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notion 2 > ENT > Flashcards

ENT Flashcards

1
Q

how must septal haematoma be managed

A

must be drained

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2
Q

how long after injury should nasal fracture be suspected

A

5-7 days

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3
Q

digital manipulation of the nose should be done in less than how many weeks

A

3

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4
Q

epistaxis from nasal trauma is often what artery

A

anterior ethmoidal artery

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5
Q

what is fractured to cause CSF leak out of nose

A

cribiform plate

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6
Q

what presents as perisient clear rhinorrhoea and headache

A

CSF leak

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7
Q

management for CSF leak

A

often settle themselves only need repair if not settled within 10 days

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8
Q

why should you not give antibiotics initially in CSF leak

A

can mask meningitis

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9
Q

2 drugs that can cause nose bleeds

A

warfarin and aspirin

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10
Q

is hypertension a cause of epistaxis

A

no but can cause prolonged bleeding

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11
Q

what is treatment if there is an identifiable cause of anterior bleeding

A

silver nitrate cautery

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12
Q

what temporal bone fracture is more common

A

longitudinal (80%)

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13
Q

battle sign indicates

A

base of skull fracture

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14
Q

investigation for temporal bone fracture

A

CT

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15
Q

longitudinal fractures cause what kind of hearing loss

A

conductive

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16
Q

transverse fractures cause what kind of hearing loss

A

sensorineural

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17
Q

are maxilla fractures dangerous

A

yes potentially life threatening

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18
Q

what identifies tear drop suggesting a blow out fracture

A

CT

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19
Q

what classification for mid facial fractures

A

Le fort

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20
Q

what causes persistent allergic rhinitis

A

house dust , cat, dog

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21
Q

vasomotor rhinitis is caused by overdrive of what

A

parasympathetic

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22
Q

what treatment for vasomotor rhinitis

A

anticholinergics eg ipratropium

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23
Q

acute sinusitis lasts less than

A

12 weeks

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24
Q

sinusitis can spread from

A

dentition

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25
Q

in sinusitis when to prescribe steriod

A

10 days

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26
Q

severe cases of sinusitis causing bacterial infection. what antibiotic is first line

A

phenoxlymethylpenicilin

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27
Q

sinuses can spread to where

A

orbit

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28
Q

complication of sinusitis where infection spreads into superior saggital sinus and becomes very unwelll

A

thrombosis of retinal vein or cavernous sinus

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29
Q

are nasal polyps cancerous

A

no

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30
Q

nasal polyps are not common in who

A

children

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31
Q

nasal polyps if young consider

A

cf

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32
Q

what can cause blocked or runny nose and reduced sense of taste or smell

A

nasal polyps

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33
Q

how to treat nasal polyps

A

oral then topical steriods

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34
Q

saddle nose

A

GPA

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35
Q

what kind of hearing loss in GPA

A

sensorineural

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36
Q

management for most gpa

A

IV steriods and cyclophosphamide

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37
Q

what are the most common benign lesion of the nose

A

squamous cell papilloma

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38
Q

sinonasal papilloma can be

A

inverted, exophytic or oncocytic

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39
Q

what type of sinonasal papilloma occurs on the nasal septum

A

exophytic

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40
Q

what can present in children with hoarse voice and progressive SOB

A

recurrent respiratory papillomatosis

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41
Q

most common malignant tumour in the nose

A

SCC

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42
Q

what has a strong associated with EBV and volatile nitrosamines in food

A

nasopharyngeal carcinoma

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43
Q

epstein barr is seen in association with

A

burritos lymphoma, Hodgkins Lymphoma

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44
Q

is herpes simplex single or double stranded

A

double

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45
Q

herpes simplex virus 2 is mainly seen in

A

genital herpes

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46
Q

primary gingivostomatitis

A

fever, lymphadenopathy, vesicles and ulcers on lips, buccal mucosa, may take up to 3 weeks to recover

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47
Q

what is the hallmark for all herpes viruses

A

the ability of the viruses to establish latent infection that persist for the life of the individual

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48
Q

latent infection of herpes simplex is

A

herpes labialis - cold sore

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49
Q

recurrent intra oral lesions are rarely

A

herpes simplex

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50
Q

herpetic whitlow is infection of what

A

HSV

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51
Q

can acyclovir cure hsv infection

A

no can only help reduces the severity and frequency of symptoms

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52
Q

alongside papulovesicular lesions in herpangina what also occurs

A

high fever

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53
Q

hand foot and mouth is caused by what virus

A

cocksackie

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54
Q

what are recurring and painful ulcers of the mouth that are round or ovoid and have inflammatory halos

A

apthous ulcer

55
Q

apthos ulcer is most commonly due to what

A

immune dysfunction eg stress and is NON viral

56
Q

rf for candiassi

A

post antibiotics, inhaled steriods

57
Q

treatment for oral candiasis

A

nystatin or fluconazole

58
Q

symphillis bacterium

A

treponema pallidum

59
Q

painless ulcer

A

syphillsi

60
Q

recurrent oral ulcers, genital ulcers and uveitis

A

behcets disease

61
Q

recurrent what ulcers are frequently seen in coeliac and IBD

A

apthous

62
Q

reactive arthritis can cause what ulcers

A

painless

63
Q

what drugs can cause ulcers

A

NSAIDs, beta blockers

64
Q

painless lesion most comply found in the mucosa of the hard and soft palate

A

squamous cell papilloma

65
Q

squamous cell papilloma is related to hpv exposure

A

6 and 11

66
Q

what is the second most common benign salivary gland tumour - usually males over 50 - strong association with smoking and is often bilateral

