Infectious Disease Flashcards
(184 cards)
1
Q
Non-typhoidal Salmonella enterica is on the 2024 list of WHO priority pathogens. Which of the following is true regarding non-typhoidal and typhoidal Salmonella?
a. Animals infected with non-typhoidal Salmonella do not develop a chronic carrier state.
b. Risk factors for typhoidal Salmonella include visiting a petting zoo.
c. Non-typhoidal S. enterica subspecies enterica serotype Typhimurium and Enteritidis are zoonotic
d. Serotype Typhi causes Typhoid Fever, a zoonotic disease.
e. FSIS is currently soliciting development of vaccines for poultry to prevent S. enterica serotype Typhi.
A
c. Non-typhoidal S. enterica subspecies enterica serotype Typhimurium and Enteritidis are zoonotic
2
Q
Why did the American Animal Hospital Association in 2024 place Leptospirosis on the list of core vaccines for dogs?
a. The previous recommendation of vaccination of Lepto for lifestyle reasons. (i.e. hunting dogs) and geographic region (SE USA) did not encourage vaccination of enough dogs to develop broad herd immunity to Lepto.
b. Dogs are the primary reservoir host of Lepto sp., and vaccination will lessen dog to dog transmission.
c. Lepto is increasing in prevalence in dogs in the USA, clinical illness can be severe, and it is zoonotic.
d. The newer monovalent vaccine is less reactive, thus safer to administer to dogs.
A
c. Lepto is increasing in prevalence in dogs in the USA, clinical illness can be severe, and it is zoonotic.
3
Q
Farmed fur animals are a source of spillover of novel viruses. (See Course Files, Infectious Diseases, 09 folder b, 2024 Fur farmed spillover). Regarding spillover, which of the following is true?
a. Spillover is another name for reverse zoonosis.
b. Spillback describes a zoonotic disease that has person to person transmission.
c. Spillover does not involve intermediate hosts like ticks or mosquitos.
d. Spillover comes from wildlife and not domestic animals.
e. Spillover has a source host and a recipient host.
A
e. Spillover has a source host and a recipient host.
4
Q
In the following list of bacterial vector borne disease agents, please give the common name of the disease it causes, the vector, and if it is zoonotic or not.
Yersinia pestis
A
plague, fleas, zoonotic
5
Q
In the following list of bacterial vector borne disease agents, please give the common name of the disease it causes, the vector, and if it is zoonotic or not.
Rickettsia rickettsii
A
RMSF, ticks (Dermacentor variabilis, Rhipicephalus sanguineus, Dermacentor andersoni), zoonotic
6
Q
In the following list of bacterial vector borne disease agents, please give the common name of the disease it causes, the vector, and if it is zoonotic or not.
Rickettsia prowazekii
A
Epidemic Typhus, Louse-borne typhus, sylvatic typhus, lice, zoonotic via flying squirrels
7
Q
In the following list of bacterial vector borne disease agents, please give the common name of the disease it causes, the vector, and if it is zoonotic or not.
Anaplasma phagocytophilum
A
Anaplasmosis, Ixodes ticks, zoonotic
8
Q
In the following list of bacterial vector borne disease agents, please give the common name of the disease it causes, the vector, and if it is zoonotic or not.
Borrelia burgdorferi
A
Lyme disease, Ixodes ticks, zoonotic
9
Q
In the following list of bacterial vector borne disease agents, please give the common name of the disease it causes, the vector, and if it is zoonotic or not.
Coxiella burnetii
A
Q fever, ticks, zoonotic via contact with organism, Q fever from ticks is rare
10
Q
In the following list of bacterial vector borne disease agents, please give the common name of the disease it causes, the vector, and if it is zoonotic or not.
Bartonella henselae
A
Cat Scratch fever, fleas, zoonotic (especially immunocompromised persons)
11
Q
In the following list of bacterial vector borne disease agents, please give the common name of the disease it causes, the vector, and if it is zoonotic or not.
Francisella tularensis
A
Tularemia, ticks (D. andersoni, Amblyomma americanum, D. variabilis). Deer fly (Chrysops sp.), zoonotic
12
Q
In the following list of bacterial vector borne disease agents, please give the common name of the disease it causes, the vector, and if it is zoonotic or not.
Rickettsia typhi
A
Murine typhus, fleas (oriental rat flea Xenopsylla cheopis and cat flea Ctenocephalides felis), zoonotic
13
Q
In the following list of bacterial vector borne disease agents, please give the common name of the disease it causes, the vector, and if it is zoonotic or not.
Orientia tsutsugamushi
A
Scrub typhus, chiggers, zoonotic via small mammals
14
Q
In the following list of bacterial vector borne disease agents, please give the common name of the disease it causes, the vector, and if it is zoonotic or not.
Ehrlichia chaffeensis, ewingii
A
Ehrlichiosis, ticks (Amblyomma americanum and Ixodes scapularis), zoonotic. E. canis can cause occasional infection in humans
15
Q
Bacterial septic shock
a. is caused by a cytokine storm due to severe bacterial infections.
b. causes a rise in blood pressure which can lead to death.
c. does not lead to disseminated intravascular coagulation.
d. is more common in patients with a healthy, well-functioning immune system that overreacts.
e. causes death from the direct effect of bacterial toxins on the body.
A
is caused by a cytokine storm due to severe bacterial infections.
16
Q
Of the following bacterial WHO 2024 emerging priority pathogens, indicate if zoonotic or non-zoonotic.
Vibrio cholerae (0139)
Yersinia pestis
Shigella dysenteriae serotype 1
Salmonella enterica non-typhoidal serovars
Klebsiella pneumoniae
A
https://pmc.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/articles/PMC11627490/pdf/1124-9390_32_4_2024_463-477.pdf
1.Vibrio cholerae (0139) Zoonotic via aquatic animals
2.Yersinia pestis Zoonotic
3.Shigella dysenteriae serotype 1 Zoonotic, primates
4.Salmonella enterica non-typhoidal serovars Zoonotic
5.Klebsiella pneumoniae Zoonotic
17
Q
Bartonella sp.
a. are confined to felids.
b. infections should be treated in animals whether clinical signs are present or not.
c. infection in humans can occur after a bite or scratch from a kitten.
d. infections are found in homeless populations due to contact with cat fleas.
e. person to person transmission is common.
A
c. infection in humans can occur after a bite or scratch from a kitten.
18
Q
Which of the following is true about Brucella sp?
a. B. melitensis continues to circulate in Bison and Elk in the GYA.
b. B. canis is the most pathogenic Brucella in humans.
c. The recent de-listing of Brucella sp. from the Select Agent list consequently lowered the lab biosafety requirements of the organism.
d. Risk factors for infection includes exposure to feral swine.
A
d.Risk factors for infection includes exposure to feral swine.
19
Q
American foulbrood
a. causes high mortality among worker bees.
b. control practices include vaccination.
c. Is caused by Paenibacillus larvae bacteria killing the queen bee.
d. is cured using tetracyclines.
A
b. control practices include vaccination.
20
Q
Borrelia burgdorferi and B. mayonii, agents that cause Lyme disease, are transmitted
a. by the one host tick, Ixodes scapularis.
b. within 12 hours of attaching to a host.
c. by the three-host tick, Ixodes pacificus
d. to humans or dogs after a blood meal from a Lyme infected deer.
e. only when outdoor temperature are above 50 degrees.
