Equine Flashcards
(280 cards)
1
Q
what are the 3 heavy UK horse breeds
A
shire
Clydesdale
suffolk
2
Q
what are the 2 UK large horse breeds
A
cleaveland bay
irish draught
3
Q
name some native UK pony breeds
A
Dartmoor highland Shetland welsh cob connemara
4
Q
what breeds are normally used for racing
A
thoroughbred (worldwide)
standardbred (USA / Auzz)
Quarter horse (USA)
5
Q
what breeds are normally used for competition
A
thoroughbred
irish sport horse
warmbloods (Holstein / Hanoverian / Dutch / Belgian)
6
Q
what are the equestrian disciplines
A
racing Olympics / paralymics polo showing pleasure horses FEI
7
Q
what are the 8 FEI disciplines
A
dressage show jumping eventing endurance driving western riding vaulting paraequestrian
8
Q
what are the 3 Olympic disiplines
A
dressage
show jumping
eventing
9
Q
what horses are used for dressage
A
warmbloods
10
Q
what horses are used for showjumping
A
warmbloods
11
Q
what constitutes a show jumping win
A
fastest clear round
12
Q
what horses are used in eventing
A
high percentage of thoroughbreds
13
Q
what does eventing involve
A
1 or 3 days of events including dressage show jumping and cross country
14
Q
what horses are used for racing
A
thoroughbreds
15
Q
what are the 2 types of racing
A
flat racing - shorter distance and in March-Nov with younger / smaller horses
national hunt races - longer distance / Nov-April / older horses and start with tape and includes jumps
16
Q
what are the 3 types of mnational hunt racing
A
steeple chase (fences - grandnational) hurdle (includes hurdles) point to point (across country over natural fences in a cross country style race)
17
Q
what horses are used for polo
A
thoroughbred
18
Q
how many riders on each polo team
A
4 each team
19
Q
what is endurance racing
A
50-100 mile race with vet chekcs
20
Q
what horses are used for endurance racing
A
arabs
21
Q
what Is horse driving
A
team of horses pulling a carriage past obstacles at speed
22
Q
what is vaulting
A
gymnastic exercises on horseback
23
Q
what horses are used in western riding
A
quarter horses
24
Q
what are the 3 types of eeuine management
A
stabled
at grass
both
25
historically what did wild horses feed on
intermittent grazing for 18 hours a day
26
what aspects should you consider with field management
```
water
quality and volume of grazing
shelter
fencing
injury prevention
```
27
why are several fields often required for grazing
should rest fields so they do not become depleted and can become muddy in winter with animal traffic
28
why should droppings be regularly removed from fields
- horses don't graze near droppings creating patchy fields
| - reduction of parasite burden
29
what is harrowing
intermittent spreading out of droppings in the field (this can spread parasites)
30
why is shelter important
protects from bad weather in winter and flies in summer
31
what is ideal horse fencing
post and rail fencing (no wire netting / barbed wire / ditches)
32
when can electric fencing be particularly effective
to sperate parts of a field for restrictive grazing
33
what is the cause of most traumatic field injuries
fencing
| bite or kicks from other horses
34
what are the postivies of stable management
- easy management (horse is clean and dry)
- diet control (performance horses energy inake can be increased)
- if there is limited pasture horses are stabled in winter
- injury prevention
35
what is land poaching
when land becomes excessively muddy / unmanageable - particularly common during winter months
36
what should be considered in stable design
ventilation
size
bedding
37
what is a stabled horse fed
forage (hay/haylage)
| concentrate (nuts/mix)
38
why are horses ideally fed from the floor
encouraging mucus drainage from resp. tract and so pollen/dust remain at floor level
39
where should haynets be positioned
air outflow
40
what Is mucking out
daily removal of droppings and wet bedding
41
what is skipping out
removal of droppings throughout the day
42
what is a deep littered stable
droppings removed but wet bedding left creating a base layer
43
what are sterotypies
repetitive functionless motor response sequences
44
what are examples of stereotypies
crib biting (oral)
wind sucking
weaving (locomotor)
box walking
45
what is the prevalence of stereotypies in the equine population
5-10%
46
what is the affect of dust / fungal spores
irritates the respiratory systems
47
what the the affect of high ammonia conc. in stables
direct mucus membrane / skin irritation
| inhibition of airway clearance
48
what is equine asthma
specific pulmonary hypersensitivity to inhaled antigens causing airway inflammation (from feed / bedding)
49
what is the treatment for equine asthma
