Envi Engg Flashcards
(145 cards)
1
Q
Which sector is classified under Scope 3 emissions?
- Purchased steam
- company-owned vehicles
- Emissions from upstream transportation
- On-site combustion
A
Emissions from upstream transportation
2
Q
Which statement about Scope 2 emissions is true?
a. They are under direct operational control
b. They result from outsourced production
c. They arise from purchased energy
d. They relate to product use phase
A
They arise from purchased energy
3
Q
emissions from leased buildings are typically categorized under
- scope 1
- scope 2
- scope 3
- not reported
A
scope 3
3
Q
Carbon trading is a method to:
- encourage deforestation
- limit individual travel
- cap emissions and create economic incentives for reduction
- exchange fossil fuels
A
cap emissions and create economic incentives for reduction
carbon trading parang nag bubuy and sell
4
Q
A carbon tax is intended to:
- fund oil exploration
- encourage emissions reduction through market pressure
- promote natural gas
- replace income tax
A
encourage emissions reduction through market pressure
fee that is charged per emission
5
Q
The Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) allows:
a. Developing countries to bypass climate rules
b. Transfer of emissions to oceans
c. Developed countries to invest in emission-reducing projects in
developing countries
d. Free trade of fossil fuels
A
Developed countries to invest in emission-reducing projects in
developing countries
program by kyoto protocol
6
Q
A carbon offset refers to:
a. Reduction in carbon tax
b. Certificate of energy savings
c. Investment in projects that reduce or capture emissions
d. Bonus credits from regulatory agencies
A
Investment in projects that reduce or capture emissions
7
Q
Emissions from leased buildings are typically categorized under:
A
Scope 2
8
Q
Carbon trading is a method to:
A
Cap emissions and create economic incentives for reduction
9
Q
A carbon tax is intended to:
A
Encourage emissions reduction through market pressure
10
Q
The Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) allows:
A
Developed countries to invest in emission-reducing projects in developing countries
11
Q
A carbon offset refers to:
A
Investment in projects that reduce or capture emissions
12
Q
The term ‘cradle-to-gate’ in carbon accounting refers to:
a. Emissions during use phase only
b. Emissions from disposal
c. Emissions from raw material extraction to factory gate
d. Emissions during transport
A
Emissions from raw material extraction to factory gate
carbon accounting - measures carbon footprint
di na kasama disposal and so on
13
Q
What is a typical emission factor used for calculating CO2 from diesel combustion?
a. 0.5 kg CO₂/L
b. 2.68 kg CO₂/L
c. 4.2 kg CO₂/L
d. 7.9 kg CO₂/L
A
2.68 kg CO₂/L
14
Q
A coal-fired power plant emits 2.2 tons of CO2 per MWh. If it operates at 50 MW for 10 hours, how much CO2 is emitted?
A
1100 tons
15
Q
The Air Quality Index (AQI) includes which of the following parameters?
- PM, NO2, O3, CO
- VOCs, UV, noise
- Temperature, wind speed, humidity
- Methane, ethane, propane
A
PM, NO2, O3, CO
pm2.5 - kaya ma penetrate ang lungs
pm10
16
Q
Which gas has the highest global warming potential (GWP)?
- CO2
- N2O
- CH4
- SF6
A
SF6
23500
17
Q
What is the primary reaction mechanism behind the formation of tropospheric ozone?
* CO2 reacting with water vapor
* VOCs and NOx reaction under sunlight
* SO2 and NO2 condensation
* Methane combustion
A
VOCs and NOx reacting under sunlight
mga halin sa vehicles tas if mag react sa sunlight –> O3 sa troposphere
18
Q
Photochemical smog is typically formed in:
a. Forested areas
b. Coastal regions
c. Urban centers under high sunlight
d. Areas with low wind speed and low temperature
A
Urban centers under high sunlight
key: photo meaning light
19
Q
Afforestation helps mitigate climate change by:
- increasing fossil fuel reserves
- enhancing carbon sequestration
- decreasing oxygen levels
- increasing albedo
A
Enhancing carbon sequestration
afforestation is carbon capture (ie plant trees)
20
Q
Carbon sequestration refers to:
a. Capturing and storing CO₂
b. Increasing carbon emissions
c. Burning fossil fuels
d. Recycling plastic waste
A
Capturing and storing CO2
21
Q
What is the primary goal of carbon capture and storage (CCS)?
a. Reduce air pollution
b. Remove carbon dioxide from the atmosphere
c. Improve energy efficiency
d. Increase fossil fuel production
A
Remove carbon dioxide from the atmosphere
it will reduce air pollution
(primary)
22
Q
What is the primary environmental concern with hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs)?