A
c. by the three-host tick,Ixodes pacificus
21
Q
SEIR model of infectious disease epidemiology. What does each letter stand for?
A
Susceptible Exposed Infected Recovered
22
Q
Plague
a. is more common in the Eastern USA due to flea and small mammal ecology.
b. Septicemic plague is the predominant form in human patients in the USA.
c. Dogs can spread plague to people by coughing.
d. Cats are readily infected and pose a risk to humans.
e. Ticks are a vector for Plague.
A
Cats are readily infected and pose a risk to humans.
23
Q
You are a mixed animal practitioner who is presented with a dog that has painful joints, anorexia, enlarged lymph nodes and fever. Ticks are present. Blood work reveals low platelets. You suspect the dog has Ehrlichiosis. Which of the following is true?
a. A positive in-clinic 4DX test that includes an antibody test for Ehrlichia is diagnostic.
b. Since Ehrlichia is often self-limiting, treatment is not needed.
c. The owner should not be concerned about getting Ehrlichia from their dog but should be alert for tick bites.
d. The 4DX test will revert to Ehrlichia negative status after approximately one year following acute infection.
e. The dog should be isolated from other dogs in the house to avoid dog to dog transmission of Ehrlichia.
A
c. The owner should not be concerned about getting Ehrlichia from their dog but should be alert for tick bites.
24
Q
Legionella sp. infections are
a. spread by ingestion of contaminated water.
b. decreasing in case numbers in the USA.
c. zoonotic with urban rats as the reservoir host.
d. more common among lower income earners, a social determinant of health.
e. more common in children who are more susceptible than adults
A
d. more common among lower income earners, a social determinant of health
25
Mycobacterium bovis in Michigan is
a. being controlled with fences to prevent cattle from transmitting M. bovis to deer.
b. a risk to deer hunters.
c. being controlled in cattle with a newly approved M. bovis oral vaccine.
d. maintained in cattle reservoirs.
b. a risk to deer hunters.
26
According to the World Health Organization’s 2022 fungal priority pathogens list (WHO FPPL), which of the following are considered critical priority?
Aspergillus fumigatus
Candida albicans
Candida auris
Candida parapsilosis
Candida tropicalis
Coccidioides spp.
Cryptococcus gattii
Cryptococcus neoformans
Euycetoma causative agents
Fusarium spp.
Histoplasma spp.
Mucorales
Nakaseomyces glabrata (Candida glabrata)
Paracoccidioides spp.
Pneumocystis jirovecii
Aspergillus fumigatus
Candida albicans
Candida auris
Cryptococcus neoformans
27
Which of the following is true regarding the scope (item number 3; page 2) of the WHO’s fungal priority pathogens list?
A. The pathogen is predominantly associated with infection of immunocompromised patients.
B. The pathogen is associated with drug resistance.
C. The pathogen is spread in healthcare settings.
D. The pathogen is widespread in its geography.
E. The pathogen is predominantly associated with inpatient hospital stays of more than 2 days following diagnosis.
B. The pathogen is associated with drug resistance.
28
Aspergillosis in poultry is:
A. Most frequently caused by Penicillium spp.
B. A disease that can present as mycotic keratitis
C. A fungal organism with effective treatment options available
D. A cause of numerous soft, green granulomas of various sizes diffusely distributed throughout the thoracic and abdominal airsacs.
E. Unlikely to cause fever, inappetance, or emaciation
B. A disease that can present as mycotic keratitis
29
Which of the following is true regarding aspergillosis in other species (besides poultry)? Select all that apply.
A. Ruminants, in the absence of pneumonia, generally have no signs except for first trimester abortion.
B. It is mainly seen in brachycephalic breeds of dog.
C. It rarely causes epistaxis or dysphagia in horses with guttural pouch mycosis.
D. Cats tend to have more aggressive sino-orbital disease than dogs and can present with facial swelling.
E. Acute enteritis is often a predisposing factor to rapidly fatal aspergillosis with diffuse pulmonary invasion in horses.
D. Cats tend to have more aggressive sino-orbital disease than dogs and can present with facial swelling.
E. Acute enteritis is often a predisposing factor to rapidly fatal aspergillosis with diffuse pulmonary invasion in horses.
30
In the U.S., most infections of sporotrichosis in people are caused by contact with _______ while in South America they are more commonly caused by contact with _______.
A. Cats, plant matter
B. Plant matter, cats
C. Rusted metal, cats
D. Plant matter, leather hides
E. Plant matter, wool
B. Plant matter, cats
31
Cases of Coccioidies spp. in humans frequently occur where in the U.S.?
A. Pacific Northwest
B. Midwest
C. Gulf Coast
D. New England
E. Southwest
E. Southwest
32
Which of the following environmental samples could you find common pathogenic Candida species from? Select all that apply
A. Soil
B. Freshwater, but not seawater
C. Bird droppings
D. Fruit
E. Marine invertebrates
A. Soil
C. Bird droppings
D. Fruit
E. Marine invertebrates
33
Which of the following are true for ringworm in swine?
A. It may affect any age group
B. Most cases are caused by Microsporum nanum or Trichophyton concentricum
C. Lesions on older swine are usually seen on the neck or behind the ears.
D. In young growing pigs, it must be differentiated from greasy pig disease.
E. Mature lesions are especially pruritic.
A. It may affect any age group
C. Lesions on older swine are usually seen on the neck or behind the ears.
D. In young growing pigs, it must be differentiated from greasy pig disease.
34
Cryptococcus, when found in bird droppings, is commonly associated with which bird?
A. Peacocks
B. Macaws
C. Pheasants
D. Pigeons
E. Geese
D. Pigeons
35
Talaromycosis, a neglected tropical disease endemic in Southeastern Asia, has uncertain zoonotic potential according to the Merck Veterinary Manual. https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/table/global-zoonotic-diseases-fungal-diseases What animal was this disease first discovered in?
A. Bamboo rat
B. Burmese hare
C. Moupin pika
D. Malayan porcupine
E. Common treeshrew
A. Bamboo rat
36
The current outbreak (2024/25) of Mpox in Africa and beyond is:
a. caused by MPXV clade 1b.
b. a resurgence of the 2022-2023 outbreak.
c. driven by small mammal to human transmission.
d. the same clade which caused the outbreak in prairie dogs in the US in 2003.
e. controlled with a monovalent smallpox vaccine.
a. caused by MPXV clade 1b.
37
Place the following cleaning and disinfection steps in the correct order:
a. Apply disinfectant
b. Remove organic material
c. Allow contact time
d. Don personal protective gear
e. Drying time
f. Clean with soap and water
d, b, f, a, c, e
38
Avian metapneumovirus
a. is zoonotic.
b. has no approved vaccine in the USA.
c. causes asymptomatic disease in turkeys.
d. is a secondary agent following infection with E. coli.
e. circulates in wild birds which may expose poultry.
e. circulates in wild birds which may expose poultry.
39
The September 2024 EID journal reported that the bovine mammary gland has receptors for both human and avian influenza viruses. https://wwwnc.cdc.gov/eid/article/30/9/24-0696_article Which of the following is true?
a. HPAI virus shed by lactating cattle in milk is not inactivated by pasteurization.
b. Cattle co-infected with avian and non-avian IAVs could lead to antigenic shift.
c. As in poultry, most clinical signs in cattle are due to respiratory infection.
d.Since HPAI in cattle has much lower mortality than in poultry, the risk to humans is lower when working around cattle.
e.Human infection with a bovine strain of HPAI is termed variant influenza.
b. Cattle co-infected with avian and non-avian IAVs could lead to antigenic shift.
