Environmental Health and Toxicology Flashcards

(70 cards)

1
Q

Smaller ambient air particles (< 10 μm) are more of a health concern than larger ambient air particles (> 10 μm).

True
False

A

True

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2
Q

The main cause of reduced visibility (haze) in parts of the United States are fine particles (PM2.5).

True
False

A

True

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3
Q

The most harmful air pollutant produced from the complete combustion of oil or coal is:

a. carbon monoxide.
b. sulfur dioxide.
c. carbon dioxide.
d. nitrogen.
e. water.

A

c. carbon dioxide.

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4
Q

Anesthetic gases, such as isoflurane, desflurane, halothane, and nitrous oxide contribute to global warming.

True
False

A

True

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5
Q

The Environmental Protection Agency is responsible for enforcement of the Clean AirAct. Which of the following EPA-designated criteria air pollutants results from a chemical reaction of pollutants in sunlight, may be generated at distant sites from those of the source pollutant, and causes airway injury when inhaled?

a. Carbon monoxide

b. Nitrogen dioxide

c. Ground level ozone

d. Particulate matter

A

c. Ground level ozone

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6
Q

What agency sets air quality standards ? What is the legislation?

a. EPA; Clean Water Act

b. EPA; Clean Air Act

c. FDA; RICRA

d. FDA; TOSCA

e. USDA; HACCP

A

b. EPA; Clean Air Act

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7
Q

Carbon monoxide is lighter than air, acts as asphyxiant, and will turnblood bright red due to the inherent color of carboxyhemoglobin. CO is released fromtailpipes as a result of incomplete combustion of fossil fuels. Acute CO toxicosis causes rapid depression, coma, respiratory paralysis and death.

True
False

A

True

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8
Q

Zinc oxide ZnO is produced during welding of galvanized steel and can cause health issues. Effects can be transient or prolonged with chronic exposure. Proper ventilation is essential. Galvanized steel is very commonly used for dog kennels and pens, and other applications that may include animal shelter pens, veterinary boarding kennels, etc. Cattle have been found with atypical interstitial pneumonia when housed near welding activities.

True
False

A

True

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9
Q

Nitrogen dioxide is formed by fermentation of corn and other forages highin nitrate. Humans can experience chronic bronchitis or emphysema, commonly known as silo filler‘s disease.NO2 is also a component of ozone, and can be released from tailpipes. In cattle, respiratory distress and necropsy findings will include atypical interstitial pneumonia.

True
False

A

True

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10
Q

Which is the most common swimming related illness?

a. Intoxication from Cyanotoxins (microcystins and cylindrospermopsin)

b. Diarrhea

c. Legionellosis

d. Cough

e. Swimmer’s ear

A

b. Diarrhea

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11
Q

The major reason why a plan for discharging sewage into streams, rivers, lakes or other bodies of natural surface water should NOT be adopted is to:

a. prevent formation of sludge banks.

b. prevent increase of BOD.

c. eliminate offensive odors or gases.

d. prevent the pollution of drinking water supplies.

e. prevent the breeding of mosquitoes and insects.

A

d. prevent the pollution of drinking water supplies.

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12
Q

Animal feeding operations can contaminate groundwater through surface runoff with this chemical that causes blue baby syndrome in humans:

A. Lead

B. Enterotoxins

C. Sulfur

D. Nitrate

E. Mercury

A

D. Nitrate

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13
Q

If the coliform mpn is 0-50, the water needs:

a. conventional treatment.

b. disinfection only.

c. extensive treatment.

d. no treatment.

e. filtration only.

f. retest and notify

A

f. retest and notify

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14
Q

A public drinking water supply is disinfected effectively if:

a. B.O.D. is absent.

b. coliform organisms have been destroyed.

c. the pH of the water is between 6.8 and 7.4

d. a chlorine demand test is negative.

e. the water is free from color and taste.

A

b. coliform organisms have been destroyed.

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15
Q

All animals are susceptible to poisoning by ethylene glycol, but due to its wide availability and common presence in homes, dogs and cats are most often accidently poisoned. Which of the following common household solvents is the source of ethylene glycol toxicity for companion animals?

A. Antifreeze

B. Household bleach

C. Nail polish remover

D. Paint thinner

A

A. Antifreeze

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16
Q

Clinical signs of ethylene glycol toxicity are dose- and time-dependent and are often multisystemic but nonspecific. Which of the following systems is NOT typically affected by ethylene glycol or its metabolites?