A

warthins

67
Q

what is the most common malignant salivary gland tumour worldwide

A

mucoepidermoid carcinoma

68
Q

most common malignant salivary gland tumour in uk

A

adenoid cystic

69
Q

mumps can cause a salivary gland infection and is due to what virus

A

paramyxoma

70
Q

most common bacterial cause of pharyngitis or tonsillitis

A

strep pyogeens

71
Q

in pharyngitis/ tonsillitis what is not routinely carries out in primary care

A

swab

72
Q

if need to prescribe antiobiotics in tonsillitis what ones

A

penicillin

73
Q

hospital for tonsillitis and strep progenies infection need

A

isolation in first 48hrs

74
Q

lemierre syndrome is a complication of tonsillitis. what is it

A

thrombophlebitis of jugular vein

75
Q

late complication of strep pyogesns infection that occurs 1-3 weeks post sore throat

A

gloemrulonephritis

76
Q

late complication of strep pyogense infection that presents as fever, arthritis and pancarditis 3 weeks post

A

rheumatic fever

77
Q

treatment for quinsy

A

aspirate and antibitoics

78
Q

chronic tonsillitis if had for over

A

2 weeks

79
Q

what do you manage with dental mouthwash

A

chronic tonsiltits

80
Q

what do you manage with dental mouthwash

A

chronic tonsiltits

81
Q

DMARD with sore throat

A

neutropenia

82
Q

hepatosplenogmahly can be seen

A

glandular fever

83
Q

what shows atypical lymphocytes

A

glandular fever

84
Q

what is the most accurate test for glandular fever

A

EVB serology

85
Q

are antivirals given in glandular fever

A

nope

86
Q

what can be prescribed to prevent secondary infection for glandular fever

A

penicillin

87
Q

what cannot be prescribed in glandular fever as a macular rash will result

A

ampiccilim/ amoxicillin

88
Q

anaemia is a complication of

A

glandular fever

89
Q

difference between laryngeal nodules and polyps

A

nodules are bilateral whereas polyps are unilateral

90
Q

the examination of the oral cavity is normal in what

A

epiglottis

91
Q

risk of laryngeal spasm when examine the pharynx and larynx in what

A

epiglottis

92
Q

smoking causeing hoarse voice

A

reinkes oedema

93
Q

what is the most common cause of OSA in children

A

adenotonsillar hypertrophy

94
Q

where is the most common site for head and neck cancer

A

larynx

95
Q

most common tumour in the head and neck

A

squamous cell carcinoma

96
Q

cancer in head and neck that is in non smoker with multiple sexual partners

A

oropharyngeal carcinoma -associated with HPV

97
Q

what tumours present with voice/ airway obstruction

A

subglottic as tumours spread to paratracheal nodes

98
Q

dysphonia greater than how many week warrants urgent referral for laryngoscopy

A

3

99
Q

most common genetic cause of paragangliomas are mutations in what

A

succinate dehydrogenase

100
Q

gangliomas above the neck are usually

A

parasympathetic

101
Q

nest of round/ oval cells

A

paraganglioma

102
Q

when should you use a steriod without antibiotic

A

eczematous otitis external as antibiotics can cause local sensitivity

103
Q

what are the most common bacteria of acute Otitis media

A

h. influenza, step pneumonia and strep pyrogenes

104
Q

chronic otitis media organisms

A

pseudomonas, aureus, fungal

105
Q

when do you swab eardrum for otitis media

A

if eardrum perforates

106
Q

otitis media can cause what type of hearing loss

A

sensorineural

107
Q

mastoiditis most common organisms

A

strep pneumonia and h. influenza

108
Q

management for mastoiditis

A

IV antibiotic

109
Q

mastoiditis complication

A

meningitis

110
Q

most common cause of malignant otitis externa

A

pseudomonas

111
Q

malignant otitis externa complication

A

osteomyelitis

112
Q

most common cause of cholesteatoma

A

chronic otitis media or perforated tympanic membrane

113
Q

what is a key risk factor for cholesteatoma

A

history of frequent ear surgery

114
Q

is cholesteatoma discharge uni or bilateral

A

unilateral

115
Q

what is visible before onset of cholesteatoma

A

retraction visible

116
Q

altered tympanic membrane colour is a sign for

A

glue ear

117
Q

how doe perforated tympanic membrane present

A

sudden severe pain followed by bleeding from ear, hearing loss and tinnitus

118
Q

perforated tympanic membrane shows what kind of hearing loss

A

conductive

119
Q

what usually heals sponatenosuly

A

perforated tympanic membrane

120
Q

what is the onset of hearing loss in otosclerosis

A

gradual

121
Q

otosclerosis can be triggered or deteriorates more rapidly when

A

pregnancy

122
Q

charts notch at 2k

A

otosclerosis

123
Q

in presbysusis what frequencies of sound are affected most

A

higher

124
Q

dip at 4k

A

noise induced hearing loss

125
Q

gentamicin, chemo drugs and (aspirin and NSAIDs in overdose) can cause what

A

drug induced hearing loss

126
Q

what presents as progressive sensorineural unilateral hearing loss and tinnitus

A

vebstivualr schwannoma

127
Q

investigation for vestibular schwannoma

A

MRI

128
Q

most common cause of vertigo on looking up

A

BPPV

129
Q

labyrinths is associated with what

A

hearing loss

130
Q

first attack usually has N+V lasting several hours

A

vestibular neuritis and labrynthitis

131
Q

25 of migraine sufferer have attacks of

A

vertigo

132
Q

verterbrobasilar insuffiecny is narrowing of what arteries

A

posterior most commonly due to arteriosclerosis

133
Q

vertebrobasilar insuffiecncy also causes vertigo on looking up but for diagnosis need other sympotksm of impaired circulation in posterior brain eg

A

visual disturbance, weakness, numbness

notion 2 (9 decks)

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