40
Of the following zoonotic viral vector borne diseases: list the vector (general name, genus and species only if you want to) and animal hosts of the agent.
Bourbon
tick, deer
41
Of the following zoonotic viral vector borne diseases: list the vector (general name, genus and species only if you want to) and animal hosts of the agent.
CCHF
tick, ruminants
42
Of the following zoonotic viral vector borne diseases: list the vector (general name, genus and species only if you want to) and animal hosts of the agent.
Cache Valley
mosquito, deer, cattle, horses
43
Of the following zoonotic viral vector borne diseases: list the vector (general name, genus and species only if you want to) and animal hosts of the agent.
Chikungunya
mosquito, primates
44
Of the following zoonotic viral vector borne diseases: list the vector (general name, genus and species only if you want to) and animal hosts of the agent.
Colorado Tick Fever
ticks, rodents
45
Of the following zoonotic viral vector borne diseases: list the vector (general name, genus and species only if you want to) and animal hosts of the agent.
Dengue
mosquito, primates
46
Of the following zoonotic viral vector borne diseases: list the vector (general name, genus and species only if you want to) and animal hosts of the agent.
EEE
mosquito, birds
47
Of the following zoonotic viral vector borne diseases: list the vector (general name, genus and species only if you want to) and animal hosts of the agent.
Heartland
tick, deer, racoons coyote, dogs, others are AB positive.
48
Of the following zoonotic viral vector borne diseases: list the vector (general name, genus and species only if you want to) and animal hosts of the agent.
Jamestown Canyon
mosquito, cervids
49
Of the following zoonotic viral vector borne diseases: list the vector (general name, genus and species only if you want to) and animal hosts of the agent.
Japanese encephalitis
mosquito, equine, pigs, herons, egrets
50
Of the following zoonotic viral vector borne diseases: list the vector (general name, genus and species only if you want to) and animal hosts of the agent.
LaCrosse
mosquito, cervids, goats
51
Of the following zoonotic viral vector borne diseases: list the vector (general name, genus and species only if you want to) and animal hosts of the agent.
Mayaro
mosquito, birds, primates, rodents
52
Of the following zoonotic viral vector borne diseases: list the vector (general name, genus and species only if you want to) and animal hosts of the agent.
Oropouche
midge, mosquito, sloths, primates, birds
53
Of the following zoonotic viral vector borne diseases: list the vector (general name, genus and species only if you want to) and animal hosts of the agent.
Powassan
ticks, rodents
54
Of the following zoonotic viral vector borne diseases: list the vector (general name, genus and species only if you want to) and animal hosts of the agent.
RVF
mosquitos, sandflies, midges, cats, dogs, ruminants
55
Of the following zoonotic viral vector borne diseases: list the vector (general name, genus and species only if you want to) and animal hosts of the agent.
Ross River
mosquito, rodents, dogs, horses, marsupials, bats, birds
56
Of the following zoonotic viral vector borne diseases: list the vector (general name, genus and species only if you want to) and animal hosts of the agent.
SFTS
tick, rodents, ruminants
57
Of the following zoonotic viral vector borne diseases: list the vector (general name, genus and species only if you want to) and animal hosts of the agent.
St Louis Encephalitis
mosquito, particularly Culex, birds
58
Of the following zoonotic viral vector borne diseases: list the vector (general name, genus and species only if you want to) and animal hosts of the agent.
Vesicular Stomatitis Virus
mosquitos, sand flies, black flies, midges, bats, deer, primates, rodents
59
Of the following zoonotic viral vector borne diseases: list the vector (general name, genus and species only if you want to) and animal hosts of the agent.
Tick Borne Encephalitis
tick, rodents, ruminants
60
Of the following zoonotic viral vector borne diseases: list the vector (general name, genus and species only if you want to) and animal hosts of the agent.
Usutu
mosquitos, birds
61
Of the following zoonotic viral vector borne diseases: list the vector (general name, genus and species only if you want to) and animal hosts of the agent.
VEE
mosquito, rodents, horses
62
Of the following zoonotic viral vector borne diseases: list the vector (general name, genus and species only if you want to) and animal hosts of the agent.
West Nile
mosquito, birds, horses
63
Of the following zoonotic viral vector borne diseases: list the vector (general name, genus and species only if you want to) and animal hosts of the agent.
WEE
mosquitos, birds, horses
64
Of the following zoonotic viral vector borne diseases: list the vector (general name, genus and species only if you want to) and animal hosts of the agent.
Yellow fever
mosquito, primates
65
Of the following zoonotic viral vector borne diseases: list the vector (general name, genus and species only if you want to) and animal hosts of the agent.
Zika
mosquitos, primates
66
Haemaphysalis longicornis is believed to transmit which viral zoonotic disease?
a. Theileriosis
b. Lyme disease.
c. Severe fever with thrombocytopenia syndrome
d. EEE
e. Bluetongue
c. Severe fever with thrombocytopenia syndrome
67
Which of the following is true about Rift Valley Fever:
a. Epizootic/epidemic disease occurs in the dry season in Africa.
b. Veterinarians are at occupational risk due to mosquito exposure.
c. The case fatality rate is 50% in humans.
d. Person to person transmission occurs during epidemics.
e. Causes abortion storms in ruminants.
e.Causes abortion storms in ruminants.
68
In the context of Foot and Mouth Disease, what is the "Five-day rule?"
a. The incubation of the virus is approximately five days in most susceptible animals.
b. After visiting an FMD area, you should wait five days before having contact with livestock and other animals.
c. Ring vaccination around a newly infected premises must occur within five days to control the outbreak.
d. Cattle remain infectious for five days following onset of clinical signs.
e. If there are no new clinical cases that develop within five days of the last new case, the premise status moves from "infected zone" to "surveillance zone."
b. After visiting an FMD area, you should wait five days before having contact with livestock and other animals.
69
A client calls you and tells you there is a "drunk" racoon in their backyard. List two differentials:
Bonus: Is Baylisascariasis on your list? Why or why not?
Rabies, Distemper
No, CNS signs occur in the intermediate host not the definitive host (raccoon).
70
Feral swine in the US carry ______________, which is a concern for zoonoses.
a. Pseudorabies
b. Trichinella
c. African Swine Fever
d. Bluetongue
e. Swine Vesicular Disease
b. Trichinella
71
Coronaviruses - List one coronaviral disease for each species:
Cat:
Cattle:
Camels:
Poultry:
Pigs:
Bats:
Cat: Feline FIP
Cattle: Winter dysentery, coronaviral diarrhea in calves
Camels: SARS
Poultry: Infectious bronchitis
Pigs: Porcine Epidemic Diarrhea (PED), Transmissible gastroenteritis (TGE)
Bats: SARS
72
Which of the following viral hemorrhagic diseases is spread by rodents?
a. Rift Valley Fever
b. Marburg
c. virus
d. Ebola
e. Lassa Fever
e. Lassa Fever
73
Which of the following is true regarding Crimean Congo Hemorrhagic Fever, a Bunyavirus.
a. Humans are a dead end host.
b. Person to person transmission does not occur.
c. Like Bunuyavirus RVF, mosquitos spread CCHF.
d. Causes high mortality in ruminants.
e. Like Ebola, bats are involved in viral ecology.
a. Humans are a dead end host.
