Food Protection Flashcards
(194 cards)
1
Q
What type of bacteria is E. coli?
A
Gram negative rod
2
Q
Shiga toxin-producing Escherichia coli (STEC) (O157:H7) is commonly found where?
A
ruminant and infected human feces, unpasteurized milk and environment
3
Q
Shiga toxin-producing Escherichia coli (STEC) (O157:H7) symptoms include what symptoms and what is the incubation period?
A
Diarrhea , stomach cramps and vomitting
Average of 3-4 days (can be 1-10 days)
4
Q
What is hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) and which bacterial infection is it associated with?
A
decreased frequency of urination, feeling very tired, and losing pink color in cheeks and inside the lower eyelids. Persons with HUS should be hospitalized because their kidneys may stop working and they may develop other serious problems. Most persons with HUS recover within a few weeks, but some suffer permanent damage or die
Shiga toxin-producing Escherichia coli (STEC) (O157:H7)
5
Q
What was the 2021 Shiga toxin-producing Escherichia coli (STEC) (O157:H7) outbreak linked to?
A
Spinach
6
Q
Listeria monocytogenes is what type of bacteria?
A
Gram positive rod
7
Q
Listeria monocytogenes is commonly found where?
A
poultry products, vegetables, etc. it occurs during contact with contaminated animal products or materials on the soil or other fomites
8
Q
Listeria monocytogenes symptoms include what symptoms and what is the incubation period?
A
gastrointestinal conditions to invasive forms such as enteritis, septicemia, nervous conditions, abortion, and death. In healthy individuals, it can be limited to gastroenteritis
Average of 9-48 hours
9
Q
What type of bacteria is Clostridium botulinum?
A
anaerobic, Gram-positive, spore-forming rod
10
Q
Clostridium botulinum is commonly found in what?
A
foods that are incorrectly or minimally processed, honey
11
Q
Clostridium botulinum symptoms include what symptoms and what is the incubation period?
A
Early signs: double vision, drooping eyelids, slurred speech, difficulty swallowing, dry mouth and muscle weakness. If not treated, flaccid paralysis of muscles, which may progress to arms, legs, trunk and respiratory tract. Infants: constipation then flat facial expression, poor feeding (weak sucking), weak cry, decreased movement, trouble swallowing, excessive drooling, muscle weakness and breathing problems.
Average of 18-36h
12
Q
Vibrio vulnificus is what type of bacteria?
A
Gram-negative, curve-shaped bacterium
13
Q
Vibrio vulnificus is commonly found where?
A
estuarine environments and is associated with various marine species, such as plankton, shellfish, crustaceans, and finfish
14
Q
Vibrio vulnificus symptoms include what symptoms and what is the incubation period?
A
GI Illness - Raw or undercooked shellfish, particularly oysters. Present in higher concentrations between May and October when waters are warmer; 80% of infections occur in this timeframe.
average 24h (12h-21d)
Skin infection - Can get it by swimming in salt water or brackish water with an exposed open wound
average 4h (mean time to septicemia is 4 days)
15
Q
Campylobacter jejuni is what type of bacteria?
A
non-sporeforming, Gram-negative rod with a curved- to S-shaped morphology, microaerophillic
16
Q
Campylobacter jejuni is commonly found where?
A
Improperly cooked poultry, unpasteurized milk and cheese, contaminated water
17
Q
Campylobacter jejuni symptoms include what symptoms and what is the incubation period?
A
Fever, diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and vomiting are the major symptoms
Rarely neonatal sepsis or miscarriage
Average is 2-5 days
18
Q
What disease is an uncommon compication of Campylobacter jejuni infection?
A
Approximately 1/2000 cases will develop auto-immune disease Guillian-Barre syndrome
19
Q
Where does Campylobacter jejuni rank in terms of frequency for diarrheal illness in the US?
A
3 overall
#1 bacterial cause
20
Q
Salmonella enterica is what type of bacteria?
A
motile, non-sporeforming, Gram-negative, rod-shaped bacterium
21
Q
Salmonella enterica is commonly found where?
A
meat, poultry, dairy and EGGS
can be spread to any food source through raw egg use, contamination in the kitchen, contamination of water (produce concern)
lizards, turtles, frogs (cross contamination from pets)
culinary frog legs
22
Q
Salmonella enterica symptoms include what symptoms and what is the incubation period?
A
non-typhoidal salmonellosis
Nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramps, diarrhea, fever, headache
6-72h
23
Q
Staphylococcus aureus is what type of bacteria?
A
Gram-positive, nonmotile, catalase-positive, small, spherical bacteria (cocci), which, on microscopic examination, appear in pairs, short chains, or bunched in grape-like clusters
24
Q
Staphylococcus aureus is commonly found where?
A
meat and meat products; poultry and egg products; salads, such as egg, tuna, chicken, potato, and macaroni; bakery products, such as cream‐filled pastries, cream pies, and chocolate éclairs; sandwich fillings; and milk and dairy products
products that are not cooked after handling
25
Staphylococcus aureus food poisoning symptoms include what symptoms and what is the incubation period??
nausea, abdominal cramping, vomiting, and diarrhea
In more severe cases, dehydration, headache, muscle cramping, and transient changes in blood pressure and pulse rate may occur
average 1-7h
26
Clostridium perfringens is what type of bacteria?
anaerobic (but aerotolerant) Gram-positive, spore-forming rod that produces enterotoxin
27
Clostridium perfringens is commonly found where?
Meats (especially beef and poultry), meat-containing products (e.g., gravies and stews), and Mexican foods are important vehicles for C. perfringens foodborne illness, although it is also found on vegetable products, including spices and herbs, and in raw and processed foods. Spores of some C. perfringens strains can survive boiling water for an hour or longer in a relatively protective medium (e.g., a cooked-meat medium).
In most instances, the actual cause of poisoning by this organism is temperature abuse of cooked foods. Small numbers of the organism often are present after the food is cooked, due to germination of its spores, which can survive high heat and can multiply rapidly as a result of a fast doubling time (<10 minutes for vegetative cells), depending on temperature and food matrix. Therefore, during cool-down (109-113°F) and storage of prepared foods, this organism can reach levels that cause food poisoning much more quickly than can other bacteria.
28
Clostridium perfringens symptoms include what symptoms and what is the incubation period?
watery diarrhea and mild abdominal cramps
average 16h
29
Shigella are what type of bacteria?
Gram-negative, non-motile, non-spore forming, rod-shaped bacteria
30
Shigella are commonly found where?
fecally contaminated food or water
commonly transmitted by foods consumed raw; for example, lettuce, or as non-processed ingredients, such as those in a five-layer bean dip. Salads (potato, tuna, shrimp, macaroni, and chicken), milk and dairy products, and poultry also are among the foods that have been associated with shigellosis
31
Shigella symptoms include what symptoms and what is the incubation period?
self-limiting diarrhea (often bloody), fever, and stomach cramps
Severe cases are associated with mucosal ulceration, rectal bleeding, and potentially drastic dehydration.
