ENT Flashcards

(54 cards)

1
Q

4) Tuning Fork Tests-512 Hz
a) (hold tuning for on top of head)
i) Midline (Normal)
ii) Lateralizes to CHL or to better ear
iii) Will not lateralize more than 30 decibles

A

Weber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

4) Tuning Fork Tests-512 Hz
i) AC >BC (Normal)
ii) BC>AC (CHL)
iii) Hold it out by ear, then place on mastoid process

A

Rinne

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

a) Stimulus in the ear

b) Receive electrical impulse via brain wave scan

A

9) Auditory Brainstem Response ABR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

a) Outer Hair Cells emit low intensity sound following acoustic stimulation
b) Newborn Screening Test
c) Testing for kids

A

8) Otoacoustic Emission Testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

a) Autosomal Dominant incomplete penetrance
b) 60 % have family Hx
c) Fluoride prevents
d) Rx: hearing aids or Stapedectomy

A

12) Otosclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

a) Head Trauma
b) SSx: Headache, vertigo, SNHL, CHL, facial nerve paralysis, CSF leak via ear canal or nose
c) Rx: Neurosurgical unit observation, sx relief, lumbar drain, audio, possible ossicular reconstruction

A

14) Temporal Bone Fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

a) Asymmetric SNHL
b) Vertigo
c) Facial nerve paralysis
d) Aural Fullness
e) Trigeminal numbness
f) Diplopia
g) Dx: MRI of IACs with contrast
h) Rx: OBS vs SURG vs XRT

A

15) Acoustic Neuroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

illusion of movement (ie rocking, rotary, ground rolling, since of falling forward/backward), commonly episodic

A

a) Vertigo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

sense of poor coordination with erect posture or movement, usually continuous

A

b) Dysequilibrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

implies orthopedic or neuro problem

A

c) Imbalance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

all-encompassing term (ie light-headed, orthostatic, hypoglycemic, inability to concentrate)

A

d) Dizziness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

a) Most common peripheral vertigo
b) Cause: post trauma, post viral infection
c) SSx: recurrent brief positional vertigo, latency, fatigability
d) Dx: Hx, Dix-Hallpike
e) Ppys: canalithiasis
f) Normal Hearing

A

20) Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

a) Symptoms
i) Fluctuating SNHL
ii) Tinnitus
iii) Episodic Vertigo (min-hr)
iv) Aural fullness
v) 25-30% bilateral
vi) Progressive
vii) Often totally asymptomatic between spells
b) Management
i) R/o stroke and tumor, infection, trauma, hypothyroid
ii) Salt restriction
iii) Evenly spaced meals H2O
iv) Diuretics
v) Steroids
vi) Vestibular suppressants: meclizine, benzos, scopolamine
vii) Allergy Rx
viii) Surgery

A

21) Meniere’s Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

a) Viral infection of the vestibular nerve
b) SSx: Vertigo lasts hours to days, No Hearing Loss
c) Prodromal viral URI
d) May last weeks to months
e) Rx: Meclizine, benzos, antiemetics

A

22) Vestibular Neuronitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

a) SSx: Sudden hearing loss and vertigo, tinnitis
b) Infection spreads from middle ear thru round window or oval window
c) Dx: H & P, audiogram (SNHL)
d) Rx: IV antibiotics, vestibular suppressants, surgical management of middle ear infection, steroids

A

23) Labyrinthitis Viral or Bacterial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

a) Birth Trauma
b) Mobious Syndrome
c) Herpes Infection
d) Tumors
e) Stroke
f) Iatrogenic Injury
g) Neurologic Disease: Guillain-Barre, Myesthenia Gravis

A

24) Facial Nerve Paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

no external ear development

i) 10% are Syndromic
ii) 30% are bilateral
iii) Associated with ear canal atresia and middle ear abnormalities
iv) Reconstruction or prosthesis
v) Bone Anchored Hearing Aid

A

a) Anotia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

i) Ear is slightly smaller than normal
ii) Conchal bowl is cupped
iii) All subunits are present
iv) Surgery usually not needed

A

b) Microtia Grade I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

i) Auricle is half sized
ii) All structures are present
iii) Soft tissues are deficient
iv) Surgery is sometimes beneficial

A

c) Microtia Grade II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

i) Small cartilage piece in superior remnant
ii) Anterior deflected lobule
iii) Surgical repair at age 5-6 years old
iv) Prostheses look pretty good

A

d) Microtia Grade III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

i) Most common external anomaly
ii) Absence of the antihelical fold
iii) Common in certain Royal lineages
iv) Causes grade school ridicule and low self esteem
v) Surgery offered

A

e) Lop Ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

i) Frequently get infected
ii) Rx with antibiotics and incision and drainage
iii) Completely excise when infection has cleared
iv) Frequently bilateral
v) May affect any part of the auricle

A

f) Preauricular Pits and Fistulas

23
Q

i) Arrested development of fusion of the Hillocks of His
ii) Contains cartilage and skin
iii) Excision is elective
iv) Facial nerve is quite superficial in infants and toddlers