environmental management to reduce allergen exposure / turning the horse out / no hay(reduce dust) / dust free bedding (rubber / cardboard) / soaking the hay
50
what is colic and what can increase the risk of development
abdominal discomfort
| sudden changes in management (turning out to stabling) or feeding (more than 2kg of concentrate)
51
how to decrease colic risk when changing management style
increasing water intake when horse is first stabled (wet feed) to reduce risk of impaction
52
what can induce gastric ulceration
```
high intensity exercise
feed restriction(should feed little and often)
```
53
what can be used to treat gastric ulceration
reduce exercise
turning out into pasture
increasing forage component of diet (and reduce concentrate)
54
what can obesity in horses lead to
insulin resistance - equine metabolic syndrome / laminitis
55
what is laminitis
inflammation of the laminae in hoof
56
what is laminitis caused by
high levels of fructans in grass (so grazing should be restricted for pasture associated laminitis)
57
what are myopathies
conditions affecting the muscles e.g. azoturia (tying up)
58
what is azoturia
affects the hindlimbs resulting in stiff gait
59
what is sporadic azoturia associated with
over-exercising
| laying off horses(too much rest with same amount of feed)
60
what is rain scald
moist crusty lesions over the back caused by wet weather
61
what is mud fever
painful sores/scabs on lower limbs caused by being turned out in muddy fields (affects non pigmented skin more)
62
what diseases are vaccinated against in horses
tetanus
influenza
herpes
strangles
63
briefly describe tetanus
```
clostridium tetani
found in soil
enters body via deep wound
produces exotoxin
results in spastic paralysis
Fatality is 90%+ due to respiratory faliure
```
64
what is tetanus antitoxin (TAT) and what are considerations for using it
non-vaccine providing some protection against tetanus exotoxin but is expensive and shortlived (3 weeks)
65
what is tylers disease
liver disease associated with being given serum based products
66
what are the particular considerations for foals with the tetanus vaccine
unvaccinated mare but good colostrum = vaccinate / TAT
inadequate colostrum uptake = give hyperimmune plasma
67
what tetanus considerations sould be made pre-surgery / after a deep wound
if they have been vaccinated in the past 6 months (can give TAT)
68
what are the financial implications of tetanus vaccine
costs £10-20
| effective vaccine with low reaction risk and reduces mortality significantly
69
briefly describe influenza
highly contagious viral disease of the upper GI - high morbidity and low mortality but severe complications
70
how much does an influezna vaccine cost and why is it changed regularly
antigenic shift of virus
| costs around £30
71
what is the tetanus vaccination protocol for all horses
1st at 6 months old (so doesn't interact with maternally derived antibodies)
2nd 4 weeks later
Booster 1 year after
Boosters every 2 years
72
what is the tetanus vaccination protocol for pregnant mares
Booster 4-6 weeks before foaling
73
describe the influenze vaccination protocol (manufacturer)
1 = day 0
2 = 4 weeks after
3 = 5 months later
annual boosters
74
what is the FEI recommendation for influenza vaccination protocol
1 = day 0
2 = day 21
3 = day 150
boosters every 6 months for actively competing horses / yearly for non active compatitors
75
what are the 3 forms of equine herpes virus
respiratory (problem in performance stables)
reproductive
neurologic
76
what forms of EHV are there vaccinations for
1 and 4
77
what is the vaccine protocol for EHV
1 = initial vaccine
2 = 2nd dose 4 weeks after
boosters every 4-6 months
78
what are the risks of reproductive EHV
abortion storms
79
when and how would you vaccinate against reproductive EHV
in yards with multiple breeding mares
give normal corse
then boosters at 5/7/9 months gestation
80
What are the symptoms of neurological EHV and what is it caused by
```
EHV 1
ataxia (wobbly)
inability to urinate
paralysis of hindlimbs (recumbency)
permenant neurological deficits
```
81
what is the cost benefit analysis of vaccinating against EHV 1
evidnce of vaccinated horses having more severe symptoms and vaccine cannot be used in an outbreak so only vaccinate if necessary
82
what is strangles
highly contagious diease of upper resp. tract causing fever / abscesses of lymph nodes individuals can become carriers (mortality is rare)
83
describe immunity to strangles
need mucosal immunity rater than IgG so submucosal injection is necessary
84
is the strangles vaccine given routinely
no - controversial vaccine
| biosecurity management is used instead
85
what should you do as a vet during a vaccination
```
clinical examination
listen to heart
overweight?