Average 8-50 hours
32
Shigella infections can rarely lead to what other disease?
reactive arthritis and hemolytic uremic syndrome
33
Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli (EHEC) is what type of bacteria?
Gram-negative, rod-shaped bacteria, but are characterized by the production of Shiga toxins
34
Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli (EHEC) is commonly found where?
Raw or undercooked ground beef and beef products are the vehicles most often implicated in O157:H7 outbreaks
Can be found in raw milk, acid foods (
35
Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli (EHEC) symptoms include what symptoms and what is the incubation period?
Hemorrhagic colitis is characterized by severe cramping (abdominal pain), nausea or vomiting, and diarrhea that initially is watery, but becomes grossly bloody. In some cases, the diarrhea may be extreme, appearing to consist entirely of blood and occurring every 15 to 30 minutes. Fever typically is low-grade or absent.
Average 3-4 days
36
Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC) is what type of bacteria?
highly motile, Gram-negative, rod-shaped bacteria. They are characterized by production of several virulence factors, including both heat-labile (LT) toxin and heat-stable (ST) toxins, as well as several colonization-factor antigens
37
Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC) is commonly found where?
Brie cheese, curried turkey, mayonnaise, crabmeat, deli food, and salads. In most of these cases, foods became contaminated with ETEC via infected food handlers or through the use of contaminated water during preparation
38
Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC) symptoms include what type of symptoms and what is the incubation period?
sudden onset of diarrhea that is watery and without blood or mucus, rarely accompanied by high fever or vomiting. Other symptoms include abdominal cramps, low-grade fever, nausea, and malaise
Average 26h (range 8-44h).
39
Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC) is commonly called what what disease?
"Traveler's diarrhea"
40
Vibrio cholerae is what type of bacteria?
Gram-negative, slightly curved, rod-shaped bacteria that occur naturally in aquatic environments
41
Vibrio cholerae is commonly found where?
molluscan shellfish (oysters, mussels, and clams), crab, lobster, shrimp, squid, and finfish. Illness generally results from consumption of these seafoods raw, improperly cooked, or cross contaminated by a raw product.
In areas where V. cholerae serogroup O1 and/or O139 is endemic, infections can occur from ingestion of water; ice; unwashed, contaminated food; and seafood.
42
Vibrio cholerae symptoms include what type of symptoms and what is the incubation period?
serogroups O1 and O139 are responsible for epidemics and pandemic cholera outbreaks
abdominal discomfort and diarrhea that may vary from mild and watery to acute, with rice-water stools. Vomiting also occurs in some cases
average a few hours to 3 days
43
Yersinia enterocolitica is what type of bacteria?
small, rod-shaped, Gram-negative bacteria
44
Yersinia enterocolitica is commonly found where?
meats (pork, beef, lamb, etc.), oysters, fish, crabs, and raw milk
poor sanitation and improper sterilization techniques by food handlers, including improper storage, may be a source of contamination. Raw or undercooked pork products have drawn much attention as a source of Y. enterocolitica, and Y. pseudotuberculosis, particularly since Y. enterocolitica has been associated with pigs.
45
Yersinia enterocolitica symptoms include what type of symptoms and what is the incubation period?
nonspecific, self-limiting diarrhea
Most symptomatic infections occur in children younger than 5 years old. Yersiniosis in these children is frequently characterized as gastroenteritis, with diarrhea and/or vomiting; however, fever and abdominal pain are the hallmark symptoms.
Average 1-11 days
46
Yersinia enterolitica infection can rarely lead to what other diseases?
reactive arthritis; glomerulonephritis; endocarditis; erythema nodosum (which occurs predominantly in women); uveitis; thyroid disorders, such as Graves’ disease; hyperthyroidism; nontoxic goiter; and Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
47
Brucella is what type of bacteria?
small, Gram-negative, short, non-sporeforming coccobacilli.
48
Brucella are commonly found where?
usually associated with consumption of unpasteurized milk and soft cheeses made from the milk of infected animals
49
Brucella symptoms include what type of symptoms and what is the incubation period?
Potential initial signs of illness include intermittent (i.e., “undulant”) fever, chills, sweating, weakness, malaise, headache, and joint and muscle pain.
Average 3 weeks
50
GI Anthrax is what kind of bacteria?
gram-positive, rod-shaped
51
GI Anthrax is commonly found where?
raw or undercooked meat from an animal infected with anthrax
52
GI Anthrax symptoms include what type of symptoms and what is the incubation period?
Fever and chills
Swelling of neck or neck glands
Sore throat
Painful swallowing
Hoarseness
Nausea and vomiting, especially bloody vomiting
Diarrhea or bloody diarrhea
Headache
Flushing (red face) and red eyes
Stomach pain
Fainting
Swelling of abdomen (stomach)
Average 1-7 days
53
Salmonella typhi is what kind of bacteria?
motile, non-sporeforming, Gram-negative, rod-shaped bacterium in the family Enterobacteriaceae
54
Salmonella typhi is commonly found where?
sewage‐contaminated drinking water, or crops irrigated with sewage‐contaminated water
55
Salmonella typhi symptoms include what kind of symptoms and what is the incubation period?
High fever, from 103° to 104°F; lethargy; gastrointestinal symptoms, including abdominal pains and diarrhea or constipation; headache; achiness; loss of appetite. A rash of flat, rose-colored spots sometimes occurs.
7-14d
56
Cronobacter, formerly Enterobacter sakazakii, is what type of bacteria?
Gram-negative, motile, rod-shaped, non-sporulating pathogenic bacterium
57
Cronobacter, formerly Enterobacter sakazakii, is commonly found where?
contaminated powdered infant formula products
58
Cronobacter, formerly Enterobacter sakazakii, symptoms include what kind of symptoms and what is the incubation period?
poor feeding response, irritability, jaundice, grunting respirations, instability of body temperature, seizures, brain abscess, hydrocephalus, and developmental delay
Average a few days
59
Lepto is what kind of bacteria?
spiral-shaped, Gram-negative spirochete with internal flagella
60
Lepto is commonly found where?
Food or water contaminated with infected animal urine
61
Lepto symptoms include what kind of symptoms and what is the incubation period?
High fever
Headache
Chills
Muscle aches
Vomiting
Jaundice (yellow skin and eyes)
Red eyes
Abdominal pain
Diarrhea
Rash
Average 2-4 days
62
Coxiella burnetii is what type of bacteria?
Gram-negative, obligate intracellular bacterium,
63
GI Coxiella burnetii is commonly found where?
ingestion of contaminated unpasteurized milk or dairy products
64
GI Coxiella burnetii symptoms include what kind of symptoms and what is the incubation period?
very high fever (105°F); severe headaches; muscle aches; chills; profuse sweating; nausea, vomiting, and/or diarrhea; a dry cough; and abdominal and/or chest pain.