- water pollution
- toxicity to plants
- high global warming potential
- ozone layer depletion
A
High global warming potential
if cfc ozone layer depletion
(ODS, montreal protocol)
23
Q
Which protocol was established to reduce greenhouse gas emissions?
A
Kyoto Protocol
24
Which of the following gases is not included in the Kyoto Protocol's 'basket of six' GHGs?
* CO2
* NH3
* CH4
* SF6
NH3
## Footnote
ang six: CO2, CH4, N20, HFCs (100 - 1000 GWP), PFC, SF6
25
What is the goal of the Paris Agreement?
a. Eliminate fossil fuel usage
b. Keep global warming below 2°C
c. Reduce ozone depletion
d. Promote nuclear energy
Keep global warming below 2°C
26
# pbeq
Which of the following best describes 'extended producer responsibility' (EPR)?
a. Regulations that force consumers to reduce waste
b. A program that encourages producers to take responsibility for the
entire lifecycle of their products, including disposal
c. Requirements for government agencies to manage waste disposal
d. A law that mandates waste recycling only in urban areas
A program that encourages producers to take responsibility for the entire lifecycle of their products to manage waste disposal
| key: entire lifecycle
27
Which of the following best defines 'environmental impact assessment' (EIA)?
* A process for measuring the environmental impact of climate change
* A tool for regulating the extraction of natural resources
* A procedure for evaluating the potential environmental consequences of a proposed project or development
* A method for designing renewable energy systems
A procedure for evaluating the potential environmental consequences of a proposed project or development
28
The primary environmental impact of urban sprawl is:
* Decreased air quality due to increased vehicle emissions
* Increased biodiversity in urban areas
* Improved access to green spaces
* Reduced energy consumption
Decreased air quality due to increased vehicle emissions
29
A wind turbine has a capacity factor of 35% and a rated capacity of 2 MW. How much energy (MWh) does it produce annually?
6.132 MWh
30
AQI air quality
0 - 50 Good
51 - 100 Moderate
101 - 150 Unhealthy for Sensitive Groups
151 - 200 Unhealthy for everyone
201 - 300 Very unhealthy
301 - 500 Hazardous
31
DAO No. 2016-08
Water Quality Guidelines and General Effluent Standards of 2016
32
Water Quality Guidelines and General Effluent Standards of 2016
DAO No. 2016-08
| DAO 34 and DAO 35 combined
33
DAO
DENR Administrative Order
34
DAO 35
General Effluent Standards
| Old
35
DAO 34
Water Quality Guidelines
| Old
## Footnote
classification of diff water bodies and criteria for each classification
36
Philippine Clean Water Act
RA 9275
37
RA 9275
Philippine Clean Water Act
38
Maximum NH3-N level for waste water discharge (effluent standard)
0.5 mg/L
39
Public Water Supply Class I and II
Class AA and A
40
Intended primarily for waters having watersheds,
which are uninhabited and/or otherwise declared as
protected areas, and which require only approved
disinfection to meet the latest PNSDW.
Class AA
| disinfection lang needed
41
Intended as sources of water supply that will
requiring conventional treatment (coagulation,
sedimentation, filtration and disinfection) in order to
meet the PNSDW.
Class A
| gina treat
42
Recreational water Class I
Class B
| primary contact recreation
43
Intended for primary contact recreation (bathing,
swimming, etc.)
Class B
44
Recreational Water Class II
Class C
| boating, fishing, etc
45
What classification for agriculture, irrigation, and livestock watering
Class C
46
What classification for fishery water for the propagation and growth of
fish and other aquatic resources
Class C
47
Classification for navigable waters
Class D and Class SD
48
Fishery Water Class I
Class SA
| more on shellfish
for direct human consumption
49
Waters designated as national
or local marine parks, reserves, sanctuaries, and other areas established by law (presidential
Proclamation 1801 and other existing laws) and/or
declared as such by appropriate government agency, LGUs, etc.
Class SA
| Protected Waters
50
Fishery Water Class I
Class SB
| more on milkfish
for commercial nga pangisda
51
Classification for Tourism Zones
Class SB
| recreational water class 1 (same as Class C)
52
% salinity for freshwater and marine water
freshwater < 500 ppm
marine water < 20 ppt
52
Fishery Water Class III
Class SC
| for propagation and growth of fish
ie punongs
52
Classification for mMarshy and /or mangrove areas declared as fish
and wildlife sanctuaries
Class SC
| recreational water class II (same as Class C)
53
PNSDW
Philippine National Standard for Drinking Water
54
comes from the septic decomposition at organic wastes and is due to the presence of gases
odor
55
indication of age of sewage
Color
56
amount of suspended matter in water/wastewater and is obtained by measuring its light scattering ability.