aging?
obvious poor feet / teeth
discuss management of the horse
```
86
what is a cyathostome
small redworm that can live in large intestine for years
87
what happens during larval cyathostomosis
mass hypoboised larvae emergence leading to massive inflammation / several diarrhoea and death
88
describe the cyathostome life cycle
```
1 eggs hatch on pasture
2 larvae eaten by horse
3 invades intestinal wall
4 adult worms release in large intestine (can stay for years)
5 eggs passed in faeces
```
89
what is a strongyle
large redworm with adults living in large intestine that can cause verminous arteritis (inflammation of intestine)
90
why does strongyle larvae migration cause pathology
moves from GI tract to cranial mesenteric arter which can block artery = ischaemia of large intestine = death
91
describe the life cycle of strongylus vulgaris
```
1 eggs on pasture molt in L1-L2 stage
2 ingested at larvae 3 stage (L3)
3 L4 migrate through intestinal arteries
4 L5 migrate to gut
5 adults live in large intestine
```
92
briefly describe strongyloides westeri
affects foals through milk / skin
| induces diarrhoa 6 months later
93
describe the life cycle of strongyloides westeri
free living cycle (can live whole life in field)
1 L3 ingested
2 L4 migrates via pulmonary system then swallowed
3 adult females live in small intestine
4 unfertilised eggs laid and they renter field via faeces
94
what is the clinical significance of a parascaris equorum infection and when is the risk greatest
small intestinal obstruction / surgical colic
| greatest risk after an effective anthemitic wormer with high worm burden / at 6months -2years of age
95
describe the parascaris lifecycle
1 eggs are present in faeces L1
2 L2 are ingested
3 migrate from intestine to liver at L3
4 migrate to lungs / coughed up / swallowed
5 molt to L4 and adult in intestine and eggs passes
96
what is the usual host of a lung worm (dictyocaluls arnfieldi)
a donkey
97
describe oxyuris equi (pin worms) clinical symptoms and cause
severe anal pruritus (itching) / hairloss
| adults live in colon and females deposit eggs at anus
98
what are the clinical signs of tapeworm
spasmodic colic
intussuseption (intestinal twisting)
thickening of the SI wall
99
describe the lifecyle of a tapeworm
1 eggs on pasture
2 eggs ingested by mite / develop
3 horse eats mite
4 becomes adult in caecum / SI
100
what are gasterophilus
bots (fly) does not cause any problems
101
what is the lifecyle of gastrophilus
```
1 adult fly lays eggs on horse
2 horse grooms itself and eats eggs
3 L1-2 in tounge and gums
4 L3 in stomach
5 passed into droppings - soil - hatches
```
102
why do you want a resevour population of parasites
resistance issues associated with blanket anthelmitic usage
103
what are some examples of types of parasite control
targeted worming
poo picking weekly
not overgrazing
rotating fields with other livestock
104
what are some challenges associated with anthelmintic resistance
- owners want to give it
- historically blanket worming techniques were used routinely treating throughout year regarless of need
- anthelmintics do not have to be given by a vet
105
what techniques are used in targeted dosing of anthelmintics
faecal egg counts (determining presence / severity of worm burden) normally done every 12 weeks - want less than 200 eggs/g
106
what are the advantages of targeted dosing
- treats individuals that actually need it
- worm egg count is only £10
- can identify high egg burdens
- reduces resistance
107
what are the disadvantages of targeted dosing (particularly faecal egg counts)
- costs the same as dewormer
- only counts eggs
- rarely detects tapeworms (no eggs)
108
what is the most common method of faecal egg counting
McMaster
109
what tests are used for detection of tapeworms
£20 blood and saliva test which looks for antibodies but these levels can remain high for 6 months after treatment
110
what tests are used for detection of cyathostomes
£20 blood test (+blood sample fee) indicating likelihood of burden being present
111
why is dentistry particularly important to upkeep in horses
horses teeth grow continuously / worn fown during eating so sharp points can easily develop if they are not wearing down properly
112
how does the angle of the molar archade affect teeth grinding down
```
maxillary (upper) teeth get sharp on buccal side (cheek)