A. Central nervous system

B. Gastrointestinal system

C. Musculoskeletal system

D. Urinary system

A

C. Musculoskeletal system

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17
Q

Treatment of ethylene glycol toxicity aims to decrease absorption of ingested ethylene glycol, increase excretion of unmetabolized ethylene glycol, and correct metabolic acidosis that occurs with ethylene glycol metabolism. Which of the following is an appropriate part of a treatment regimen to address ethylene glycol toxicosis?

A. Give activated charcoal

B. Infuse intravenous fluids

C. Induce vomiting

D. Provide supplemental oxygen

A

B. Infuse intravenous fluids

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17
Q

Consumption of the fruit, seed, stem, or leaves of avocados can cause toxicity in animals. Ingestion of sufficient quantities of avocado fruit is most likely to cause myocardial necrosis in which of the following species?

A. Cats

B. Chickens

C. Cockatiels

D. Dogs

A

C. Cockatiels

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18
Q

Although many species are susceptible to chocolate toxicosis, it is most common in dogs. Ingestion of chocolate can result in gastrointestinal upset at lower doses and cardiac arrhythmias, neurologic dysfunction, and death at higher doses. One of the toxic ingredients in chocolate is caffeine. Which of the following is the other toxic component of chocolate?

A. Bromethalin

B. N-propyl disulfide

C. Sugar

D. Theobromine

A

D. Theobromine

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19
Q

Ingestion of xylitol, a sugar substitute that can be found in gum, candy, baked goods, and liquid medications, can cause toxicity in dogs. Which of the following is most likely to occur in dogs after the consumption of xylitol?

A. Hypercalcemia

B. Hyperglycemia

C. Hypocalcemia

D. Hypoglycemia

A

D. Hypoglycemia

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20
Q

The acronym SLUD stands for salivation, lacrimation, urination, and defecation, which are the clinical signs associated with muscarinic cholinergic overstimulation caused by certain toxins. Signs of SLUD are most consistent with exposure to which of the following classes of chemicals?

A. Carbamates

B. Chlorinated hydrocarbons

C. Metaldehyde

D. Pyrethroids

A

A. Carbamates.

Carbamates (A) and organophosphates are insecticides and herbicides that inhibit acetylcholinesterase at nerve synapses and neuromuscular junctions. These chemicals cause overstimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system, resulting in SLUD signs in affected animals. Organophosphate toxicities can also cause muscle fasciculations and weakness (nicotinic signs) and nervousness, ataxia, apprehension, and seizures (central signs). Toxicities caused by chlorinated hydrocarbons (B), metaldehyde (C), and pyrethroid insecticides (D) typically result in neurologic signs, such as tremors, seizures, and ataxia.

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21
Q

Cats are particularly sensitive to the effects of many insecticides. Which of the following insecticides is most appropriate for use in or around cats?

A. Benzene hexachloride

B. Carbophenothion

C. Imidacloprid

D. Permethrin

A

C. Imidacloprid.

Imidacloprid (C) is a neonicotinoid insecticide that acts on acetylcholine receptors to inhibit cholinergic transmission in insects. It can be applied to cats and dogs to control fleas and lice. Benzene hexachloride (A) is a chlorinated hydrocarbon that is highly toxic to cats when used at concentrations that can control parasites. Carbophenothion (B) is used to control parasites on sheep, but a single dose is lethal to cats. Permethrin (D) is found in some brands of topical flea treatments for dogs, but it is highly toxic to cats.

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22
Q

Metaldehyde is the active ingredient in molluscicides, which are used to control snails and slugs. It is primarily used in humid, coastal regions where these mollusks are more common. Which of the following medications is most appropriate for treatment of metaldehyde poisoning in dogs?

A. 4-methylpyrazole

B. Diazepam

C. Phenobarbital

D. Vitamin K1

A

B. Diazepam.

Because an antidote is not available, aggressive symptomatic and supportive treatments are necessary for dogs poisoned by metaldehyde. Diazepam can alleviate neurologic signs. 4-methylpyrazole (A) is the treatment of choice for ethylene glycol toxicities. Phenobarbital (C) and other barbiturates are not typically used because they can exacerbate the toxicosis. Vitamin K1 (D) is the treatment for toxicities caused by anticoagulant rodenticides.

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23
Q

There are several types of rodenticides used as bait for targeted species. Unfortunately, they may be ingested by nontarget species such as pets, wildlife, or livestock and cause immediate or delayed illness or death. The most accurate way to identify the active ingredient of a rodenticide that caused a case of poisoning is by which of the following?