Turbidity
| cloudiness of water
56
gas responsible for rotten egg odor of wastewater
H2S
56
measure of the ability of sunlight to pass through water and the ability of water to disperse different materials disposed into it
Turbidity
| light scattering ability
cloudiness of water
57
resistance of water to the passage of light
turbidity
| cloudiness of water
58
color of fresh vs septic wastewater
fresh - grayish
septic - black
59
lowers the solubility of oxygen in water and increase the rate
at which oxygen-consuming microbes attack organic waste
temperature
60
solid residue when water is evaporated at 103 – 10°C
total solids
61
used to measure turbidity
- turbidimeter (Jackson)
- secchi disk depth
62
sodium ions contribute to which characteristics of water
total dissolved solids
| group 1 elements (ie Na) has high sol'y in H20
63
actual quantity of free O2 present in water
DO
64
range of DO for a healthy body of water
5-9 mg/L
65
measure of the amount of 02 needed by microorganism to decompose biodegradable organics at a specified time, temp, and pH
BOD
| 5 days, 20°C, pH = 7
66
measure of the amount of 02 needed to oxidize organics using strong oxidizing agents in acid media
COD
67
examples of strong oxidizing agents
potassium permanganate (KMnO4)
potassium dichromate (K2Cr2O7)
68
In the determination of BOD, reaction takes place at what temperature
20°C
69
In determination of BOD. reaction takes place in the dark because
Algae may be present and produce oxygen
70
COD > BOD, what does this mean?
organics are mostly non-biodegradable
71
72
standard BOD bottle volume
300 mL
73
a measure of the acidity or alkalinity of water
pH
74
causes hardness in water and formation of scales and deposits on pipelines and fittings if used in industry
calcium and magnesium salts
75
basic components of fertilizer, serves as nutrients for microbial growth in particular algae
nitrogen and phosphorus
76
refers to heavy metals which are toxic even in small concentrations
trace metals
77
it is the phenomenon that results in the overabundance of algae growth in bodies of water. It is also the natural process of nutrient enrichment that occurs over time in a body of water
eutrophication
| which causes algal bloom
78
how to remove phosphorus
chemical precipitation
| adds chemicals like coagulants to suspend phosphorus then filter it
79
how to remove nitrogen like nitrates (NH3)
reverse osmosis or ion exchange
80
involves the accumulation of trace metals through each species of the food change
biomagnification
| mercury kan on ka isda tas kinaon ta
81
biomagnification vs bioaccumulation
bioaccumulation - fish absorbs Hg and increases over time w/in one organism only
biomagnefication - gina pasa thru food chain. ie Hg kinaon ka fish tas kinaon ka tawo ang fish
82
capacity of water to neutralize the acid
alkalinity
82
a trace metal which causes itai-itai disease
| itai-itai severe bone pain and fractures
cadmium
82
what disease does mercury cause
minamata
82
sum of all titratable bases to a pH of approx 4.5
alkalinity
| reverse of acidity
83
sum of all polyvalent cations
water hardness
| polyvalent means more than 1 charge
cations mean positive only
84
hardness classification
soft -------------------- 0 - 60
moderately hard -- 61-120
hard ------------------- 121 - 180
very hard ------------- >180
85
type of wastewater treatment that employs physical and chemical treatment methods to remove or reduce a high percentage of suspended solids and toxic materials
primary treatment
85
hard water can be softened by
* letting the calcium or magnesium ions settle out
* passing it through an ion exchanger
* chlorination
* filtration
passing it through an ion exchanger
86
defined as the reversible exchange of an ion of like charge in an aqueous phase
ion exchange
86
removal of all settleable particles rendered settleable under the influence of gravity, basically the theory of gravity under the influence of which all particles heavier than water tend to settle down
sedimentation
| key: gravity
86
process whereby coarse matter (suspended or floating) of a certain size can be strained out of flowing water with the aid of bars, fine wires or rocks
screening
| key: strained
86
what kind of treatment is chlorination
tertiary treatment
86
purpose of chlorination
1. disinfect
2. remove soluble Fe, Mn, and H2S from water
87
water treatment that destroys disease-causing bacteria, nuisance bacteria, parasites and other organisms and removes soluble irons, manganese and hydrogen sulfide from water
* disinfection
* flocculation