A

g) Auricular Appendages

24
Q

i) Autoimmune
ii) Looks really red
iii) Episodic & progressive
iv) May involve nose, joints, airway, heart valves
v) ESR and IGg elevation
vi) Rx: steroids and NSAIDS

A

e) RELAPSING POLYCHONDRITIS

25
i) ∙Very painful ii) ∙Usually in older patients iii) ∙Looks like skin cancer iv) ∙Benign v) ∙Rx: Excisional biopsy
f) NODULARIS CHRONICUS HELICUS
26
i) AVOID PIERCING IN KELOID PRONE PATIENTS ii) EARLY RX STEROIDS iii) LATE RX EXCISION
g) KELOIDS OF THE EAR
27
i) CAUSED BY TRAUMA ii) TREAT WITH INCISION AND DRAINAGE THEN A BOLSTER iii) UNTREATED RESULTS IN CAULIFLOWER EAR
h) AURICULAR HEMATOMA
28
i) SYMPTOMS INCLUDE PAIN, SWELLING, REDNESS, FEVER ii) ORGANISMS: STAPH, STREP, PSEUDOMONAS iii) RX ANTIBIOTICS AND PAIN RELIEF iv) RISK FACTORS DIABETES, FOREIGN BODIES, PIERCINGS, TRAUMA
i) CELLULITIS OF THE PINNA
29
i) BENIGN PROJECTIONS IN CANAL ii) SEEN IN NORWEGIANS iii) MOST PEOPLE THAT HAVE THEM HAD SIG COLD WATER EXPOSURE iv) SURGICAL REMOVAL IS RARELY INDICATED v) LOOKS LIKE CHOLESTEATOMA
g) EAR CANAL OSTEOMAS & EXOSTOSIS
30
i) PAINFUL, BLEEDING SOFT TISSUE MASS IN CANAL ii) NEEDS BIOPSY iii) NEEDS EXCISION AND OR RADIATION THERAPY iv) CAN METASTASIZE v) CAN BE FATAL
h) CARCINOMA OF EAR CANAL
31
i) VERY PAINFUL RED SWOLLEN CANAL WITH PURULENCE ii) SEEN IN SWIMMERS, Q TIP USERS, DIABETICS, IMMUNOSUPRESSION iii) RX ANTIBIOTIC DROPS AND SYSTEMIC ANTIBX iv) TOPICAL SUCTIONING AND DEBRIDEMENT v) PSEUDOMONAS, E COLI, STAPH CORYNEBACTER vi) HEARING MAY BE AFFECTED
i) OTITIS EXTERNA
32
i) PURULENT ULCERS IN AND AROUND EAR ii) DECREASED HEARING iii) SEVERE PAIN iv) FACIAL NERVE PARALYSIS v) ANTIVIRAL RX AND PAIN RELIEF vi) IMMUNOCOMPROMISE MAJOR RISK FACTOR
j) HERPES ZOSTER OTICUS
33
i) Hx pain, hearing loss, vertigo, trauma, Rx Hx, previous ear surgery, recent infection ii) DDx Otitis media, otitis externa, allergy, trauma, CSF leak iii) Dx culture, GM stain, beta 2 transferrin for csf
k) OTORRHEA ( Ear Drainage)
34
i) Red itchy flakey skin ii) Psoriasis of other areas iii) Rx Topical Steroids, avoid trauma, antibiotics for secondary infection
l) Psoriasis of External Ear Canal
35
i) CAN BE CONGENITAL OR SECONDARY TO TRAUMA OR INFECTION ii) NEEDS CANALPLASTY TO ENLARGE CANAL iii) SMALL AMT WAX PLUGS EAR EASILY
m) EAR CANAL STENOSIS
36
i) ITCHING PAINFUL EAR DRAINAGE DECREASED HEARING ii) COMPLICATION OF PRIOR ANTIBACTERIAL RX iii) ANTIFUNGAL DROPS PILLS PAIN RELIEF iv) DEBRIDEMENT v) ALCOHOL, VINEGAR, H2O
n) OTOMYCOSIS
37
i) Pathophysiolgy: Otitis media, trauma, slag burns, indwelling PE tubes, explosion, diving, water skiing, cerumenectomy, barotrauma, cholesteatoma ii) SSx Hearing loss, otorrhea, tinnitis iii) Rx Keep ear dry consider tympanoplasty for persistent perf iv) NOT All PERFS NEED REPAIR v) Often heal with time vi) Tympanoplasty for large conductive hearing loss or to protect middle and inner ear from water and prevent middle ear infection
a) Tympanic Membrane Perforation
38
i) INFLAMED TM WITH SEROUS BULLAE ii) ASSOC W VIRUS or MYCOPLASMA p URI iii) SSx otalgia, otorrhea hearing loss iv) Rx analgesia, antibiotics decompression of painful vesicles, and steroids for sensorineural hearing loss
b) BULLOUS MYRINGITIS
39
i) White plaques on TM ii) Hyalin or Calcium deposition iii) PPx prior Otitis Media or Trauma (PE Tubes) iv) Normal hearing if limited to the TM v) If middle ear involved there may be conductive hearing loss
c) TYMPANOSCLEROSIS
40
i) SOFT BALL OF KERATIN ii) INVOLVES SKIN iii) CAUSES BONE EROSION iv) SURGERY IS ALMOST ALWAYS INDICATED TO EXCISE TO PREVENT DESTRUCTION OF EAR
d) CHOLESTEATOMA
41