mandibular teeth (lower) get sharp on the lingual side (tongue)
```
113
what can occur when there is an area in the mouth with no opposing tooth
hooks and overgrowth if tooth is missing or jaw is misaligned
114
what can be the result of poor dentistry
pain
ulceration
problems with eating
115
what happens during a dental examination
dental chart filled out for record / comparison noting abnormalities (fractures / hooks / gaps)
filing down of sharp edges using a power/hand rasp
116
how often should horses have a dental exam / how much does it cost
annually or every 6 months if geriatric / problematic
| £40-60
117
how often should a hoof be picked out
daily with a hoof pic in a heel to toe direction
118
what is the coronary band
the junction between the skin and the hoof wall
119
what is the toe vs heel
the front of the hoof and the back of the hoof
120
what is the periople
the band of white coloured hoof at the top
121
what are the names of the toe quarters
medial and lateral x2
122
what is the frog
triangular structure on the underside caudal part of hoof and has a central sulcus and on either side medial and lateral sulci
123
what is the hoof wall
wraps around the surface of the hoof except the frog
124
what is the bar (hoof) and what is the tissue inside this area called
the area where the hoof wall wraps around itself by the frog (the tissue inside this section is called the seat of the corn)
125
what is the white line (hoof)
the junction between the sole and the hoof wall v dense and can become widened in laminitis
126
what are the proper names of P1-3
```
P1 = proximal phalanx (highest one)
P2 = middle phalanx
P3 = distal phalanx(by hoof)
```
127
what lies underneath P3
the digital cushion (above the sole) and the bulbar cushion (in the heel bulb)
128
where is the navicular bone
rear of distal interphalangial joint
129
what is the purpose of the navicular bursae
allows the deep digital flexor tendon to slide smoothly over and insert on P3
130
where does the superficial digital tendon insert
proximal palmar surface of P2
131
where do the distal sesamoidean ligaments insert
P1
132
where does the common digital extensor tendon insert
digital process of P3
133
name the layers of the hoof wall from superficial to deep
horn (keritanised)
insensitive laminae (epidermal)
sensitive laminae (dermal)
bone
134
how are the laminae structured to suspend P3 from the hoof wall and why is this important
the interdigitate (like a comb structure) with each other and it absorbs concussive impact on the foot
135
describe hoof distortion
the flexibility of the shape of the hoof capsule when weight is applied partially at the heel and the compaction of the digital cushion
136
what 2 factors should be examined during a hoof examination
conformation (shape / size/ static relation / horse build / correct angles?)CANT CHANGE
balance (shape / function of foot in relation to ground / skeleton)
137
how should a horse be standing to accurately assess conformation
```
square
equal weight on all limbs
facing straight
firm flat ground
available to look at from all angles
```
138
what is assessed in a static hoof examination
```
hoof quality / balance
shoes
limb conformation
digital pulses palpated
are they a pair
```
139
how do you assess hoof quality
horn quality - cracks / wall loss
| sole quality - waxy / flaky
140
describe ideal horse hoof symmetry (dorsal)
- coronary band should be parallel to the floor / sole and perpendicular to the limb axis
- hoof wall should be symmetrical
141
describe ideal horse hoof symmetry (lateral)
- the heel and toe hoof walls should be parallel to eachother
- heel should be vertically below the axis of the cannon bone
142
what us the hoof pastern axis
the relationship between the angle of the dorsal hoof wall and the middle of the pastern (should be parallel)
143
what is the ideal toe:heel ratio
3:1
144
describe the 3 states of a hoof pastern axis
```
broken back (very low heel)
normal
broken forward (almost like pointing its toes - club foot)
```
145
what is assessed in a solar view hoof examination
- sole should be concave
- feet should be symmetrical
- forefeet round and back feet oval
146
what is assessed in a palmar view foot examination
using a Tbar to assess symmetry of heel bulbs /. heel height / bars (medio-lateral balance)
147
what are hoof testers and what are they used for