A. Brand and manufacturer

B. Clinical signs of affected animals

C. Color and shape of the bait

D. EPA registration number

A

D. EPA registration number.

The EPA number is specific to the rodenticide contained. Clinical signs (B) may or may not be indicative of the class of rodenticide. The very first clinical signs may be nonspecific in nature, such as depression and anorexia. Color and shape of the bait (C) cannot be relied on because they are not specific to a certain type of rodenticide. Brand name and manufacturer (A) may be helpful in narrowing down possibilities but are not regulated.

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24
A farm dog is brought to a veterinarian because of depression, limping, coughing, and pale mucous membranes. You suspect accidental poisoning. In speaking with the dog’s owner, he tells you he recently was trying to reduce the rodent population in his fields. Based on the clinical signs, what is the most likely rodenticide the dog has been exposed to? A. Bromethalin B. Strychnine C. Warfarin D. Zinc phosphide
C. Warfarin. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that leads to hemorrhage, but the bleeding may not be external. Pale mucous membranes raise concern for hemorrhage. Bromethalin (A) is a neurotoxin that may cause muscle tremors, weakness, and seizures. Strychnine (B) leads to life-threatening tetanic seizures. Zinc phosphide (D) is converted to toxic phosgene gas in the stomach and often presents with vomiting.
24
Many rodenticides have a delayed onset of clinical signs that are vague at first and may take days to appear. Which of the following rodenticides has a rapid onset and can lead to death within hours of ingestion? A. Cholecalciferol B. Strychnine C. Warfarin D. Zinc phosphide
B. Strychnine. Strychnine is rapidly absorbed in the small intestines, and tetanic seizures soon follow. Food in the stomach can slow this process somewhat. Cholecalciferol (A) toxicity causes electrolyte imbalances that take some time for clinical signs to show but can lead to organ failure in later stages if not treated. Warfarin (C) toxicity leads to hemorrhage that may not be apparent until stores of coagulation factors are exhausted. Zinc phosphide (D) is converted to phosgene gas in the acidic stomach environment. Food in the stomach may accelerate the conversion because it stimulates gastric acid secretion, but the onset of signs is considerably slower than those associated with strychnine poisoning.
25
Bracken fern poisoning in the horse is characterized by: a. Motor irritability and severe icterus due to an unknown hepatoxic substance in the plant. b. Photosensitization resulting in the loss of hair and a sun-burned appearance of all unpigmented areas of the body. c. Incoordination and muscle tremors due to a thiamine deficiency which is precipitated by an enzyme in the plant. d. A highly fatal hemorrhagic syndrome with large subcutaneous hematomas, bleeding from the body orifices, and an elevated temperature. e. A chronic syndrome with severe lameness and loss of the long hair of the mane and tail.
c. Incoordination and muscle tremors due to a thiamine deficiency which is precipitated by an enzyme in the plant.
26
Overgrowth of Clostridium perfringens Type A and C can produce a toxin that is associated with what disease in poultry? a. Malignant edema b. Blackleg c. Botulism d. Tetanus e. Necrotic enteritis
e. Necrotic enteritis
27
Which of the following gases that may occur in livestock confinement are heavier than air and may persist even after ventilation? Select all that apply. a. Ammonia (NH3). b. Carbon dioxide (CO2). c. Hydrogen Sulfide (H2S). d. Methane (CH4).
b. Carbon dioxide (CO2). c. Hydrogen Sulfide (H2S).
28
The ionizing radiation used to preserve foods is: a. Cosmic rays. b. Alpha rays. c. Gamma rays. d. Beta rays.
c. Gamma rays.
29
The color of blood observed in cyanide poisoning is: a. Bright red. b. Cherry red. c. Slight brown. d. Chocolate brown. e. Dark, unoxygenated.
b. Cherry red.
30
One of the following terms best describes the disease state which results from exposure to a poison or toxicant? a. Toxicology. b. Toxicity. c. Toxicosis. d. LD50. e. Minimum toxic dose.
c. Toxicosis.
31
Slaframine toxicosis in horses is primarily characterized by which clinical sign? a. Laminitis b. Urticaria c. Ptosis e. Salivation f. Aggression
e. Salivation
32
Noise at ____ dBA for 8 hours is the NIOSH recommended exposure limit. a. 65 dBA b. 12 dBA c. 30 dBA d. 100 dBA e. 85 dBA
e. 85 dBA
33
The four steps to Integrated Pest Management (IPM) are: a. Identify pests, Kill pests, Prevention, Control b. Set IPM Committee, identify pest, Control, Prevent c. Monitor and Identify Pests, Set Action Thresholds, Prevention, Control d. Set Action Levels, Control Current Pest, Prevent Future Pest, Monitor annually