74
Virulent New Castle Disease
a. is not spread by fomites.
b. is a food safety concern.
c. is zoonotic.
d. routine vaccination in the USA protects flocks.
e. is endemic in southern California.
c. is zoonotic.
75
Which of the following is false regarding racemose cysticercosis?
A. It is a rare variant of neurocysticercosis in humans.
B. It leads to development of cysts that are unusually small.
C. It leads to development of cysts that are multilobular and clustered.
D. Cysts may lack a scolex
E. It usually occurs in extraparenchymal sites
B. It leads to development of cysts that are unusually small.
76
Which of the following is false regarding strongyloides in humans?
A. The lifecycle is complex, alternating between free-living and parasitic cycles.
B. L3 larvae molt twice in the small intestine
C. They may be referred to in some parts of the world as threadworms
D. Both S. fuelleborni and S. stercoralis pass infective larvae in the stool.
E. S. stercoralis is the major causative agent.
D. Both S. fuelleborni and S. stercoralis pass infective larvae in the stool.
77
Which of the following is false regarding Scrapie?
A. Atypical scrapie may be referred to as Nor98 scrapie.
B. Sheep and goats are most frequently affected.
C. Cattle have been experimentally infected via intracerebral inoculation.
D. The placenta can contain high levels of scrapie prions in some sheep.
E. Pruritis is the most prominent clinical sign for atypical scrapie.
E. Pruritis is the most prominent clinical sign for atypical scrapie.
78
Which of the following populations are at greater risk for giardiasis (select all that apply)?
A. Children in daycare settings
B. Track and field athletes
C. Men who have sex with men
D. Construction workers
E. Travelers, hikers, and backpackers
A. Children in daycare settings
C. Men who have sex with men
E. Travelers, hikers, and backpackers
79
Which of the following is false regarding schistosomiasis?
A. It is the second most dangerous parasitic disease after malaria
B. Cercariae are the infectious form of the parasite.
C. It can be diagnosed by testing stool or urine.
D. Praziquantel resistance is common.
E. Many people are asymptomatic and have subclinical disease.
D. Praziquantel resistance is common.
80
Which of the following is true regarding variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob’s disease (vCJD)?
A. Most people live with the illness for one to two years.
B. Psychiatric symptoms associated with vCJD are often subtle.
C. In the US, there have been 8 cases reported since 2012.
D. The earliest reported cases were in Germany and France in the mid 1990’s.
A. Most people live with the illness for one to two years.
81
Which of the following is false regarding Cryptosporidium?
A. Symptoms typically begin 2-10 days after exposure.
B. In people with weakened immune systems, it can affect the respiratory tract.
C. Symptoms may come and go for up to a month.
D. At risk populations include international travelers, recreational water users, and those with contact with calves.
E. Nitazoxanide is approved for use in infants.
E. Nitazoxanide is approved for use in infants.
82
Taenia solium can occur from eating contaminated _______ while Taenia saginata can occur from eating contaminated _______.
A. Beef, pork
B. Pork, beef
C. Fish, beef
D. Beef, chicken
E. Pork, chicken
B. Pork, beef
83
Which of the following is not a symptom of echinococcosis in humans?
A. Emesis
B. Hyperacusis
C. Jaundice
D. Pyrexia
E. Urticaria
B. Hyperacusis
84
The federal regulatory activities pertaining to animal drugs, medicated feeds and feed safety are performed under the provision of:
a. The Virus Serum and Toxin Act of 1913.
b. The Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
c. The Wholesome Meat & Poultry Inspection Act.
d. The Federal Insecticide, Fungicide and Rodenticide Act.
e. The Agriculture Marketing Agreement Act.
b. The Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
85
Which of the following is false regarding Diphyllobothrium latum?
A. It is the largest tapeworm that can infect a human.
B. Gallbladder disease by migration of proglottids is possible.
C. It can be killed by freezing, cooking, and smoking fish.
D. Multiple stool samples may be needed for diagnosis due to low numbers of eggs present.
E. It can infect fish which live in both fresh and saltwater, such as salmon.
C. It can be killed by freezing, cooking, and smoking fish.
86
The regulatory control of animal biologics is vested in:
a. USPHS.
b. HHS.
c. FDA.
d. USDA.
e. NIH.
d. USDA.
87
The definitive host for the adult stage of Taenia saginata is:
a. humans
b. cattle
c. swine
d. sheep
e. dogs
a.humans
88
Correct and early diagnosis of Mucosal Disease is important because:
a. we have none in this country.
b. it closely resembles Rinderpest and Contagious Pleuropneumonia.
c. affected animals should be destroyed at once.
d. disease spreads to all species of animals.
e. disease is contagious to humans
b. it closely resembles Rinderpest and Contagious Pleuropneumonia.
89
The most frequently reported zoonotic disease in the United States is:
a. Tuberculosis.
b. Brucellosis.
c. Salmonellosis.
d. Anthrax.
e. Pasteurellosis
c. Salmonellosis.
90
Leptospirosis in cattle:
a. lends itself to an eradication program because the vaccine is very effective.
b. is a reportable disease and federal indemnity is available in local control programs.
c. usually disappears entirely from a herd following an acute outbreak.
d. may spread from reservoirs in domestic or wild animals and is not easily eradicated.
e. has been eradicated.
d. may spread from reservoirs in domestic or wild animals and is not easily eradicated.
91
Pseudorabies virus can naturally or experimentally infect:
a. swine only.
b. cattle and sheep only.
c. most animals and birds but not man.
d. all mammals and some birds.
e. all vertebrates.
c. most animals and birds but not man.
92
The serum neutralization test is currently used for diagnosis of Aujesky’s Disease. The chief disadvantage is:
a. too time consuming and expensive.
b. lacks sensitivity.
c. does not detect early infections.
d. too many other diseases cross-react.
e. lacks reliability.
a. too time consuming and expensive.
93
Which of the following disinfectants would be the one choice to destroy the viruses of Newcastle’s Disease, African Swine Fever, Duck Virus Enteritis, Fowl Plague and Hog Cholera?
a. Acetic acid.
b. Sodium hydroxide.
c. Ortho-phenylphenol.
d. Isopropyl alcohol.
e. Calcium hypochlorite.
c. Ortho-phenylphenol.
PERacetic acid can be used
SODIUM hypochlorite can be used
94
Tissues for histopathologic examination for tuberculosis should be submitted to the laboratory:
a. on dry ice.
b. in chloramine-T solution.
c. in 10 percent formalin solution.
d. in saturated sodium borate solution.
e. in isopropyl alcohol.
c. in 10 percent formalin solution.
95
The most important routes of brucellosis exposure in swine are:
a. oral and venereal.
b. ocular and inhalation.
c. cutaneous and intrathecal.
d. ocular and oral.
e. streak canal and cutaneous
a. oral and venereal.
96
Though anaplasmosis occurs in all states other than Alaska and Hawaii, the prevalence is higher in:
a. lower Mississippi delta.
b. New England.
c. Great Lakes states.
d. Pacific Northwest.
e. Atlantic coast states.
a. lower Mississippi delta.