Average 20 days (may be as soon as 14d)
65
Coxiella burnetii infection is typically called what disease?
Q fever
66
Astrovirus causes what disease?
Gastroenteritis in children and the elderly
67
Astrovirus is found in what food products and circumstances?
Fecal-Oral via contaminated food, water or fomites
68
Astrovirus causes what symptoms and what is the incubation period?
diarrhoea, followed by nausea, vomiting, fever, malaise and abdominal pain
Average 3-4 days
69
Hepatitis A causes what disease?
Hepatitis A
70
Hepatitis A is found in what food products and circumstances?
HAV is excreted in feces of infected people and can produce clinical disease when susceptible people consume contaminated water or foods. Cold cuts and sandwiches, fruits and fruit juices, milk and milk products, vegetables, salads, shellfish, and iced drinks are commonly implicated in outbreaks. Water, shellfish, and salads are the most frequent sources. Contamination of foods by infected workers in food-processing plants and restaurants also is common.
71
Hepatitis A causes what symptoms and what is the incubation period?
fever, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, myalgia, hepatitis, and, often, jaundice
Average 30 days (range 15 to 50 days)
72
Norovirus causes what disease?
Stomach Flu
73
Norovirus is found in what food products and circumstances?
contaminated water, including municipal water, well water, stream water, commercial ice, lake water, and swimming pool or recreational surface-water exposure, as well as floodwater.
Salad ingredients, fruit, and oysters are the foods most often implicated in norovirus outbreaks. However, any ready-to-eat food that is that is handled by ill food workers may be contaminated.
The rapid spread of secondary infections is particularly evident in areas where a large population is enclosed within a static environment, such as in institutions, college campuses, schools, military operations, hotels, restaurants, recreational camps, hospitals, nursing homes, day-care facilities, and cruise ships, and after natural disasters, such as hurricanes and earthquakes.
74
Norovirus causes what symptoms and what is the incubation period?
acute-onset vomiting (often explosive); watery, non-bloody diarrhea with abdominal cramps; and nausea.
average 24-48h
75
Rotavirus causes what disease?
Acute gastroenteritis
76
Rotavirus is found in what food products and circumstances?
person-to-person fecal-oral spread is the most important means of transmission, but foods such as salads, fruits, and hors d’oevres that do not require further cooking and are handled by an infected food worker also may transmit rotaviruses.
77
Rotavirus causes what symptoms and what is the incubation period?
self-limiting, mild, watery diarrhea, with complete recovery, to severe disease characterized by vomiting, watery diarrhea, and fever, which can lead to dehydration, hypovolemic shock, and, in severe cases, death
Average less than 48h
78
Sapovirus causes what disease?
acute gastroenteritis (AGE), acute nonbacterial infectious gastroenteritis and viral gastroenteritis
79
Sapovirus is found in what food products and circumstances?
fecal-oral route via person-to-person contact or ingestion of contaminated foods and water. Food handlers may contaminate foods that are not further cooked before consumption.
80
Sapovirus causes what symptoms and what is the incubation period?
May include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, malaise, abdominal pain, headache, and fever
Average 10-70hours
81
Cryptosporidium causes what disease?
Cryptosporidiosis
82
Cryptosporidium is found in what food products and circumstances?
water (drinking water and recreational water)
83
Cryptosporidium causes what symptoms and what is the incubation period?
Watery diarrhea
Stomach cramps or pain
Dehydration
Nausea
Vomiting
Fever
Incubation period of 2 to 10 days (average 7 days)
84
Cyclospora cayetanensis causes what disease?
Cyclosporiasis
85
Cyclospora cayetanensis is found in what food products and circumstances?
Cyclospora spreads when people eat food or drink water that was contaminated with feces (stool).
People may be at an increased risk for infection when living or traveling in tropical or subtropical regions of the world where cyclosporiasis is endemic (regularly occurring within an area or region).
In the US, outbreaks of cyclosporiasis have been linked to various types of fresh produce. People can get infected with Cyclospora more than once.
86
Cyclospora cayetanensis causes what symptoms and what is the incubation period?
Loss of appetite
Weight loss
Abdominal cramping/bloating
Increased flatus
Nausea
Prolonged fatigue
Other symptoms can include
Vomiting
Body aches
Low-grade fever
Other flu-like symptoms
Among symptomatic persons, the incubation period averages one week (ranging as soon as 2 days – 2 weeks or more).
87
Giardia intestinalis causes what disease?
giardiasis
88
Giardia intestinalis is found in what food products and circumstances?
Chief pathways of human infection include ingestion of untreated drinking water (which is the most common method of transmission for this parasite), food, soil contaminated with human feces, and sewage, a phenomenon particularly common in many developing countries.[
89
Giardia intestinalis causes what symptoms and what is the incubation period?
The spectrum varies from asymptomatic carriage to severe diarrhea and malabsorption.
Acute giardiasis develops after an incubation period of 1 to 14 days (average of 7 days) and usually lasts 1 to 3 weeks.
Symptoms include diarrhea, abdominal pain, bloating, nausea, and vomiting. In chronic giardiasis the symptoms are recurrent and malabsorption and debilitation may occur.
90
Toxoplasma gondii causes what disease?
Toxoplasmosis
91
Toxoplasma gondii is found in what food products and circumstances?
Foodborne transmission: eating contaminated undercooked meat or shellfish or unwashed contaminated fresh produce
Animal to human transmission: accidentally consuming the parasite through contact with cat feces (poop) or contaminated soil that contains Toxoplasma
Mother-to-child (congenital) transmission: when a newly infected mother passes the infection to their unborn child
Other modes of transmission: receiving an infected organ transplant or infected blood via transfusion (though this is rare)
92
Toxoplasma gondii causes what symptoms and what is the incubation period?
Those with symptoms may experience flu-like symptoms, swollen lymph nodes, muscle aches, and pains.
Severe toxoplasmosis causes damage to the brain, eyes, or other organs.
Ocular (eye) toxoplasmosis can cause damage to the eye.
Incubation period is 5–23 days
93
Trichinella spp. causes what disease?
Trichinosis
94
Trichinella spp. is found in what food products and circumstances?
Typically under cooked pork products, but can be found in game meats such as bear, wild boar and walrus.
95
Trichinella spp. causes what symptoms and what is the incubation period?
During the initial infection, invasion of the intestines can result in diarrhea, abdominal pain, and vomiting. Migration of larvae to muscle, which occurs about a week after being infected, can cause swelling of the face, inflammation of the whites of the eyes, fever, muscle pains, and a rash.
A large burden of adult worms in the intestines promotes symptoms such as nausea, heartburn, dyspepsia, and diarrhea from two to seven days after infection, while small worm burdens generally are asymptomatic. Eosinophilia presents early and increases rapidly.