basically big pincers used to systematically identify painful areas of the foot
148
what is a dynamic hoof examination
walk and trot on hard flat surface to assess foot landing
149
how much / often is trimming and shoeing
every 4-8 weeks
full set around £100
trimming £20-40
therapeutic shoes £100+
150
why would a farrier / vet need to make an emergency hoof visit
replacing a lost shoe
acutely lame horse
foot abscess
151
what are the benefits of shoeing a horse
```
protection
increased traction (racing)
support (weak horn)
gait alteration needed
when attrition > growth
```
152
what are alternatives for horses wearing shoes
barefoot (must have good quality hoof) or hoof boots
153
describe the hoof growth rate
full replacement in 3 months at heel and 9-12 months at the toe
154
what are the 2 types of hoof boots
poultice - to keep treatment on / keep watertight
| riding - have to come off daily as prone to rubbing
155
describe the basic process of foot trimming
- routine paring with a hoof knife to remove dead horn
- nipping flares / excess hoof wall
- levelling the foot with a rasp(file)
- checking the overall balance of the foot
156
describe optimal shoeing
needs to fit foot
slightly larger for hoof expansion
no pressure on sole
157
what is breakover (hooves)
horses heel lifting off the ground and rotating over the toe
158
describe the optimal breakover
- 2.5-3.5cm from frog (placement of shoe relative to P3)
| - direction of breakover to make sure that the horseshoe moves in a straight line when horse is walking
159
why is hot shoeing used by farriers
can show that all areas of the hoof are evenly burnt so excess can be trimmed off and fine adjustment of the shoe can be completed
160
name the 4 standard shapes of horse shoes
standard
egg bar
heart bar
straight bar
161
what are horseshoe clips used for
to prevent the horse shoe from rotating on the foot
162
what are the placements of the 4 different types of shoe clips
single clips - in middle - front feet
quarter clips -slightly to the side - hind feet
side clips
no clips - makes break over more palmer but more likely to loose the shoe
163
what are horse shoes made of
steel
| aluminium - for racing
164
how can you add grip to horseshoes
road nails
studs (at the heel)
toe grabs (used in racing but more injuries)
165
what is being seasonally polyoeastrus (mares)
multiple cycles in a single annual breeding season
166
when is a mares breeding cycle and how long is it
summer (long day breeder)
| cycles are 21 days long (erratic in spring and autumn)
167
describe the hormonal status of a mare in winter
anoestrus
| producing melatonin - low GnRH = low LH / FSH
168
spring
transitional period and melatonin levels reduce - so stop inhibiting GnRH release though LH stays low until first ovulation
169
describe the hormonal status of a mare in autumn
transition period causing erratic cycles and decrease less GnRH and ovulation begins to fail = end of breeding cycle
170
describe oestrus behaviour in mares
lifting tail
squirting urine
wide legged stance
acceptance of stallion presence / interaction
171
describe oestrus behaviour in stallions
phlemen posture
dropping penis / erection
covering mare if allowed
172
what is the phlemen posture
head back and lips/nose wrinkled to increase airflow to detect pheromones
173
how would you advance the breeding season of a mare
increased continuous light (14.5 hours a day) beginning in Nov. for 2 months
dopamine antagonists / progestagens but only works during the spring transition period
174
what prebreeding tests should be carried out on a mare
Strangles ELISA
Fecal worm egg count
Clittoral swabs for taylorella equigenatalis (contagious equine metritis) - notifiable
175
how to induce oestrus in mares (short cycling)
injection of prostaglandin F2 alpha (causes corpus luteum regression) induces oestrus within 1 week but only effective during cycling
176
why perform ultrasounds on a mares' ovaries and uterus prebreeding
ovaries - show evidence of follicular development to see if she is in cycle
uterus - shows any free fluid /cysts / oedema (shows coming into season)
177
what should occur in a post covering assessment and when
5 hours later
removal of free fluid (inflammatory response / semen) via a sterile isotonic lavage
monitering with ultrasound
178
what is a caslicks procedue
sewing the outer lips of the vulva shut after coveringt o reduce the risk of faecal contamination of the uterus - reversed 2 weeks before birth