97
Streptococcus agalactiae causes what percent of all mastitis in the United States?
a. 5
b. 25
c. 45
d. 65
e. 85
c. 45
98
Which of the following diseases of livestock or poultry has never occurred in the United States?
a. Foot and mouth.
b. Hog cholera.
c. Rinderpest.
d. Fowl plague.
e. Scrapie.
c. Rinderpest.
99
Aujesky’s disease is caused by which of the following:
a. myxovirus.
b. paramyxovirus.
c. herpesvirus.
d. adenovirus.
e. enterovirus.
c. herpesvirus.
100
Contagious bovine pleuropneumonia is caused by which of the following?
a. virus.
b. rickettsia.
c. mycoplasma.
d. protozoa.
e. helminth.
c. mycoplasma.
101
Which of the following is most likely to produce infection in man?
a. Sheep Pox.
b. Rift Valley Fever.
c. Foot and Mouth Disease.
d. Newcastle Disease.
e. Fowl Plague.
b. Rift Valley Fever.
101
Adrenergic drugs are commonly referred to as:
a. sympatholytic agents.
b. sympathomimetic agents.
c. adrenolytic agents.
d. blocking agents.
e. antagonist agents.
b. sympathomimetic agents
102
The mechanism of action of sulfonamide drugs is:
a. competitive inhibition of PABA.
b. noncompetitive inhibition of PABA.
c. folic acid mediated.
d. stimulation of PABA metabolism.
e. host cell mediated.
a. competitive inhibition of PABA.
103
Four types of syndromes are commonly mentioned with regard to sulfonamide toxicity: which of the following is NOT associated with one of these syndromes?
a. Crystalluria.
b. Drug shock.
c. Aciduria.
d. Renal tubular obstruction.
e. Hypersensitivity.
c. Aciduria.
104
Which of the following mycotoxins is associated with prolonged estrus and vulvovaginitis?
a. Slaframine.
b. Aflatoxin B1.
c. Aflatoxin G1.
d. Rubratoxin.
e. Zearalenone.
e. Zearalenone.
105
Diphenylamine blue is a sensitive and reliable field test for:
a. arsenic.
b. nitrate/nitrite.
c. cyanide.
d. lead.
e. strychnine.
b. nitrate/nitrite.
106
What drug(s) can a licensed veterinarian order/prescribe for use in animal feeds for treating food producing animals?
a. None.
b. Any approved new animal drug premix for use in animal feeds.
c. Any drug premix which has been approved for food animal use which the veterinarian may legally obtain.
d. Penicillin and streptomycin only.
e. Any drug approved for veterinary use.
c. Any drug premix which has been approved for food animal use which the veterinarian may legally obtain.
107
The specific mechanism of action of chlorinated hydrocarbon insecticides is:
a. tie up of sulfhydryl enzymes.
b. inhibition of acetylcholinesterase.
c. inhibition of pseudocholinesterase.
d. unknown.
e. increased epinephrine production.
d. unknown.
108
If a feed manufacture holds approved medicated feed applications (Form FD 1800) for two different drugs for the same species of animal, the manufacturer can:
a. make a drug combination product providing he does not change the approved concentration of the drugs.
b. only make the two separate feeds as approved by the application.
c. manufacture the drugs in either separate or combination forms depending on the demand by the customers.
d. request approval from the food and drug administration for permission to make a combination feed to reduce feed inventory and record keeping.
e. None of the above.
b. only make the two separate feeds as approved by the application.
109
The sponsor of an investigational new animal drug (INAD) shall assure himself that the new animal drug is shipped only to clinical investigators who are:
a. affiliated with recognized colleges, universities or other institutions specializing in new animal research.
b. qualified by scientific training and/or experience to evaluate the safety and/or effectiveness of the new animal drug.
c. Qualified by possession of a degree in veterinary medicine from a recognized institution.
d. qualified by membership in at least one board certified medical specialty.
e. qualified by approval of the National Academy of Sciences/National Research Council.
b. qualified by scientific training and/or experience to evaluate the safety and/or effectiveness of the new animal drug.
110
A shipment or other delivery of a new animal drug or animal feed bearing or containing a new animal drug intended solely for tests in vitro or in animals used only for laboratory research purposes shall be exempt from section 512 (a) and (m) of the act if it is labeled as follows:
a. “Caution: for use only by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.”
b. “Caution: contains a new animal drug for investigational use only in laboratory research animals or for tests in vitro. Not for use in humans.”
c. “Caution: contains a new animal drug for investigational use in all food-producing animals. Not for use in humans.”
d. “Caution: for veterinary research only. Follow label directions carefully. Not for use in humans.”
e. “Caution: for veterinary clinical trials only. Use only for species as stated on the labeling. Not for use in humans.”
b. “Caution: contains a new animal drug for investigational use only in laboratory research animals or for tests in vitro. Not for use in humans.”
111
The toxic principles of Pigweed and Lamb quarter are respectively:
a. nitrate and alkaloid.
b. alkaloid and oxalate.
c. oxalate and nitrate.
d. cyanide and oxalate.
e. cyanide and nitrate.
c. oxalate and nitrate.
112
Molybdenosis is the result of excess molybdenum in the feed. There is a triad of feed constituents which is important to determining the response of cattle to excess molybdenum. These include molybdenum:
a. zinc and inorganic sulfate.
b. copper and inorganic sulfate.
c. copper and organic sulfate.
d. zinc and organic sulfate.
e. zinc and inorganic copper.
b. copper and inorganic sulfate.
112
The federal agency having regulatory jurisdiction over the marketing of animal drugs can utilize the regulatory tools of:
a. only by injunctions, written warnings and recalls.
b. only seizures and injunctions.
c. only prosecutions through the courts.
d. only by recalls from market channels of improper products.
e. injunctions, seizures, prosecution through the courts, written warnings, and recalls.
e. injunctions, seizures, prosecution through the courts, written warnings, and recalls.
113
Food producing animals which have been administered experimental biologic products must be:
a. destroyed and sent to a rendering plant.
b. buried.
c. held at least 14 days and are subject to the federal meat inspection regulations.
d. not used for human food. e. sent to a licensed establishment for evaluation.
c. held at least 14 days and are subject to the federal meat inspection regulations.
114
Potency test of a licensed veterinary biological product containing more than one immunogenic fraction:
a. may be conducted on the weakest fraction.
b. is conducted using the same animals for each fraction for all products.
c. must be evaluated for each fraction.
d. are done in vitro.
e. are done in vivo.
c. must be evaluated for each fraction.
115
The master seed lot concept permits:
a. tests of each serial in vivo only.
b. tests of each serial in vitro only.
c. virus titrations in lieu of host animal tests for immunogenicity of each serial.
d. exemption from serial potency testing.
e. tests of every fifth serial for host animal potency.
d. exemption from serial potency testing.
116
USDA licensed virus vaccines and inactivated bacterial products:
a. must use formalin as the inactivating agent.
b. are exempt from purity tests.
c. must be tested to assure inactivation.
d. must contain preservatives.
e. cannot be used as diluents for live virus vaccines.
c. must be tested to assure inactivation.
117
Preservatives in licensed veterinary biologic products:
a. are limited to phenolic compounds.
b. are limited to mercurial compounds.
c. may consist of permitted combinations and antibiotics.
d. may include sulfonamides and corticosteroids.
e. are limited to multiple dose containers.
c. may consist of permitted combinations and antibiotics.
118
Expiration dates of licensed veterinary products:
a. have no relation to potency of the product.
b. are determined by market demand.
c. are based on statistically acceptable stability records.
d. are computed from time of first sale.
e. are based on potency level at release.
c. are based on statistically acceptable stability records.