c. Monitor and Identify Pests, Set Action Thresholds, Prevention, Control
34
Which of the following rodenticides is converted into a toxic gas in the stomach and can potentially expose the owners and staff treating the animal? a. Warfarin b. Zinc phosphide c. Bromethalin d. Strychnine
b. Zinc phosphide
35
The Toxic Substances Control Act of 1976 provides which entity the authority toreport, record-keep, regulate and restrict chemical substances? a. OSHA b. Consumer product safety commission (CPSC) c. FDA d. EPA e. CDC
d. EPA
35
Zearalenone can function as a form of which hormone? a. Testosterone b. Estrogen c. Cortisol d. Thyroid Stimulating Hormone e. None of the Above
b. Estrogen
36
Which of the following toxicants is associated with permanent ascending paresis and paralysis? a. Tri-ortho-cresyl phosphate b. Tetrachlorodibenzodioxin (TCDD) c. Kerosene d. Polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs) e. Fluoride
a. Tri-ortho-cresyl phosphate
37
According to the Endocrine Society, there are nearly 85,000 human-made chemicals in the world, and 1,000 or more could be endocrine disruptors. Which oft he several following are the most common? Choose all that apply. a. Per- and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) b. Phthalates c. Triclosan d. Acetaldehyde e. Iso-alpha acids
a. Per- and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) b. Phthalates c. Triclosan
37
Raw garbage must be cooked at 212 degrees F for how many minutes before being fed to swine? a. 5 b. 10 c. 20 d. 25 e. 30
e. 30
38
Which of the following toxicities can occur due to prolonged exposure to a substance? a. Acute toxicity b. Sub-acute toxicity c. Sub-chronic toxicity d. Chronic toxicity
d. Chronic toxicity
38
Farmers Lung Disease is a type of hypersensitivity pneumonitis resulting from exposure to dust containing: a. Fungi (mold spores) b. Viruses c. Rickettsia
a. Fungi (mold spores)
39
A toxic substance produced by biological system is specially referred to as a: a. Toxicant b. Toxin c. Xenobiotic d. Poison
b. Toxin
40
Employers are responsible for identifying and assessing hazards in the workplace, and preventing and minimizing the risks to workers exposed to these hazards. True False
True
41
The ASPCA Animal Poison Control Center makes a list of the Top 10 Toxins each year. All EXCEPT this are on that list: a. Over the counter medications b. Heavy metals c. Chocolate d. Rodenticides
b. Heavy metals
42
Match the radiation type with the AGENCY OR ACENCIES that regulates it: Agencies: Food and Drug Administration -FDA Federal Communications Commission -FCC Centers for Disease Control -CDC Environmental Protection Agency -EPA Nuclear Regulatory Commission -NRC United States Customs and Border Protection -USCBP Types: Electronic devices Cell phones Smart meters Imported Goods Medical devices Nuclear power plants
Electronic devices FDA Cell phones FDA, FCC Smart meters FCC Imported Goods USCBP Medical devices FDA Nuclear power plants NRC, FEMA, EPA
43
The 'effective half-life' of a radionuclide in the body is the time required for: a. the amount of the nuclide to be reduced to half its original value because of radioactive decay and natural elimination. b. 75% of the total of the lifetime absorbed dose from the radionuclide to be yielded to the tissue. c. the body to eliminate half of the amount of the nuclide originally taken up. d. the body to eliminate 25% of the amount of the nuclide originally taken up. e. the radiation from the nuclide to reduce the life span of the person by one-half.
a. the amount of the nuclide to be reduced to half its original value because of radioactivedecay and natural elimination.
44
Composting beef cattle manure can reduce the concentration of antibiotics present. a. True b. False
True
45
Lead contaminated water is safe to shower in. True False
True
46
An air pollution control department in a city with a great many electrochemical plants receives numerous complaints from residents concerning the emission of a gas. This gas has a yellow-green color with an irritating and suffocating odor, causes damage to trees and grass in the vicinity of residences, and corrodes brass and aluminum materials on homes. This gas ismost likely: a. hydrogen sulfide. b. chlorine. c. ammonia. d. sulfur dioxide. e. methane.
b. chlorine.
47
The reason Strontium-90 is of health concern is that it concentrates in the: a. reproductive system and produces damage to future generations. b. bone and has a physical half-life of about 30 years. c. gastro-intestinal system and has a physical half-life of 27.7 years. d. muscles and has a physical half-life of about 30 years
b. bone and has a physical half-life of about 30 years.
48
The disposal of dead animals by landfill is not federally regulated in the US and varies between and within states. a. True b. False
b. False
49
