EOP Week 1 Flashcards

Deck Covers: Intro to EOP, Mass and Energy Balance, Rules of Use, E-0, ES-0.0, ES-0.1, ES-0.2, ES-0.3, SUP-010, SUP-011 (54 cards)

1
Q

With what frequency is it expected that events will occur that require entering EOP series procedures

A
  • 10^-8 events per reactor year
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When is foldout page guidance applicable

A
  • Any time that procedure is in effect
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What conditions requiring using adverse containment criteria

A
  • Containment pressure greater than 5 psig
  • Radiation dose rates greater than 10^5 (100,000) R/hr
  • During an ELAP when Pzr or SG doghouse temperatures are greater than 196.8 deg F
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When can you quit using adverse containment values

A
  • When containment pressure lowers to less than 5 psig
  • If dose rates lower below 10^5 (100,000) R/hr and total accumulated dose is less than 10^6 (1,000,000) Rem
  • During an ELAP when Pzr or SG doghouse temperatures lower to less than 196.8 deg F
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

For EOP steps with multiple substeps, in which order can the substeps be performed

A
  • If the substeps are preceeded by a letter/number then they must be performed in order.
  • If the substeps are bulleted then they may be performed in any order
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

If a contingency action cannot be performed what is the crew supposed to do

A
  • Proceed to the next step/sub-step
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the order of priority for Critical Safety Functions

A
  • (S) Subcriticality
  • (C) Core Cooling
  • (H) Heat Sink
  • (P) Integrity
  • (Z) Containment
  • (I) Inventory
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When is continuous monitoring of a Critical Safety Function required

A
  • When a Red (Extreme Challenge) or Orange (Severe Challenge) path is present
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

At what periodicity are Yellow (Not Satisfied) and Green (Satisfied) Critical Safety Functions required to be monitored

A
  • Every 10-20 minutes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Given an ORANGE Subcriticality path and a RED Heat Sink path, which FRP would be entered first and why?

A
  • FRH series then FRS if the ORANGE path is still present

- RED before ORANGE, Highest to Lowest Priority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the fission product barriers

A
  • Fuel Cladding
  • RCS Pressure Boundary
  • Containment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

As RCS pressure lowers, what happens to break flow

A
  • Break flow lowers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How does a lowering Tave affect break flow from density effect

A
  • Density rises, more mass flows out the break
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How does a lowering Tave affect break flow from the Choke Flow effect

A
  • Break flow flashes to steam further from the break, which lowers back pressure at the break, causing break flow to rise
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the methods of heat removal available on the Primary (RCS) side

A
  • ECCS flow

- Break Flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the methods of heat removal available on the Secondary (SG) side

A
  • AFW

- Steam Generators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the effects of “Uncovering the Break”

A
  • Rapid Depressurization
  • Energy Removal (latent heat of evaporization)
  • Break flow is reduced
  • ECCS flow is raised
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Where is the worst location to have a SBLOCA and why

A
  • Cold Leg

- It requires more mass to be lost before the break is uncovered because the cross under loop seal must be cleared

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What indications are consistent with a Faulted Steam Generator (E-2)

A
  • Tave Lowering
  • Rx Power Rising
  • SF>FF
  • Turbine Load Lowering
  • Pzr Pressure Lowering
  • Pzr Level Lowering
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What indications are consistent with a Ruptured Steam Generator (E-3)

A
  • Secondary Rad monitors (SJAE/Gland Steam)
  • SG Level rising
  • Pzr Pressure Lowering
  • Pzr Level Lowering
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What indications are consistent with a LOCA (E-1)

A
  • Containment Radiation Monitors
  • Pzr Pressure Lowering
  • Pzr Level Lowering
  • Containment Pressure Rising
  • Containment Sump Levels
  • Containmetn Dew Point Rising
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the SI termination criteria

A
  • Subcooling greater than 40 deg F
  • SG NR lvl greater than 13% OR AFW flow greater than 240K pph
  • RCS Pressure stable or rising
  • Pzr Level greater than 16% (20%) OR {28% (24%) ADVERSE}
23
Q