Trichinosis can be fatal depending on the severity of the infection; death can occur 4–6 weeks after the infection, and is usually caused by myocarditis, encephalitis, or pneumonia.
96
Amebiasis causes what disease?
amoebic dysentery
97
Amebiasis is found in what food products and circumstances?
Typically in tropical areas with poor sanitation. can be found in:
Fountain drinks or any drinks with ice cubes
Fresh fruit or vegetables you didn't peel yourself
Milk, cheese, and dairy products that may not have been pasteurized
Food or drinks sold by street vendors
98
Amebiasis causes what symptoms and what is the incubation period?
Only about 10% to 20% of people infected with E. histolytica become ill. Even then, symptoms are often mild. They can include diarrhea, stomach pain, and stomach cramping. Symptoms usually develop within 2 to 4 weeks but can show up later.
A severe form of amebiasis called amebic dysentery can cause stomach pain, bloody poop, and fever.
Rarely, E. histolytica travels through the blood stream to the liver and forms an abscess (collection of pus). In a small number of instances, the parasite has spread to other parts of the body, including the lungs and brain.
99
Anisakiasis causes what disease?
Anisakiasis (also known as herring worm disease)
100
Anisakiasis is found in what food products and circumstances?
When humans eat raw or undercooked infected fish or squid, they consume the nematode larvae, which can invade the gastrointestinal tract. Eventually, the parasite dies and produces an inflamed mass in the esophagus, stomach, or intestine.
People cannot spread anisakiasis to one another.
101
Anisakiasis causes what symptoms and what is the incubation period?
People with anisakiasis can experience signs and symptoms such as
Abdominal pain
Nausea
Vomiting
Abdominal distention (abnormal abdominal expansion)
Diarrhea
Blood and mucus in stool
Mild fever
People can also experience allergic reactions such as
Rashes
Itching
Infrequently anaphylaxis (a severe, life-threatening allergic reaction)
Some people experience a tingling sensation during or after eating raw or undercooked fish or squid. This sensation is actually the worm moving in the mouth or throat. People can often take the worm out of their mouth themselves or cough it up to prevent infection. Some people experience vomiting, which can often expel the worm from the body.
Incubation typically 1-12 hours
102
Ascaris causes what disease?
Ascariasis
103
Ascariasis is found in what food products and circumstances?
a person has to come into contact with soil mixed with human or pig feces that contain ascariasis eggs or infected water.
104
Ascariasis causes what symptoms and what is the incubation period?
Most people infected with ascariasis have no signs or symptoms. Moderate to heavy infestations cause various signs or symptoms, depending on which part of your body is affected.
In the lungs
After you swallow the tiny (microscopic) ascariasis eggs, they hatch in the small intestine and the larvae migrate through the bloodstream or lymphatic system into the lungs. At this stage, you may experience signs and symptoms similar to asthma or pneumonia, including:
Persistent cough
Shortness of breath
Wheezing
After spending 10 to 14 days in the lungs, the larvae travel to the throat, where you cough them up and then swallow them.
In the intestines
The larvae mature into adult worms in the small intestine, and the adult worms typically live in the intestines until they die. In mild or moderate ascariasis, the intestinal infestation can cause:
Vague abdominal pain
Nausea and vomiting
Diarrhea or bloody stools
If you have a large number of worms in the intestine, you might have:
Severe abdominal pain
Fatigue
Vomiting
Weight loss or malnutrition
A worm in your vomit or stool
The whole process of the complete life cycle can take two to three months.
105
Angiostrongylus cantonensis causes what disease?
Angiostrongyliasis (eosinophilic meningitis or meningoencephalitis)
106
Angiostrongylus cantonensis is found in what food products and circumstances?
Humans are incidental hosts of this roundworm, and may become infected through ingestion of larvae in raw or undercooked snails or other vectors, or from contaminated water and vegetables.
107
Trichinella spp. causes what symptoms and what is the incubation period?
trichinosis (also known as trichinellosis
Migration of larvae to muscle, which occurs about a week after being infected, can cause swelling of the face, inflammation of the whites of the eyes, fever, muscle pains, and a rash
Enteral phase
A large burden of adult worms in the intestines promotes symptoms such as nausea, heartburn, dyspepsia, and diarrhea from two to seven days after infection, while small worm burdens generally are asymptomatic. Eosinophilia presents early and increases rapidly.[13]
Parenteral phase
The severity of symptoms caused by larval migration from the intestines depends on the number of larvae produced. As the larvae migrate through tissue and vessels, the body's inflammatory response results in edema, muscle pain, fever, and weakness. A classic sign of trichinosis is periorbital edema, swelling around the eyes, which may be caused by vasculitis. Splinter hemorrhage in the nails is also a common symptom.[14]
They may very rarely cause enough damage to produce serious neurological deficits (such as ataxia or respiratory paralysis) from worms entering the central nervous system (CNS), which is compromised by trichinosis in 10–24% of reported cases of cerebral venous sinus thrombosis, a very rare form of stroke (three or four cases per million annual incidence in adults).[15] Trichinosis can be fatal depending on the severity of the infection; death can occur 4–6 weeks after the infection,[16] and is usually caused by myocarditis, encephalitis, or pneumonia.[17]
108
The FALCPA is the Act that gives the ______ power to require food companies to label products that contain the _____ major types of allergens. In 2021, Congress passed FASTER, which adds _______ to this list of allergen types and will go into effect in 2023.
a. FDA, 5, strawberries
b. USDA, 8, mustard
c. CDC, 7, sunflower seeds
d. FDA, 8, sesame seeds
d. FDA, 8, sesame seeds
109
The Codex Alimentarius is:
a. A code of nutritional standards for domestic livestock species developedby the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations, WorldHealth Organization (WHO).
b. An internationally agreed upon set of standards, codes of practice,guidelines, and recommendations for food.
c. A set of standards, code of practice, guidelines, and recommendationsdeveloped by the Pan American Health Organization (PAHO) for food.
d. A code of human nutritional standards developed by the UN/WHO/FAOfor use in developing nations.
e. A set of animal health regulations developed by the Pan American Health Organization (PAHO)
b. An internationally agreed upon set of standards, codes of practice,guidelines, and recommendations for food.
110
The FDA’s Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetics Act requires that pet foods meet which one or more of the following standards: (select all that apply)
a. Produced under sanitary conditions
b. Be truthfully labeled
c. Do not contain harmful substances
d. Be safe to eat
a. Produced under sanitary conditions
b. Be truthfully labeled
c. Do not contain harmful substances
d. Be safe to eat
111
Revivicor, a company in Virginia, received approval in 2021 from the FDA to start limited production of ________.
a. Milk that has undergone processing to remove lactose.
b. Hypoallergenic catfish
c. Chicken that are resistant to Salmonella infection
d. Pigs genetically modified to not produce alpha-gal
d. Pigs genetically modified to not produce alpha-gal
112
True or False: Infant botulism is caused by the ingestion of Clostridium botulinum spores, and botulism in older children and adults is most commonly caused by the ingestion of food containing the toxins made by Clostridium botulinum.
