis (hyperviscosity) - insulin should only be given in blood sugars stop falling while giving IV fluids.
35
steroid induced vs addisons
paradoxically appear cushingoid lack hyperpigmentation, high K+ and salt cravings preserved MR activity secretion in GC induced addisons
36
Which O/E findings can help distinguish between primary and secondary adrenal insufficiency?
hyperpigmentation is primary (POMC -> ACTH + alpha MSH)
37
Management of Addison's including doses, sick day rules
- Hydrocortisone (20-30mg/day in 2-3 divided doses with the majority taken in the first half of the day) - Fludrocortisone In intercurrent illness take double the dose of hydrocortisone Also need a steroid card (alert/info)
38
weight gain DDx
Cushing's syndrome / disease PCOS hypothyroidism malignancy
39
Causes of Cushing's
ACTH dependent: - Cushing's disease - - ectopic ACTH (SCLC) - 10% ACTH independent Pseudo insert
40
Ix for ?Cushing's
give 1mg dex at night if at 8 am you see cortisol spike -> Cushing's insert more info
41
IPSS
42
What is Nelson's syndrome?
- also known as 'post adrenalectomy syndrome' - rare - seen in pts post bilateral adrenalectoym - pts who have an undeteced pituitary adenoma -> adrenals removed -> no -ve feedback from cortisol on the hypothalamus -> ↑ CRH production → uncontrolled enlargement of preexisting but undetected ACTH-secreting pituitary adenoma → ↑ secretion of ACTH and MSH → sx - Symptoms: headache, bitemporal hemianopia (mass effect), cutaneous hyperpigmentation
43
Mx of hyperthyroidism
44
How do you differentiate Graves' vs other causes of thyrotoxicosis?
Eye signs: exophthalmos proptosis ophthalmoplegia might also get derm signs
45
complications of hyperthyroidism
AF (common) Congestive HF bone loss dermopathy
46
Schmidt's syndrome
Addison's + AI hypothyroidism + T1DM
47
What is the Zuckercandl organ?
Chromaffin body derived from the neural crest locaated at the bifurcaation of the aorta or the origin of the IMA also known as para-aortic body have the potential for deadly paragangliomas (surgical cause of HTN)
48
Management of hyperthyroidism in pregnancy according to TM
1st: Propylthiouracil (because there is a lower risk of congenital abnormalities, incl. facial malformations and VSD) 2nd and 3rd TM: carbimazole (due to lower risk of hepatotoxicity)
49
How do sulfonylureas work?
stimulate the release of insulin from the pancreas which can lower blood sugar levels (therefore they are associated with a risk of hypos - especially if the medication is not taken with food or if the patient is fasting)
50
What medication can you use in the management of primary hyperparathyroidism in patients that are not suitable for surgery?
cinacalcet (it is a calcimimetic - a drug that 'mimics' the action of calcium on tissue by allosteric activation of the calcium-sensing receptor)
51
Precipitating factors for HHS
intercurrent illnesss dementia sedative drugs
52
What is exposure keratopathy and in which endocrine condition can it occur in?
= damage to the cornea du to dryness can occur in thyroid eye disease (Grave's disease) due to the inability to close eyes
53
Summarise the features of the MEN disorders?
MEN I - Pituitary adenoma - Parathyroid hyperplasia - pancreas tumours MEN IIa - parathyroid hyperplasia - phaeochromocytoma - medullary thyroid carcinoma MEN IIb - phaeochromocytoma - medullary thyroid carcinoma - mucosal neuroma - marfanoid body habitus
54
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
= condition characterised by excessive levels of gastrin secondary to a gastrin-secreting tumour. The majority of these tumours are found in the first part of the duodenum, with the second most common location being the pancreas. - Around 30% of gastrinomas occur as part of MEN type I syndrome. Features - multiple gastroduodenal ulcers - diarrhoea - malabsorption