* chlorination
* coagulation
chlorination
| if wala ang removes soluble - disinfection
88
international salute that is currently the primary basis of the Philippines in its latest environmental dispute with Canada
Basel Convention
| control of trans boundary movement of hazardous waste
89
Toxic Substances and Hazardous and Nuclear Wastes Control Act of 1990
RA 6969
89
clean air act of the Philippines
RA 8749
90
ecological solid waste of act 2000
RA 9003
90
"smokey mountain" is a typical example of a facility for solid waste. it is classifies as
* open dumping site
* sanitary landfill
* transfer station
* material recovery facility
open dumping site
91
collective term for the initial POPs identified by the Stockholm Convention
Dirty Dozens
| POPs - persistent organic pollutants
91
aims to protect human health and the environment from persistent organic pollutants
stockholm convention
| persistent organic pollutants (POPs) or Dirty Dozens
92
protocol that regulates emmisions of ghg
kyoto protocol
93
aims to diminish and eventually phase out cfs
montreal protocol
| cfc is reactive to ozone
cfcs are ODS (ozone depleting substance)
94
ODS meaning
Ozone Depleting Substance
| example CFS
95
It is an odorless and colorless gas that is lethal to humans with exposure as short as a few minutes to concentrations exceeding 5000 ppm. It reacts with hemoglobin in the blood rendering the latter incapable of carrying oxygen to the body
* CO
* hydrogen supplied
* SO2
* SO3
CO
95
the rate at which temp in the atmosphere changes with altitude
lapse rate
| F22-5, P22-31
95
pick out the wrong statement
* the concentric atmosphere layer just above troposphere is called stratosphere, which is rich in ozone
* mesosphere is characterized by very low atmosphere pressure and low temperature
* troposhere is a dusty zone containing water vapor and clouds
* the radio waves used in the long-distance radio communicattion are reflected to earth by stratosphere
the radio waves used in the long-distance radio communicattion are reflected to earth by stratosphere
| thermosphere dat ang radiowaves
96
which of the acid combination is the dominant composition of acid rain
* nitric acid and carbonic acid
* nitric acid and sulfuric acid
* carbonic acid and sulfuric acid
* none od the above
nitric acid sulfuric acid
| SOx NOx
97
what is the primary purpose of coagulation in water treatment
* remove dissolves gases
* kill bacteria
* destabilize suspended particles
* remove dissolved salts
destabilize suspended particles
98
which of the following is a common coagulant used in water treatment
* sodium hypochlorite
* aluminum sulfate
* activated carbon
* ozone
aluminum sulfate
| P22-54
98
reverse osmosis (RO) is mainly used to remove
* suspended solids
* bacteria
* dissolved salts
* heavy metals
dissolved salts
98
what is the role of a flocculant in water treatment
* reduces pH levels
* increases microbial activity
* helps in aggregation of fine particles
* removes dissolved salts
helps is aggregation of fine particles
| flocculant (ie polymers), makes solid stick together for ez filter
98
the removal of dissolved organic carbon (DOC) in water treatment is typically done using:
* ozonation
* sand filtration
* reverse osmosis
* activated carbon adsorption
Activated carbon adsorption
98
What is the main drawback of using activated carbon in water
treatment?
a. It releases harmful byproducts
b. It requires high energy input
c. It has a limited adsorption capacity and needs frequent
replacement
d. It is only effective against suspended solids
It has a limited adsorption capacity and needs frequent
replacement
98
The main function of a rapid sand filter is to:
a. Sterilize water
b. Remove color
c. Remove remaining turbidity after sedimentation
d. Remove hardness
Remove remaining turbidity after sedimentation
| sand filter - suspended solids
slow sand filter- color, sterilize water
99
Which of the following processes is used to remove phosphorus from
wastewater?
a. biological denitrification
b. chemical precipitation with alum or ferric chloride
c. membrane filtration
d. adsorption onto activated carbon
chemical precipitation with alum or ferric chloride
99
What is the most common method for removing nitrates from water?
a. Chemical precipitation
b. Flocculation
c. Ion exchange
d. Coagulation
ion exchange
99
Which of the following is the best method to remove arsenic from
water?
a. Boiling
b. Chlorination
c. Reverse osmosis
d. Sand filtration
reverse osmosis
| arsenic is soluble in h20
99
What is the purpose of aeration in water treatment?