True
113
What toxin was responsible for the large pet food recall in 2020-2021 involving Midwestern Pet Foods?
a. Ricin
b. Slaframine
c. Melamine
d. Aflatoxin
e. Fumonisin
f. Deoxynivalenol
d. Aflatoxin
113
This pathogen is one of the most common causes of foodborne disease and is associated with Guillain-Barre syndrome.
a.Salmonella sp.
b.Campylobacter jejuni
c.Staphylococcus aureus
d.Streptococcus sp
b.Campylobacter jejuni
114
Which factor does not affect the growth of microorganisms?
a. Water activity
b. PH
c . Temperature
d. Pathogenicity
d. Pathogenicity
115
In 1993, an outbreak of __________ poisoning from undercooked hamburger meat resulted in many cases of illness and some deaths in the Washington state area.
a.Clostridium botulinum
b.Salmonella
c.E coli 0157:H7
d. Listeria monocytogenes
c.E coli 0157:H7
116
Which of these organisms is a spore former?
a.Staphylococcus aureus
b.Mycobacterium bovis
c.Streptococcus A
d.Clostridium perfringens
e.Listeria monocytogenes
d.Clostridium perfringens
117
The following foodborne pathogen is usually associated with ready-to-eat meats. Other modes of transmission include ingestion of contaminated soft cheeses, vegetables, and milk. Contamination is usually a post-processing problem. Its ability to grow at temperatures as low as 3 C permits multiplication in refrigerated foods.
a.Listeria monocytogenes
b.Escherichia coli 0157
c.Salmonella sp.
d.Staphylococcus aureus
e.Yersinia enterocolitica
a.Listeria monocytogenes
118
The organism responsible for producing heat labile (LT) and heat stable (ST) enterotoxins is which of the following?
a. EnteropathogenicE.coli (EPEC)
b. EnteroinvasiveE. coli (EIEC)
c. EnterotoxigenicE.coli (ETEC)
d. EnteropathogenicE. coli (EPEC)
EnterotoxigenicE.coli (ETEC)
119
What is the "danger zone" range of temperature in food handling"
a. 50 - 100 deg F
b. 80 - 120 deg F
c. 40 - 140 deg F
d. 100 - 212 deg F
c. 40 - 140 deg F
120
Which of the following groups has the lowest risk for food-borne illness:
a. Young adults
b. The elderly
c. Infants
d. Individuals with AIDS
a. Young adults
121
True or False:
Symptoms of Salmonella poisoning occur within 2-6 hours of food ingestion.
False
Onset: 6 to 72 hours after exposure.
121
A person with a food-borne illness should contact a physician if:
a. blood is present in the stool
b. fever is 102 deg F or greater
c. symptoms persist for more than 2-3 days
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
122
Symptoms of Staphylococcus aureus poisoning occur within ______hours of food ingestion.
a. 1-7
b. 10-15
c. 12-36
d. 24-72
a. 1-7
123
True or False:
You can usually tell from a food's taste, odor, or appearance if that food poses a risk for food-borne illness.
False
124
True or False:
A harmful parasite found in raw fish is Anisakis.
True
How to avoid Anisakidosis
The CDC says the only way to be certain of avoiding parasites and bacteria is to eatyour fish well-cooked.
The FDA offers these recommendations to kill parasites:
Cooking fish:
Cook seafood to an internal temperature of at least 145 F.
Freezing fish:
●At -4 F or below for 7 days (total time), or
●At -31 F or below until solid, and storing at -31 F (-35 C) or below for 15 hours, or
●At -31 F (-35 C) or below until solid and storing at -4 F (-20 C) or below for 24hours.
125
True or False:
Separate cooking boards should be used for cutting raw meat, poultry, fish vs raw vegetables and fruits.
True
125
Public health professionals consider the most significant type of bacteria found in drinking water supplies to be:
a. Bacillus sp.
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Clostridium botulinum
d. Clostridium sporogenes
e. Escherichia coli
e. Escherichia coli
126
Cell-cultured meat products are food products crated from a small number of cells taken from living animals, which cells are then grown in a controlled environment to produce food. What organizations regulate the collection, differentiations of cells, processing and packaging of the products (choose all that apply)?
a. FDA
b. APHIS
c. ARS
d. FSIS
a. FDA
d. FSIS
127
According to present day standards, the most reliable indication that apasteurizer is operating efficiently would be to:
a. show that only traces of the enzyme alkaline phosphatase are present in the milk as it comes from the pasteurizer
b. show that the pasteurizer reduces the total plate count of the raw milk 99.44%
c. install U.S. Bureau of Standards certified thermocouples in the pasteurizer and show that a temperature of 145°F is maintained for 30 minutes
d. show that no coliform bacteria are detectable in the pasteurized milk
e. inoculate the raw milk with the tubercle bacilli and show that they cannot beisolated from the pasteurized milk
a. show that only traces of the enzyme alkaline phosphatase are present in the milk as it comes from the pasteurizer
128
What percentage of milk tanker loads are tested for antibiotics?
a. 50%
b. 25%
c. 100%
d. 10%
c. 100%
129
The pasteurization temperature/times established by the USPHS milk ordinance and code are keyed into the conditions necessary to destroy the organisms of:
a. Coxiella burnetii
b. Foot and Mouth Disease
c. Clostridium botulinum
d. Toxoplasma gondii
e. Escherichia coli
a. Coxiella burnetii
129
The ionizing radiation used to preserve food is: (choose all that apply)
a. Electron beam
b. Alpha rays
c. X rays
d. Gamma rays
e. Beta rays
a. Electron beam
c. X rays
d. Gamma rays
130
Grayanotoxin poisoning is associated with:
a. Consumption of honey produced from the pollen and nectar of rhododendrons
b. Eating sub-tropical Bar Jack fish
c. Eating improperly chilled Tuna or Mahi Mahi
d. Eating improperly cooked Escolar fish
a. Consumption of honey produced from the pollen and nectar of rhododendrons
130
Foodborne staphylococcal illness results from the ingestion of preformed:
a. Enterotoxins
b. Aflatoxins
c. Endotoxins
d. Alphatoxins
a. Enterotoxins
131
Which of the following statements concerning the irradiation of foods is correct?
a. 0-50 kGy is needed to kill bacterial spores
b. Higher oxygen concentrations in/on foods leads to a more lethal effect of radiation on microorganisms
c. Electron beam radiation penetrates food products up to 12”
d. A and C
e. A and B
f. None of the above
e. A and B
Note: Electron beam radiation only penetrates about 1.5" Gama radiation can penetrate up to several feet
132
To guarantee the safety and quality of frozen foods, they may be thawed in any of the following manners EXCEPT:
a. Under refrigeration, at temperatures below 45 degrees Fahrenheit.
b. In a microwave oven, if final cooking occurs immediately after thawing.
c. By immersing in hot water, at least 100 degrees Fahrenheit, overnight.
d. As part of the conventional cooking process.
e. By immersing in cold water, changing water every 30 minutes.
c. By immersing in hot water, at least 100 degrees Fahrenheit, overnight.