Which toxin causes leukoencephalomalacia in horses and pulmonary edema in swine? a. aflatoxin b. vomitoxin c. fumonisin d. ergot e. ochratoxin
c. fumonisin
50
Which plant can cause cyclops in fetal lambs when eaten at day 14 of gestation?
Answer: Veratrum sp.
51
What is the toxic principle in moldy sweet clover hay?
Dicumarol (Vit K antagonist and anticoagulant)
52
What are the five hierarchy of controls as pertains to Occupational Health and Safety?
Elimination, substitution, engineering controls, administrative controls, PPE
53
Which of the following is NOT a type of ionizing radiation? a. X-rays b. Cosmic rays c. Ultraviolet light d. Alpha particles
c. Ultraviolet light
54
In 1975, a ban on the sale of turtles with a carapace length less that 4 inches was enacted. The purpose of this regulation was to prevent the spread of the following microorganism: a. E. coli. b. Salmonella. c. Shigella. d. Hepatitis
b. Salmonella.
55
In 2012, there was a deepwater oil spill in the Gulf of Mexico (Deepwater Horizon). Over15,000 species were impacted. Name one agency involved in the response and 3 measures/techniques/actions used in the response. Choose the most correct answer. a. NOAA; use of dispersants/skimming/burning b. EPA; water testing/oiled bird stations/volunteer coordination c. BP Oil; press releases/funding of operations/Dawn detergent commercials
a. NOAA; use of dispersants/skimming/burning
56
Oil spills can cause direct effects (physical and toxicological) as well as indirect effects on habitat. In investigating toxicological effects on marine mammals, which of the following sampling methods could provide indication of oil spill exposure: a. Blood and urine samples (Chem/CBC, UA, endocrinology) b. Blubber biopsy c. Physical exam and ultrasound d. All of the above
d. All of the above
57
Which 2 federal agencies have jurisdiction over pesticides administered to animals: a. EPA b. FDA c. USDA d. VS
a. EPA b. FDA
58
The U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (U.S. EPA) regulatesmicroorganisms and other genetically engineered constructs intended for pesticidal purposesand subject to the Federal Insecticide Fungicide and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA) and the FederalFood Drug and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA). The U.S. EPA also regulates certain genetically engineered microorganisms used as biofertilizers. True False
True
59
Which of the following are biotoxins? a. Brevetoxin b. Saxitoxin c. Domoic acid d. Microcystins e. All of the above f. Two of the above
e. All of the above
60
Which of these fish might cause ciguatera fish poisoning: a. Grouper b. Sushi from puffer fish c. Siluriform (catfish) d. Shrimp
a. Grouper
61
Microcystins from blue green algae toxicosis, cannot be vectored from prey to predator. True False
False
62
Dogs that experience an ivermectin toxicity, when given at the correct dose, most likely are affected by a 4-bp deletion in which of the following genes: a.B2C1DQ b.A1B1C c.ABCB1 d.R2D2
c.ABCB1
63
“Pongo” the Dalmatian ingested ¼ cup of Golden Marin fly granules out in the barn. What class of insecticide is this? What is the method of action? a. OP/Carbamate; acetylcholine esterase inhibitor b.Rodenticide; anticoagulant c.Ionophore; MOA of toxicity not fully known
a. OP/Carbamate; acetylcholine esterase inhibitor
64
An Environmental Activist group in California is at your veterinary clinic asking you to sign their petition to close local egg laying businesses as they are CAFOs. The businesses involved keep the hens cooped at night, but on pasture during the day. The coop has a concrete floor to aid in keeping it clean. They abide by state rules for selling their eggs at the local Farmers’ markets. Each of these businesses has about 80 laying hens. Which of the following is not true: a. The U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) defines AFOs as agricultural enterprises where animals are kept and raised in confined situations b. A CAFO is another EPA term for a large concentrated AFO. A CAFO is an AFO with more than 1000 animal units (an animal unit is defined as an animal equivalent of 1000 pounds live weight and equates to 1000 head of beef cattle, 700 dairy cows, 2500 swine weighing more than 55 lbs., 125 thousand broiler chickens, or 82 thousand laying hens or pullets) confined on site for more than 45 days during the year. c. The environmental group is correct in calling the local egg businesses CAFOs.
c. The environmental group is correct in calling the local egg businesses CAFOs.
64
The USDA has programs that assist with natural resource management. Which of thefollowing is NOT a natural resource management program of USDA: a. Natural Resources Conservation Service b. Agroforestry c. Agricultural Conservation Easement Program d. Animal Plant Heath and Inspection Service
d. Animal Plant Heath and Inspection Service