119
Which of the following conditions may be cause for the Secretary of Agriculture to informally suspend, without hearing, a U.S. Biologics Establishment License or a U.S. Biologics Product License?
a. The license is used to facilitate or effect the preparation, sale, barter, or shipment contrary to the virus-serum-toxin act, of worthless, contaminated, or harmful biologicals.
b. The licensee or permittee has violated or failed to comply with any provision of the virus-serum-toxin act or the Code of Federal Regulations.
c. The product is so labeled or advertised as to mislead or deceive the purchaser.
d. The methods of preparation of the product are faulty, or the product contains impurities or lacks potency.
e. In the case of willfulness or where the public health interest or safety so require.
e. In the case of willfulness or where the public health interest or safety so require.
120
Monkey B virus infection in man, causes:
a. shingles
b. Whartins papilliform eruptions.
c. Koplik’s spots.
d. ascending myelitis.
e. myositis.
d. ascending myelitis.
121
Which of the following statements concerning sporotrichosis is correct?
a. Sporotrichum schenckii is the cause of disease of cattle known as Epizootic Lymphangitis.
b. Human sporotrichosis has never resulted from contact with infected animals.
c. Sporotrichum schenckii exist in nature where it has been isolated from soil, wood and plants.
d. sporotrichosis occurs mostly in large cities.
e. sporotrichosis occurs only in the United States
c. Sporotrichum schenckii exist in nature where it has been isolated from soil, wood and plants.
121
In nature the reservoir of Eastern Encephalitis virus is:
a. horses.
b. ticks.
c. wild and domestic birds.
d. wild rodents.
c. wild and domestic birds.
122
Medication at intervals of NOT less than 80 or 90 days to control Fasciola hepatica infection in cattle and sheep by the use of anthelmentics is recommended because:
a. of the danger of developing drug resistance.
b. the available drugs have limited effectiveness and more frequent treatment intervals would be economically impractical.
c. it requires this time interval for the development and reingestion by the host of the encysted metacercariae following the elimination of the eggs from the host.
d. of the toxicity of the drugs used to destroy mature flukes in the bile ducts.
e. It requires this period of time for the flukes to become mature and enter the bile ducts where the drug can reach and destroy them.
e. It requires this period of time for the flukes to become mature and enter the bile ducts where the drug can reach and destroy them.
123
A diagnosis of Foot and Mouth Disease in a feed lot would require quarantine of:
a. only the infected cattle.
b. all animals, animal products, and feed on the premises and all adjoining farms.
c. all livestock until they have been examined and slaughtered.
d. only the cattle clinically diagnosed as having the disease.
e. No action needs to be taken because all cattle are held for slaughter.
b. all animals, animal products, and feed on the premises and all adjoining farms.
124
The etiologic agent associated with Marek’s Disease of chickens is:
a. a rickettsial agent.
b. a chlamydial agent.
c. Herpesvirus.
d. Mycoplasma.
e. Salmonella pullorum.
c. Herpesvirus.
125
Of practical importance in the containment of Bacillus anthracis and prevention of further spread is the physiological characteristic of:
a. demand for gaseous oxygen in order to sporulate.
b. ability to grow under strict anaerobic conditions.
c. ability to form capsules.
d. chain formation in the blood stream.
e. swarming colonies on chocolate agar.
a. demand for gaseous oxygen in order to sporulate.
126
A diagnosis of North American Blastomycosis in a dog can be made by:
a. a skin test using blastomycin as antigen.
b. finding typical granular spheroids in sputum.
c. demonstration of granular cysts composed of branching ascuspolins.
d. demonstration of non-budding rhomboid, filamentous structures lined with small ectospores.
e. demonstration of large, spherical, thick walled budding forms in material from lesions or in tissue sections.
e. demonstration of large, spherical, thick walled budding forms in material from lesions or in tissue sections.
127
A chlamydia agent causes a disease in U.S. cattle characterized by sudden onset of fever, anorexia, nasal discharge, dyspnea, excessive salivation, cough and occasionally diarrhea. Recovery may occur or nervous symptoms may appear, often death follows. Which of the following diseases fits this description?
a. Malignant Catarrhal Fever.
b. Dung-lung Fever.
c. Shipping Fever.
d. Sporadic Bovine Encephalomyelitis.
e. Rabies.
d. Sporadic Bovine Encephalomyelitis.
128
In RNA viruses, the nucleic acid fraction represents the:
a. viral enzymes, such as thymidine kinase, which is associated with the herpesviruses.
b. specific elements required for type-specific qualities, such as hemagglutination and hemabsorption.
c. genetic information needed for virus replication.
d. phenotypic component of the virion.
e. the polymerase activity essential for assembly.
c. genetic information needed for virus replication.
128
The only two argasid ticks that cause significant and widespread damage to American livestock are:
a. Ornithodorus megnini and Rhipicephalus annulatus.
b. Dermacenter albipictus and Argas persicus.
c. Argas persicus and Ornithodorus megnini.
d. Dermacenter venustus and Amblyoma maculatum.
e. Amblyoma americanum and Argas persicus.
c. Argas persicus and Ornithodorus megnini.
Argasid ticks are soft ticks, The currently accepted genera are Antricola, Argas, Nothoaspis, Ornithodoros, and Otobius.
129
Which of the following groups contains only virus induced diseases?
a. Q-fever, Cowpox, Distemper, Ecthyma, Rabies.
b. Atrophic Rhinitis, Q fever, Rabies, Vesicular Stomatitis.
c. Ecthyma (sheep), Infectious Hepatitis (dog), Blue Tongue, Ectromelia (mice).
d. Leptospirosis, Equine Infectious Anemia, Transmissible Gastroenteritis.
e. Fowlpox, Erysipelas of swine, African Swine Fever, Rabbit Myxomatosis.
c. Ecthyma (sheep), Infectious Hepatitis (dog), Blue Tongue, Ectromelia (mice).
130
The etiologic agent of Louping Ill of sheep has been transmitted by:
a. Culicoides.
b. ticks.
c. fleas.
d. mosquitoes.
e. mites.
b. ticks.
131
A definitive diagnosis can be made during the acute phase of canine leptospirosis through:
a. a liver function test.
b. an immunoprecipitin test.
c. a complete physical examination.
d. an agglutination test on blood plasma.
e. recovery of the organism from the blood.
e. recovery of the organism from the blood.
132
To confirm a diagnosis of Pseudorabies, the laboratory animal of choice for inoculation with suspect material is the:
a. wet chick.
b. ferret.
c. hamster.
d. guinea pig.
e. kitten.
d. guinea pig.
133
An important factor in nonspecific viral immunity inherent in the host cell defense is:
a. Virolysin.
b. Complement.
c. Migratory Inhibition Factor.
d. Neuraminidase.
e. Interferon
e. Interferon
133
Viruses within cells:
a. can only be neutralized by 19s antibody.
b. can be inactivated by phagocytized anti-DNA antibody.
c. can have phenotypic markers altered significantly by IG D
d. can readily be absorbed by non-neutralizing IG E.
e. cannot be influenced by specific antibody.
e. cannot be influenced by specific antibody.
134
In nature, the reservoir of Western Equine Encephalitis virus is:
a. horses.
b. rodents.
c. raccoons.
d. bats.
e. birds.
e. birds.