133
Which of the following is false in regard to fermentation.
a. It is the conversion of carbohydrates to simpler compounds by microbes under aerobic conditions.
b. Microbes produce organic acids, peroxides, and bacteriocins, which inhibit the growth and survival of other microbial species.
c. It is commonly used in a variety of common foods, such as beer, yogurt, summersausage, and salamis.
d. The process primarily exerts a preservation effect by increasing the acidity offoods, thus decreases the pH.
e. The temperature and humidity are controlled to allow a stater culture, whichproduces lactic acid and compete with other microbes that might result in spoilageof the product or might be pathogenic.
a. It is the conversion of carbohydrates to simpler compounds by microbes under aerobic conditions.
134
Which of the following statements is false regarding molds.
a. Molds and yeasts do not commonly appear to be responsible for any meat or
poultry related foodborne illnesses.
b. Aspergillus flavus and Aspergillus parasiticus produce heat-stable toxin.
c. Food-related illness due to molds tend to be associated with berries and leafy greens.
d. Even with low moisture, dry pet foods can be contaminated with aflatoxins and are recalled by the U.S. Food and Drug Association.
e. Aflatoxicosis can be life threatening and may result in nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, convulsions, and other signs of acute liver injury.
c. Food-related illness due to molds tend to be associated with berries and leafy greens.
135
Which of the following should not be done when dealing with canned goods that have been exposed to flood waters?
a. Thoroughly cook food inside of cans that are cracked prior to consuming.
b. Inspect all cans and dispose of any cans that are damaged.
c. Remove labels as they can harbor dirt and bacteria.
d. Brush or wipe away dirt or silt and wash cans or retort pouches with soap and water prior to opening.
a. Thoroughly cook food inside of cans that are cracked prior to consuming.
Dont eat any food from a cracked can!!!!!
136
How can water be consumed safely in a flooded area?
a. If it’s clear, then it can be assumed safe to drink.
b. Use bottled water that has not come in contact with flood water.
c. Boil for 30 seconds prior to drinking.
d. Boil for 1 minute or add a disinfectant
e. B and C
f. B and D
f. B and D
136
At a cull cow facility, a carcass has been railed out for veterinarian disposition.Upon examination, the heart has minimal epicardial fat and the atria muscle havemulti-focal areas of dark brown areas, some coalescing into larger areas andextending down into the ventricles. No other notable observations are made. Whatis the final disposition?
a. Pass the carcass for food after cooking.
b. Condemn the heart and pass the carcass for food after cooking.
c. Condemn the heart and pass the carcass with no restrictions.
d. Condemn the carcass
c. Condemn the heart and pass the carcass with no restrictions.
137
At a high-speed market hog facility, a carcass has been railed out for veterinarian disposition. Upon examination, a 2cm by 4cm dark mass is present on the shoulder. Upon slicing through the mass, the black pigment can be seen in the dermis. The draining lymph node also has dark pigment. No other notable observations are made. What is the final disposition?
a. Pass the carcass for food after cooking.
b. Condemn the mass and associated tissues and pass the carcass for food after cooking.
c. Condemn the mass and associated tissues and pass the carcass with no restrictions.
d. Condemn the carcass.
c. Condemn the mass and associated tissues and pass the carcass with no restrictions.
138
Identify the bacteria associated with Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome (select all that apply)
a. Campylobacter spp.
b. non-typhoidal Salmonella
c. Shigella spp
d. Shiga-toxin producing E. coli (STEC)
e. Yersinia entercolitica
d. Shiga-toxin producing E. coli (STEC)
139
Identify the bacteria associated with Reactive Arthritis (select all that apply)
a. Campylobacter spp.
b. non-typhoidal Salmonella
c. Shigella spp
d. Shiga-toxin producing E. coli (STEC)
e. Yersinia entercolitica
a. Campylobacter spp.
b. non-typhoidal Salmonella
c. Shigella spp
e. Yersinia entercolitica
140
Identify the bacteria associated with Hemolytic Guillain-Barre Syndrome (select all that apply)
a. Campylobacter spp.
b. non-typhoidal Salmonella
c. Shigella spp
d. Shiga-toxin producing E. coli (STEC)
e. Yersinia entercolitica
a. Campylobacter spp.
141
Identify the bacteria associated with Irritable Bowel Syndrome (select all that apply)
a. Campylobacter spp.
b. non-typhoidal Salmonella
c. Shigella spp
d. Shiga-toxin producing E. coli (STEC)
e. Yersinia entercolitica
a. Campylobacter spp.
b. non-typhoidal Salmonella
c. Shigella spp
142
Place the following foodborne pathogens in order of shortest to longest incubation periods.
Bacillus cereus
Campylobacter
Clostridium perfringens
Escherichia coli (Shiga-toxin producing)
Hepatitis A
Norovirus
Salmonella
Shigella spp.
Staphylococcus aureus
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
Bacillus cereus (1-28h mean 4h)
Staphylococcus aureus (2-8h mean 4h)
Clostridium perfringens (8-13 mean 10h)
Vibrio parahaemolyticus (11-33 h mean 17h)
Norovirus (27-37h mean 32h)
Salmonella (17-67h mean 32h)
Shigella spp. (31-53h mean 45h)
Campylobacter spp. (37-92h mean 62h)
E. coli (STEC) (57-112h mean 87h)
Hepatitis A (24-31d mean 28d)
143
The most common bacterial pathogen associated with home canned goods.
a. Salmonella
b. STEC
c. Hepatitis A
d. Norovirus
e. Clostridium
e. Clostridium
144
Which of the following has NOT been associated with Listeria outbreaks orrecalls.
a. Soft cheeses
b. Deli meat and hot dogs
c. Ice cream
d. Bacon
e. Leafy greens
f. Hard-boiled eggs
g. All have been associated with recalls
h. None have been associated with recalls
g. All have been associated with recalls
145
On postmortem examination, a well-nourished cow is found to have numerouslesions of tuberculosis of the same size throughout both lungs and in thebronchial and mediastinal lymph nodes. A careful search reveals no otherlesions elsewhere in the carcass. According to current USDA regulations, whichof the following is the most appropriate disposition?
a. Pass the carcass without restriction after condemning the lungs
b. Pass the carcass for refrigeration, after condemning the lungs
c. Condemn the lungs; pass the carcass for cooking
d. Condemn the entire carcass
e. Pass the rear quarters for cooking; condemn the forequarters
d. Condemn the entire carcass
146
A swine carcass is found on postmortem examination to be affected with Cysticercus cellulose. Only two cysts are found in the heart. A careful search reveals no others. According to current USDA regulations, which of the following is the most acceptable disposition?