a. Removal of pathogens
b. Oxidation of iron and manganese
c. Reduction of temperature
d. Decreasing pH
oxidation of iron and manganese
| kay ga add O2
99
What is the primary advantage of using ozone for water disinfection?
a. It produces no byproducts
b. It is more effective than chlorine against viruses
c. It has a longer residual effect than chlorine
d. It is the cheapest method available
It is more effective than chlorine against viruses
| chlorine can only remove bacteria, pathogen
99
The main advantage of trickling filter over activated sludge is:
a. lower power requirement
b. higher BOD removal efficiency
c. smaller footprint
d. better pathogen removal
lower power requirement
| trickling filter is cheaper
99
Sludge from primary settling tanks is mostly composed of:
a. Inorganic salts
b. Biologically active microorganisms
c. Heavy metals
d. Settleable organic solids
settleable organic solids
| kay primary, sya una kwaon
2nd - biologically active microorg
3rd- HM
99
The final stage of wastewater treatment often involves:
a. sedimentation
b. disinfection
c. coagulation
d. aeration
disinfection
| lnaalis bacteria/pathogens
ie chlorination
100
What is the primary advantage of using anaerobic digestion in
wastewater treatment?
a. It produces a high-quality effluent for drinking water
b. It reduces the volume of sludge generated and produces biogas
c. It is cheaper than aerobic processes
d. It increases the dissolved oxygen levels in the effluent
It reduces the volume of sludge generated and produces biogas
| aerobic produces large sludge
biogas (methane - pd source for energy)
100
The biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) of a water sample measure:
a. Total dissolved solids
b. Organic pollutants
c. Heavy metal contamination
d. Nutrient levels
organic pollutants
| biodegradable
101
In BOD testing, why is dilution of the sample often required?
a. To improve nutrient balance
b. To prevent oxygen supersaturation
c. To avoid complete oxygen depletion
d. To accelerate oxidation
to avoid complete oxygen depletion
102
COD is preferred over BOD when:
a. High accuracy is needed
b. Time constraints exist
c. Organic matter is highly biodegradable
d. Wastewater is free of chemicals
time constraints exist
| amuna nag cod nlng kami sa research XD
103
Which reagent is used in the standard COD test?
a. Ferric chloride
b. Sodium hydroxide
c. Potassium dichromate
d. Calcium carbonate
potassium dichromate
| ang gin kadtuan gd sa cebu
104
What is the typical COD/BOD ratio for domestic wastewater?
a. 0.5 – 0.8
b. 1.5 – 2.5
c. 3.0 – 4.0
d. 5.0 – 6.0
1.5 - 2.5
| industrial > 2.5 -5
highly toxic >5
104
If BOD is greater than COD, it indicates:
a. Presence of heavy metals
b. Non-biodegradable pollution
c. Error in measurement
d. Presence of toxic substances
error in measurement
| always COD > BOD cos cod has both bio and non bio organics
105
what is biodegradability index?
ratio of bod to cod
106
The term "carbon footprint" refers to:
a. Carbon dioxide emissions only
b. All greenhouse gas emissions in CO₂ equivalent
c. Only industrial emissions
d. The weight of carbon in a fuel sample
All greenhouse gas emissions in CO₂ equivalent
107
Which gas is excluded when calculating carbon dioxide equivalent
(CO₂e)?
a. CH₄
b. O₃
c. N₂O
d. CO₂
O₃
108
Carbon intensity refers to:
a. Energy per unit mass
b. CO₂ emitted per unit energy produced
c. Fuel weight per km traveled
d. Thermal conductivity of carbon
CO₂ emitted per unit energy produced
109
Which sector contributes the most to global carbon emissions?
a. Agriculture
b. Transportation
c. Energy production
d. Waste management
Energy production
| parang 76% (included dito yung electricity)
110
What is the main source of carbon footprint in cement production?
a. Fuel combustion
b. Transportation
c. Chemical decomposition of limestone
d. Electricity consumption
Chemical decomposition of limestone
| emits CO2
111
the increase in CO₂ concentration in the atmosphere?
a. Ozone layer depletion
b. Ocean acidification
c. Loss of biodiversity
d. Desertification
Ocean acidification
## Footnote
CO2 is soluble in h20, when co2 reacts to h20 it produces carbonic acid, so ga nubo ang pH
112
The most significant source of anthropogenic methane is:
a. Volcanoes
b. Landfills
c. Lightning
d. Ocean currents
landfills
113
The GHG Protocol divides emissions into how many Scopes?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
3