135
A farmer in an enzootic Anaplasmosis area should buy breeding bulls from:
a. stock from local ranches.
b. selected bulls negative to the Anaplasmosis test.
c. breeds resistant to Anaplasmosis.
d. herds tested free from Anaplasmosis.
e. known Anaplasmosis-free areas
a. stock from local ranches.
135
The principle vector of African Trypanosomiasis (sleeping sickness) is the genus:
a. Phlebotomus (sand flies).
b. Simulium (buffalo gnats).
c. Panstrongylus (“assassin” or kissing bugs).
d. Glossina (tsetse flies).
e. Chrysops (deer flies or mange flies)
d. Glossina (tsetse flies).
136
Rickettsia have their primary pathogenic effect upon the:
a. lymphatic system.
b. integument.
c. endothelial cells lining blood vessels.
d. central nervous system.
e. urinary tract.
c. endothelial cells lining blood vessels.
137
Q-fever can be a diagnostic problem in animals because:
a. it is found so infrequently in livestock that it is rarely suspected.
b. there is no clinical signs of illness and no specific post-mortem findings.
c. the clinical signs of illness mimic Listeriosis closely.
d. no acute or convalescent serum antibodies are found.
e. large numbers of livestock may be found dead with severe hemorrhage as the only postmortem change.
b. there is no clinical signs of illness and no specific post-mortem findings.
138
A rash occurs in man infected with all but one of the following diseases:
a. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever.
b. Q fever.
c. Epidemic Typhus.
d. Tsutsugamushi Disease (scrub typhus).
e. Rickettsial pox.
b. Q fever.
139
The chlamydia, which include the agent of psittacosis, differ from viruses in which of the following ways?
a. chlamydia have no protein coat.
b. chlamydia have both DNA and RNA.
c. viruses are responsive to broad spectrum antimicrobials while chlamydia are not.
d. chlamydia have no cell wall.
e. chlamydia possess no enzymes.
b. chlamydia have both DNA and RNA.
140
Candidiasis (Moniliasis) is classified as an “opportunistic” fungal disease because:
a. it produces severe fatal disease in man.
b. it only occurs in pet birds which have had close contact with man.
c. it is more frequently observed in individuals with some underlying health problems.
d. it has a many-host life cycle. e. it never produces diseases in man.
c. it is more frequently observed in individuals with some underlying health problems.
141
The test for Equine Infectious Anemia, commonly known as the “Coggins Test” is:
a. an Ouchterlony precipitin test.
b. a hemagglutination inhibition test.
c. a tube agglutination test.
d. a serum neutralization test.
e. a latex agglutination test.
a. an Ouchterlony precipitin test.
142
Many diseases such as Tuberculosis and Blastomycosis, characteristically produce a granuloma. The granuloma is characterized histologically by:
a. a caseous, necrotic center, surrounded by epithelial cells and presence of giant cells.
b. a raised edematous center surrounded by a ring of redness.
c. large amounts of fibrous connective tissue.
d. cartilage cells and matrix with some evidence of bone formation.
e. large concentrations of eosinophils and plasma cells surrounded by fibrous strands.
a. a caseous, necrotic center, surrounded by epithelial cells and presence of giant cells.
143
In reported nosocomial infections, which of the following pathogens is isolated least often?
a. Salmonella spp.
b. Pseudomonas spp.
c. Escherichia coli.
d. Group D Streptococcus.
e. Staphylococcus aureus.
a. Salmonella spp.
143
Which of the following diseases is NOT communicable to man?
a. Transmissible Gastroenteritis of swine.
b. Shigellosis of non-human primates.
c. Brucellosis canis infection in dogs.
d. Mycobacterium avium.
e, Toxoplasmosis.
a. Transmissible Gastroenteritis of swine.
144
San Miguel Sea Lion Virus is similar to or identical with:
a. Vesicular Exanthema virus.
b. Contagious Ecthyma virus.
c. Vesicular Stomatitis virus (Indiana).
d. Vesicular Stomatitis virus (NJ).
e. None of the above.
a. Vesicular Exanthema virus.
145
The natural life cycle of St. Louis Encephalitis virus is principally:
a. rodent to mosquito to rodent, with man only rarely affected.
b. bird to mosquito to bird, followed by serious outbreaks in human populations.
c. horse to mosquito to horse, followed by serious outbreaks in human populations.
d. bird to mosquito to bird, with horse as the amplifying reservoir of infection to man.
e. rodent to mosquito to rodent, followed by serious outbreaks in human populations.
b. bird to mosquito to bird, followed by serious outbreaks in human populations.
146
The epidemiology of California Encephalitis most closely resembles:
a. Eastern Equine Encephalomyelitis.
b. Western Equine Encephalomyelitis.
c. Venezuelan Equine Encephalomyelitis.
d. St. Louis Encephalitis.
e. Rift Valley Fever.
c. Venezuelan Equine Encephalomyelitis.
147
Clinical symptoms of Yersinia enterolitica in children most often:
a. resembles those of an acute appendicitis attack.
b. resembles those of a chemical intoxication.
c . are normally limited to high fever and respiratory distress.
d. result in high fever, vomiting, diarrhea with or without blood.
e. None of the above.
a. resembles those of an acute appendicitis attack.
147
Colic in horses is a clinical sign of disease seen in:
a. EEE, but not VEE nor WEE.
b. St Louis Encephalitis.
c. WEE, but not EEE nor VEE.
d. VEE, but not EEE nor WEE.
e. Japanese B Encephalitis.
d. VEE, but not EEE nor WEE.
148
Man is known to be vulnerable to infection by animal leptospiras. The most frequent route of transmission incriminated in human outbreaks of leptospirosis is:
a. transplantation.
b. ingestion.
c. inhalation.
d. transfusion.
e. skin penetration.
e. skin penetration.
149
Which one of the following mastitis pathogens is totally dependent upon the mammary gland for survival in nature?
a. Corynebacterium pyogenes.
b. Escherichia coli.
c. Staphylococcus aureus.
d. Pseudomonas aureus.
e. Streptococcus agalactiae.
e. Streptococcus agalactiae.
150
The genus Clostridium, in which the organisms causing Botulism and Tetanus are included, is characterized by:
a. gram-negative cocci which are acid fast.
b. gram-positive non motile cocci.
c. gram-negative coccobacilli which are difficult to culture.
d. curved, slender, gram-negative, spore forming rods.
e. spore forming bacilli which grow in the absence of oxygen.
e. spore forming bacilli which grow in the absence of oxygen.
151
Enteritis necroticans an uncommon but often fatal food borne disease, is caused by which of the following etiologic agents.
a. Shigella flexneria.
b. Yersinia enterolitica.
c. Clostridium perfringens, Type A.
d. Clostridium perfringens, Type C.
e. Enteropathogenic Escherichia coli.
d. Clostridium perfringens, Type C.
152
Leptospiral abortions in cattle are caused by:
a. infection and death of the fetus from an actual in utero leptospiral infection.
b. toxic substances that are produced when the leptospira are lysed by antibody.
c. toxic substances which disturb the nutrition of the fetus by inducing pathological changes in the placentome.
d. toxic substances that are produced when the leptospira lyse erythrocytes.
e. toxic waste produced by the leptospira that are resting in the pregnant animal’s kidney tubules.
a. infection and death of the fetus from an actual in utero leptospiral infection.