a. Condemn the entire carcass
b .Pass the entire carcass without restriction
c. Pass the entire carcass for appropriate refrigeration
d. Condemn the heart, pass the carcass without restriction
e. Pass the carcass for cooking
e. Pass the carcass for cooking
147
A friend who dined at a seafood restaurant 3 hours ago calls to describe experiencing a strange tingling and numbness of the lips, tongue and fingertips. These symptoms suggest an etiologic agent of:
a.Scombroid toxin or ciguatoxin
b.Tetrodotoxin or saxitoxin
c.Mullet toxicosis
d.Clostridium type E toxin
e.Oyster poisoning
a.Scombroid toxin or ciguatoxin
148
The first step in investigating an outbreak of disease is to:
a.Institute treatment
b.Confirm the existence of an outbreak
c.Institute controls and prevention
d.Search for causes
e.Determine the number of cases
b.Confirm the existence of an outbreak
149
Clostridium botulinum type E has been demonstrated to have a particularly close association with:
a.Pork and pork products
b.Cooked beef and gravy
c.Fish and fish products
d.Poultry and poultry products
e.Home canned vegetables
c.Fish and fish products
150
The occurrence of coliform organisms in pasteurized milk indicates:
a.Fecal contamination
b.Product unfit for human consumption
c.Post-pasteurization contamination
d.Likelihood of the product containing other pathogens
e.All of the above
e.All of the above
151
During pasteurization of milk, HTST processing heats the milk to ____oF for a time period of _____ , per PMO regulations.
a.284’F, 4 seconds
b.145’F, 30 minutes
c.161’F, 1 second
d.161’F, 15 seconds
d.161’F, 15 seconds
152
Seafood consumption has been documented to be a source for the following disease in humans:
a.Cholera and typhoid
b.Schistosomiasis and mycoplasmosis
c.Toxoplasmosis and mycoplasmosis
d.Tuberculosis and anthracosis
e.Anthrax and tetanus
a.Cholera and typhoid
153
The Easter Bunny wants to get a head start on planning his Easter deliveries. Heremembers that the baby chicks he’ll put in his baskets are inspected by
______, the_____ regulates shell eggs, the____ regulates egg products, and the_____ regulates chocolate candy eggs.
a.USDA, USDA, FDA, FDA
b.USDA, USDA, USDA, FDA
c.FDA, FDA, FDA, FDA, FDA
d.USDA, FDA, USDA, FDA
e.USDA, FDA, FDA, FDA
d.USDA, FDA, USDA, FDA
154
The agency responsible for the Pasteurized Milk Ordinance regulations:
a. FDA
b.EPA
c.USDA-FSIS
d.USDA-APHIS
a. FDA
155
Which of the following are considered adulterants by USDA FSIS? (Choose all that apply.)
a.Listeria monocytogenes
b.Salmonella spp.
c.STEC
d.Campylobacter jejuni
a.Listeria monocytogenes
b.Salmonella spp.
c.STEC
156
Illness due Staphylococcus aureus in food products generally presents with the following symptoms:
a.Self-limiting vomiting, diarrhea and cramping, with an onset of 1-7 hours after ingestion of the heat-stable toxin
b.Mild abdominal pain, and watery diarrhea beginning approximately 16 hours after ingestion.
c.Explosive diarrhea, vomiting, and myalgia with low grade fever and chills, 24to 48 hours after ingestion.
d.Fever, diarrhea (possibly bloody), and abdominal cramps 2-5 days post
a.Self-limiting vomiting, diarrhea and cramping, with an onset of 1-7 hours after ingestion of the heat-stable toxin
156
The microorganism most resistant to ionizing radiation is:
a.STECs
b.Clostridium botulinum spores
c.Salmonella spp.
d.Staphylococcus aureus
e.Listeria monocytogenes
b.Clostridium botulinum spores
157
Food-borne illness caused by Clostridium perfringens is associated with the food service industry or events where large quantities of food are prepared.
True or False
True
158
One of the most common food-borne illnesses from undercooked poultry and eggs is:
a.Trichinella
b.Salmonella
c.Clostridium perfringens
d.Clostridium botulinum
b.Salmonella
159
Which of the statements is false about Norovirus:
a. Commonly associated with cruise ships
.b. Leading cause of vomiting, diarrhea, and foodborne illness in U.S.
c. High infectious dose and high attack rate
d. Commonly transmitted by contaminated food, direct contact with infected stool or contaminated surfaces
e. Quick onset, sometimes within 12 hours
c. High infectious dose and high attack rate
has a LOW infectious dose and a high attack rate
160
Which Hepatitis virus is associated with foodborne illness.
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
a. Hepatitis A
The others are associated with the following:
b. Hepatitis B- blood or body fluids of an infected persons (unprotected sex,needles) Not by sharing food or coughing
c. Hepatitis C- blood of an infected person (needles)
161
Match the toxic principle that causes the following poisonings:
a. Amnesic Shellfish Poisoning –
b. Diarrhetic Shellfish Poisoning –
c. Neurotoxic Shellfish Poisoning –
d. Paralytic Shellfish Poisoning –
i. brevetoxins
ii. domoic acidc
iii. okadaic acid
iv. saxitoxins
a. Amnesic Shellfish Poisoning – domoic acidc
b. Diarrhetic Shellfish Poisoning – okadaic acid
c. Neurotoxic Shellfish Poisoning – brevetoxins
d. Paralytic Shellfish Poisoning – saxitoxins
162
Which of the following has not caused a pet food recall?
a. Salmonella
b. Melamine
c. Excessive or insufficient vitamins and minerals
d. Hepatitis virus
e. Listeria
d. Hepatitis virus
163
Listeria can survive on cold surfaces but cannot multiply at temperatures 40’F or lower, allowing refrigeration to be an adequate measure to control growth.
True or False
False
163
Taeniasis and Cystocercosis, types of food products and circumstances it’s typically found in:
focusing on T.solium as the most important related to human health)
Raw or undercooked infected pork
-Ingestion of larval cysts in the pork muscle Taeniasis
-Ingestion of eggs in the pork product
Cysticercosis
A.Contaminated water
i.Cysticercosis (fecal-oral route; human to human transmission
164
Taeniasis and Cystocercosis, time to onset and brief description of symptoms.