What are the EOP RCP trip Fold Out Page criteria

A
  • Phase B

- RCS pressure less than 1300 # AND 1 CCP or SI pp running

24
Q

What are the AFW switchover Fold Out Page criteria

A
  • CST level less than 15%
25
What are the SI actuation Fold Out Page criteria
- RCS subcoolin less than 40 deg F | - Pzr level cannot be maintained greater than 7%
26
What are the Major Action Categories of E-0
- Verify - Diagnose - Actions
27
What are the modes of applicability for E-0
- Rx Trip (Modes 1 & 2) | - SI (Modes 1-3)
28
When is FR-S.1 Entered from E-0
- If Rx Trip is unsuccessful (i.e., no RNOs are successful)
29
When is FR-H.1 Entered from E-0
- If secondary heat sink cannot be verified (i.e., less than 240k PPH AND less than 13% NR SG lvl)
30
What are the order of diagnostic transitions from E-0 and what is the basis
- E-1 LOCA (If PORV stuck open) - E-2 Faulted SG (can mask other transients) - E-3 Ruptured SG (dose to the public) - E-1 LOCA (Automatic actions in place to mitigate)
31
What are the immediate actions of E-0
- Verify Rx Tripped - Verify Turbine Tripped - Verify AC Emergency bus power - Check SI status
32
Why is AFW flow lowered to less than 450K PPH in E-0
- To limit over cooling of the RCS
33
Why is AFW flow maintained greater than 240K PPH in E-0
- To ensure enough FW flow for decay heat removal (Heat Sink)
34
What are the entry conditions to ES-0.0
- Based on operator judgement with ALL of the following met: - SI is I/S or required - E-0 has been exited - E Series EOP is in progress
35
What are the Major Action categories of ES-0.1 (Reactor Trip Response)
- Ensure Primary stabilizes at No Load - Ensure Secondary stabilizes at No Load - Ensure power is available - Establish/Maintain forced circulation - Maintain stable RCS
36
In ES-0.1 what must be done for each control rod not fully inserted
- Borate 160 ppm (150 ppm) for each rod not fully inserted
37
What E series procedures can be entered from ES-0.1 (Reactor Trip Response)
- E-0 if SI occurs or is required | - ES-0.2 if natural circulation cool down is required
38
In ES-0.2 (Natural Circ Cooldown) when are accumulators isolated and why
- Accumulators isolated when RCS pressure is less than 1000# for LTOP
39
In ES-0.2 (Natural Circ Cooldown) when are SI pumps removed and why
- SI pumps removed when temperature is less than 350 deg F for LTOP
40
What E series procedures can be entered from ES-0.2 (Natural Circ Cooldown)
- ES-0.3 for a Natural Circ cool down with a void in the head if CST inventory is low - (E-0 and E-1 from fold out page)
41
In ES-0.2 (Natural Circ Cooldown) why is there a procedure loop to ensure that Cold Shutdown SDM is met before cooling down
- Because there are stagnant areas of the RCS and the potential for uneven boron cocentrations
42
What is the primary source of cooling during the onset of a Natural Circ cool down
- CRDM fans remove the majority of the heat from the head at the start of a Natural Circ cool down
43
What are the subcooling requirements for an ES-0.2 (Natural Circ Cooldown) Natural Circ cool down with AND without CRDM fans running that ensure head voiding does not occur
- 90 deg F if CRDM fans running | - 220 deg F if NO CRDM fans running
44
What are the entry conditions for ES-0.3 (Natural Circ Cooldown w/ Void)
- Can ONLY be entered from ES-0.2 once cold shutdown SDM has been achieved (first 13 steps of ES-0.2)
45
What is the first thing that ES-0.3 (Natural Circ Cooldown w/ Void) attempts to accomplish
- Restart an RCP (Do NOT start if subcooling has been lost)
46
While in ES-0.2(Natural Circ Cooldown) for a Natural Circ Cooldown, what must Pressurizer Level be BEFORE starting an RCP IF RVLIS indicates less than full and WHY
- Pzr Level greater than 84% | - To prevent a loss of subcooling due to lowering Pressurizer Level due to voids collapsing
47
What are the two reasons listed in SUP-010 (RCP Restart) that you would not want to attempt an RCP restart
- If there is a SBLOCA (subcooling lost) | - Loss of ALL seal cooling (Seal Inj AND CCW)
48
During non-LOCA conditions why should an RCP restart be attempted
- Better heat removal - Improved Temperature and Pressure control - Improved Pressurizer Level Control (Spray)
49
What three factors influence Pressurizer Spray Flow
- Vessel and RCS Piping delta P - Velocity head at spray flow scoop - Pressurizer Level - NOT RCS PRESSURE (felt at top and bottom of pressurizer cancels each other out)
50
What are the indications that Natural Circ has been established
- RCS subcooling based on CETC is greater than 40 deg F - Stable or Lowering SG Pressure, HL temperatures, CETCS - RCS CL temps at saturation for SG pressure
51
Which Critical Safety Functions are associated with protecting the Fuel Matrix and Fuel Cladding
- Subcriticality - Core Cooling - Heat Sink - Inventory
52
Which Critical Safety Functions are associated with protecting the RCS Pressure Boundary
- Heat Sink - Integrity - Inventory
53
Which Critical Safety Functions are associated with protecting Containment
- Containment
54
How can you tell if non-condensables bubble is present in the upper head region
- In EOPs if RCS pressure is less than 150# then assume N2 from accumulators is present in upper head