153
Leptospirosis can best be diagnosed by:
a. a microscopic agglutination test.
b. a gel diffusion test.
c. a slide agglutination test using polyvalent antigen.
d. culture of leptospirae.
e. clinical symptoms.
a. a microscopic agglutination test.
154
The major reason that Leptospirosis is NOT amenable to eradication is because:
a. adequate vaccines are not available.
b. there is a wide range of susceptible animal hosts.
c. no state-federal programs pay an indemnity for reactors.
d. new servovars are constantly being identified.
e. adequate antibiotics are not available to treat infected animals.
b. there is a wide range of susceptible animal hosts.
155
A single negative serological test for Brucellosis on an animal from a herd of unknown Brucellosis infection status:
a. indicates that the animal presents no significant hazard and can be safely added to a negative herd.
b. such an animal should be isolated and retested within 15 days and if negative then, can be safely added to the herd.
c. is of little significance unless the animal is from an established herd and all animals have been tested and found to be negative.
d. if culture negative, can be safely added to a negative herd.
e. the animal should be subjected to a battery of supplemental serological tests immediately and if negative can be safely added to a negative herd.
c. is of little significance unless the animal is from an established herd and all animals have been tested and found to be negative.
156
The Milk Ring Test (BRT) which is periodically conducted on composite milk samples from dairy herds under surveillance:
a. is used in lieu of collecting blood samples since this procedure does not require individual animal tests and it detects infection earlier than do blood tests.
b. Is used for reasons of economy but is not as efficient as a surveillance test as is the market cattle testing system.
c . a suspicious milk ring test is considered presumptive evidence of infection and is followed by a herd blood test.
d. is no longer in general use as a result of drastic increases in dairy herd sizes.
e. in FY 1977, approximately 80% of the herds tested in the U.S. as a result of suspicious milk ring tests disclosed infection on subsequent blood tests.
c . a suspicious milk ring test is considered presumptive evidence of infection and is followed by a herd blood test.
157
Zoonoses may be classified according to life cycle of the pathogen Echinococcosus would be a:
a. cycle zoonosis.
b. direct zoonosis.
c. meta zoonosis.
d. sapro zoonosis.
e. simple zoonosis.
a. cycle zoonosis.
158
For effective mosquito transmission of Malaria, which stage of the parasite must be ingested from the patient through the bite of a female anopheline mosquito?
a. Exoerythrocytic (liver) stage.
b. Sporozoites.
c. Sexual stage blood stage.
d. Asexual stage blood stage.
e. Any of the above.
c. Sexual stage blood stage.
159
The most recent discovery in the understanding of the life cycle and public health importance of Toxoplasma gondii is:
a. all animals susceptible to toxoplasmosis shed infective larvae in the feces.
b. the infective oocyst has only been found in the feces of infected felidae.
c. toxoplasmosis is not capable of congenital transmission to man.
d. salivary enzymes will destroy toxoplasma cysts in meat, so complete cooking is unnecessary.
e. All of the above.
b. the infective oocyst has only been found in the feces of infected felidae.
160
Dirofilaria immitis infection in man is characterized by:
a. parasitemia, where microfilaria may be isolated from the circulating blood.
b. production of “Swimmer’s Itch”, where larval forms penetrate the skin.
c. production of solitary lung lesions resembling carcinoma or tuberculosis.
d. production of vitamin B-12 deficiency and anemia.
e. production of visceral larval migrans and eventual endophthalmitis
c. production of solitary lung lesions resembling carcinoma or tuberculosis.
161
Human Visceral Larval Migrans is caused by the canine helminth:
a. Ancylostoma caninum.
b. Toxocara canis.
c . Strongyloides stercoralis.
d. Trichuris vulpis.
e. Dirofilaria immitis.
b. Toxocara canis.
161
Hydatosis in man is caused by:
a. Taenia solium.
b. Hymenolepis nana.
c. Hymenolepis diminuta.
d. Dipylidium caninum.
e. Echinococcus granulosus.
e. Echinococcus granulosus.
162
An example of viral infection transmitted by an arthropod vector is:
a. Brucellosis.
b. Rift Valley Fever.
c. Foot-and-Mouth Disease.
d. Shigellosis.
e. Anaplasmosis.
b. Rift Valley Fever.
163
Viruses which are widespread among the horse population, but which rarely or only sporadically produce clinical disease, include:
a. Rhinopneumonitis.
b. Influenza A-2.
c. Equine Rhinovirus.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.
c. Equine Rhinovirus.
164
Equine piroplasmosis is clinically indistinguishable from:
a. Equine Encephalomyelitis.
b. Strangles.
c. Glanders.
d. Equine Infectious Anemia.
d. Equine Infectious Anemia.
164
Fowl Plague is caused by:
a. Type B influenza picornavirus.
b. Type A influenza orthomyxovirus.
c. an arbovirus.
d. Yersinia multocida.
e. Yersinia pestis.
b. Type A influenza orthomyxovirus.
164
The study of the biochemical and physiological effects of drugs and their mechanisms of action is properly termed:
a. pharmacokinetics.
b. pharmacognosy.
c. pharmacodynamics.
d. physiopharmacology.
e. bioequivalency.
c. pharmacodynamics.
165
The early serological diagnosis of an infectious disease would most likely be based on the detection of what class of antibodies?
a. Complement fixing.
b. Prexipitating.
c. IG G.
d. IG A.
e. IG M.
e. IG M.
166
Streptobacillary fever is commonly known as:
a. Lassa Fever.
b. Yellow Fever.
c. Breakdown Fever.
d. Rat Bite Fever.
e. Colorado Tick Fever.
d. Rat Bite Fever.
167
Phlebotomus are associated with transmission of what zoonotic disease in man?
a. Herpes Simplex.
b. Leishmaniasis.
c. Plague.
d. Relapsing Fever.
e. Toxoplasmosis.
b. Leishmaniasis.
168
With respect to Tularemia, which of the following is NOT true?
a. The organism may enter through a break in the skin.
b. Wild carnivores are more often infected than wild rodents.
c. Arthropods may transmit the disease.
d. Waterborne outbreaks have been reported.
e. A vaccine is available for high risk laboratory or field workers.
b. Wild carnivores are more often infected than wild rodents.
169
Gambusia affinis has been effective in controlling:
a. rodents.
b. domestic flies.
c. sewage disposal.
d. mosquitoes.
e. ticks.
d. mosquitoes.
170
Food poisoning developing 5-30 minutes after eating the contaminated food is probably due to:
a. Vibrio parahaemolyticus.
b. heavy metal toxicosis.
c. Salmonella spp.
d. Anasakidae.
e. Spirochetales.
b. heavy metal toxicosis.
171
Porcine Parvovirus infections in swine are associated with:
a. rhinitis.
b. reproductive failure.
c. diarrhea.
d. neoplasia.
e. central nervous system signs.
b. reproductive failure.
172
The “lentiviruses” form an important subgroup of retroviruses which include all the following viruses with the exception of:
a. Human T-lymphocytic virus type III.
b. Visna virus.
c. Feline Leukemia virus.
d. Equine Infectious Anemia virus.
e. AIDS virus.
c. Feline Leukemia virus.
173
Human autoinfection is a serious concern with which parasite listed below?
a. Taenia saginata
b. Trichinella spiralis
c. Diphyllobothrium latum
d. Taenia solium
e. Anasakis spp.
d. Taenia solium