Taeniasis (T. solium, T. saginata, T. asiatica)
-Time of onset: ~8 weeks after ingestion of meat containing cysticerci
-Symptoms may continue until the tapeworm dies following treatment, otherwise it may live for several years; untreated infections with T. solium tapeworms generally persist for 2-3 years
-Symptoms: mild, non-specific; abdominal pain, nausea, diarrhea, constipation when the tapeworms become fully developed in the intestine
Cysticercosis (T. solium)
-Incubation period prior to the appearance of clinical symptoms is variable; infected people may remain asymptomatic for many years
-Symptoms: in some endemic regions (particularly Asia), infected people may develop visible/palpable subcutaneous nodules
-Neurocysticercosis: chronic headaches, blindness, seizures, hydrocephalus, meningitis, symptoms caused by lesions occupying spaces of the CNS
165
Cystoisospora belli (formerly Isospora belli), name of disease it causes?
cystoisosporiasis
166
Cystoisospora belli (formerly Isospora belli), types of food products and circumstances it’s typically found in?
Usually spread by ingestion of water or food contaminated with human feces especially in tropical and subtropical regions. The parasite needs 1-2 days outside of the human host to mature to infectious stage. This is the LEAST common of the three intestinal coccidia that affect people (other two being Toxoplasma and Cryptosporidium). In the United States, it is usually associated with HIV infection and institutional living.
167
Cystoisospora belli (formerly Isospora belli), time to onset and brief description of symptoms?
Time to onset and brief description of symptoms: About a week after ingestion of sporulated oocysts, patients develop acute, non-bloody, watery diarrhea with abdominal cramps which can last for weeks. May also have fever, anorexia and malaise. Unlike with other protozoal infections, eosinophilia may be present.
168
Which of the following raw food items has the highest safe minimum cooking temperature?
a. Ground poultry
b. Ground beef
c. Pork chop
d. Pot roast (beef)
e. Fish filet
a. Ground poultry- 165 deg F
169
Which of the following are correct for pasteurization of milk (choose all thatapply)?
a. 160 F for 30 minutes
b. 145 F for 30 minutes
c. 161 F for 15 seconds
d. 212 F for 1 second
c. 161 F for 15 seconds
170
Pasteurized milk products cannot exceed __________ bacteria per ml andcoliforms not to exceed _____ per ml.
a. 100,000 and 100
b. 100,000 and 10
c. 20,000 and 100
d. 20,000 and 10
d. 20,000 and 10
170
Salmonella enteritidis is usually implicated with which type of food?
a. Beef carcasses
b. Shell eggs
c. Ready to eat meat products
d. Green vegetables
b. Shell eggs
171
Standards for raw milk include a somatic cell count less than ________ and milk should be cooled to ___ deg F within ____ of milking.
a. 1,000,000, 60, 30 min
b. 1,000,000, 45, 2 hours
c. 750,000, 60, 30 min
d. 750,000, 45, 2 hours
d. 750,000, 45, 2 hours
172
The Standard Plate Count (SPC) is used for estimating bacterial populations in milk and milk products. Which of the following best describes the SPC?
a. quantitative and can differentiate pathogens from non-pathogens
b. qualitative and can differentiate pathogens from non-pathogens
c. quantitative and cannot differentiate pathogens from non-pathogens
d. qualitative and cannot differentiate pathogens from non-pathogens
c. quantitative and cannot differentiate pathogens from non-pathogens
173
Eggs should be stored at what temperature?
a. 50 F
b. 55 F
c. 60 F
d. 40 F
e. 45 F
d. 40 F
173
What disease is caused by the accumulation of histamine in the flesh of fish?
a. Ciguatera fish poisoning
b. Scombrotoxin poisoning
c. Pufferfish poisoning
d. Anisakiasis
b. Scombrotoxin poisoning
Scombrotoxin fish poisoning is caused by eating fish that has high levels ofhistamine, which is the result of not being properly refrigerated or preserved.Symptoms typically develop within a few minutes to an hour after eatingmishandled and decomposed fish. They usually resemble an allergic reaction and can include flushing of the face, headache, heart palpitations, itching, blurred vision, cramps, and diarrhea. Symptoms can be treated with antihistamines, but even without treatment, people usually get better within 12 hours.
174
The most important single protective measure for food handlers to follow is:
a.Keep the hands scrupulously clean during food preparation
b. Have a semiannual nose, dental and throat examination
c. Have a complete medical examination every three months
d. Wear caps while preparing food
e. Refuse to touch food while their hands are cut or scratched
a.Keep the hands scrupulously clean during food preparation
175
The microorganism most frequently associated with human foodborne illness that is capable of growth in salt concentrations as high as 10% is:
a.Staphylococcus aureus
b. Vibrio vulnificus
c. Bacillus cereus
d. Clostridium perfringens
e. Clostridium botulinum
a.Staphylococcus aureus
176
The correct disposition of a bovine tuberculosis reactor without visible lesions of tuberculosis is to:
a.Pass for cooking
b. Pass without restriction
c. Condemn the carcass and viscera
d. Condemn the viscera only
e. Allow for pet food only
a.Pass for cooking
177
The symptoms of Bacillus cereus “diarrhea” type of illness resembles __________________while the “emetic” type resembles __________.
a.Streptococcus, Staphylococcus
b.Campylobacter, Cholera
c.Staphylococcus, Yersinia
d.Clostridium perfringens, Staphylococcus aureus
e.Staphylococcus, Clostridium perfringens
d.Clostridium perfringens, Staphylococcus aureus
178
Perishable foods should not be allowed to stand at room temperature for more than:
a. 1 hour
b. 2 hours
c. 4 hours
d. 8 hours
b. 2 hours
179
Perishable foods should not be left out in warm temperatures (85 deg F or greater) for more than:
a. 1 hour
b. 2 hours
c. 30 minutes
d. 4 hours
a. 1 hour
180
A deadly food-borne illness from improperly canned foods is caused by:
a. Trichinella
b. Salmonella
c. Clostridium perfringens
d. Clostridium botulinum
A deadly food-borne illness from improperly canned foods is caused by: Accidently put in week 1a. Trichinella b. Salmonella c. Clostridium perfringens d. Clostridium botulinum
181
The parasite that can be present in undercooked pork is:
a. Anisakis
b. Scrombroid
c. Trichinella spiralis
d. Listeria
c. Trichinella spiralis
182
Which of the following is NOT a good food safety practice:
a. Keeping ground beef refrigerated for no more than 1-2 days before cooking
b. When in doubt, throw it out
c. Keeping hot foods hot; cold foods cold
d. Using the same knife to cut raw meat and vegetables
d. Using the same knife to cut raw meat and vegetables
183
Pork should be cooked to a minimum internal temperature of:
a. 145 deg F
b. 160 deg F
c. 180 deg F
d. 200 deg F
a. 145 deg F
184
FDA and USDA approved irradiation for meat products. The approved and/or proposed dosage ranges for red meat and poultry for the purposes of reducing bacterial pathogens is in the dosage range of:
a. 0.005-0.03 kGy
b. 0.15-0.65 kGy
c. 1.5-4.5 kGy
d. 5.5-9.0 kGy
e. 25-35 kGy
c. 1.5-4.5 kGy radurization (destroys spoilage organisms)