i) Squamous epithelium in middle ear ii) Causes bone and soft tissue destruction of ear structures pressure necrosis, secondary infection and proteolytic enzyme release by cholesteatoma. iii) Dx pearly mass aural fullness, hearing loss, vertigo, chronic otorrhea iv) Rx surgical removal = tympanomastoidectomy
e) MIDDLE EAR CHOLESTEATOMA
42
i) Acute middle ear space infection (
f) ACUTE OTITIS MEDIA
43
i) Fluid in ear ii) Not treated with anything iii) May need tubes
g) SEROUS OTITIS MEDIA
44
h) RISK FACTORS FOR OTITIS MEDIA
i) DAY CARE ATTENDANCE ii) SMOKE EXPOSURE iii) BOTTLE FEEDING iv) ALLERGY TO FOODS v) NASAL ALLERGY vi) RECURRENT URI vii) CRANIOFACIAL/SKULL BASE ANOMALIES viii) ADENOID HYPERTROPHY ix) GASTROESOPHAGEAL REFLUX x) IMMUNOLOGIC DISORDERS (IgA IgG def) xi) Ciliary Dysfunction xii) Nasal Intubation (NT NG) xiii) Nasopharyngeal Tumors xiv) Cholesteatoma xv) Genetics (PPGP)
45
i) SIGNS and SYMPTOMS of AOM
i) Otalgia causing irritability and ear tugging ii) Aural fullness, something is blocking ear iii) Hearing loss iv) Tinnitis v) Fever vi) Red or Creamy Yellow TM that Bulges and is Immobile vii) Remember TM turns red with crying
46
j) Management of AOM
i) The majority of AOM cases will spontaneously resolve in 24 – 72 hours ii) Oral antibiotics iii) Topical antibiotic otic drops if TM perforated iv) Pain relief, decongestants, antipyretics v) Prophylactic antibiotics indicated for recurrent infections vi) Myringotomy for severe otalgia or toxic pts.
47
k) Surgical Management of Otitis Media
i) Myringotomy and Tubes (PE) ii) Adenoidectomy iii) Mastoidectomy
48
i) • Embryology: ii) ▫ Cysts consist of squamous cell epithelium containing epidermal appendages iii) ▫ Epidermal elements are displaced during intramembranous growth phase of nasal bones iv) ▫ Location can be several: Fronto-temporal region, Orbital region, or Nasoglabellar region
g) Dermoid Cyst
49
i) • Extracranial protrusions of meninges, CSF fluid, and neural tissue ii) • Meningoceles present similarly without herniation of brain tissue iii) • May present as external or internal nasal masses iv) • Described by location of dehiscence in the skull base
h) Nasal Encephalocele
50
i) Hypotheses on formation ii) ▫ Develop from extracranial rests of glial tissue iii) ▫ Abnormal closure of fonticulus nasofrontalis iv) ▫ Another theory is that they are possibly encephaloceles which have lost CSF connection
i) Nasal Glioma
51
i) Viral Rhinits ii) Occupational Rhinitis iii) Vasomotor Rhinitis iv) Nonallergic Rhinitis with Eosinophilia (NARES) v) Rhinitis Medicamentosa vi) Rhinitis of Pregnancy vii) Vasculitides, Autoimmunes & Granulomatous Dxs
k) Nonallergic Rhinitis
52
i) IgE-mediated hypersensitivity of the nasal mucosa to foreign substances ii) Affects 20% of the United States population iii) Rarely occurs before 2 years of age, almost always present by 20 years of age iv) Male predominance in children, equalizes in adults v) Atopy: genetic predisposition to respond to environmental allergens with the production of specific IgE antibodies
l) Allergic Rhinitis
53
a) Complex group of disorders with inflammation as the major universal finding b) Affects approximately 15% of the adult population in the United States
31) Sinusitis
54
Sinusitis pathogenesis
i) Bacterial: S aureus, M Cat, H Influ (1) in up 80% of patients undergoing surgery for CRS ii) Fungi (1) Non-invasive colonization—obstruction of sinus ostia (2) Allergic fungal sinusitis—IgE mediated hypersensitivity iii) Allergic Rhinitis iv) Cystic fibrosis carrier state v) Primary ciliary dyskinesia vi) Immunodeficiency vii) Environment irritants: Tobacco smoke, Industrial pollution