179
how do you diagnose pregnancy in mares
```
ultrasound
failure to return to oestrus
blood samples (60 days PMSG or 100 days oestrogen)
urine sample (120 days placental oestrogen)
```
180
what can you determine from an ultrasounds of a pregnant mare
14-16 days foetus is visible (identify twins and terminate one of them) / presence of corpus luteum / heart rate at 24 days
181
why are twins in horses dangerous
do not survive until full term normally aborted naturally as foetus needs exceed the placental surface area capacity for nutrients and oxygen
182
why is there a limited gene pool for thoroughbred breeding
as natural covering is the only technique allowed for a foal to be thoroughbred registered so horses are not bred from different countries as travel is expensive
183
what is a breeding nomination form
proposition from mare owner to stallion owners
- breeding history
- disease status (vaccination/serology)
- desired livery/equipment/feeding
- signalment (age/breed/fam history)
184
what are the term options for studding covering charges
fixed fee
no foal free return (can come back without additional charge next year)
no foal no fee
October fee (half upfront half when mare is still pregnant)
185
what are the 3 options for mares going to stud
barren (not pregnant no foal)
to foal down (pregnant to have foal at stud farm)
with foal to foot (foal comes with mare to stud yard)
186
what is Weatherbys registration and when is it done
a thoroughbred horse requirement to be eligible to race within 30 days of birth and covering certificate issued to mare owner by the stud as proof
187
why is it beneficial to bring oestrus forward when breeding thoroughbred mares
so the foal can be as old as possible in their age bracket so that they are the most mature possible for FLAT RACING (2-3 years old)
188
how long is a horses pregnancy
normally around 11 months and 11 days
189
when does covering start for thoroughbred breeding
most mares are covered in Feb so foals are born in March (elite flat are born in Jan-Feb)
190
what are the general seasonal fertility rates for thoroughbreds
11.3% of mares not covered
| 70% of mares covered conceived naturally
191
how are native breeds (dartmoor / exmoor) covered
normally unassisted in herds / individually outdoors and normally have excellent fertility
192
what are the disadvantages of natural herd covering
stallion more likely to be injured (expensive stallion owners will not do this)
herd dynamic affects covering so if mares are added/removed there can be disruption
less knowledge of exact dates
193
what are alternative breeding methods
artificial insemination
| embryo transfer
194
what are the benefits of using artificial insemination
- improving health and safety (handlers / stallion)
- reduce risk of venereal disease spread
- preserves genetics (frozen semen)
- increases productivity of semen
- overcomes fertility problems in mares due to allergies
195
when can different temperature semen be used
fresh - 4hours (locally)
chilled - 24 hours (nationally)
frozen - indefinitely
196
what are the advantages of using embryo transfer
- more embryos per mare can be produced
- allows mares to compete while their foals are reared inside a surrogate
- allows non fertile mares a progeny
197
how is semen collected from a stallion
using a dummy with an in season mare nearby / soak towel in urine and then artificial vagina (warm water / lubricated) is used for semen collection
198
what can denature semen
- gel ejactulate fraction
- water
- light
- dramatic temp change
199
what factors indicate the correct time for artificial insemination (based on ultrasounds)
large follicle present
cervix open
no fluid in uterus
low uterine oedema
200
describe the process of embryo transfer
```
1 donor mare covered
2 embryo(s) collected at 7-10 days
3 embryo implanted (one per mare)
```
201
what is dystocia and what affects survival rates from this
obstructed labour
| depends on rapid identification - C section under general anaesthesia
202
what are the signs of imminent foaling
- more Ca/K in milk
- udders develop /drip milk / the ends wax up
- mare is restless (use CCTV to watch)
- vulva relaxes
203
describe stage 1 of labour
```
1-4 hours
foal enters pelvic canal
dilation of cervix
mare will urinate frequently / be restless
uterine contractions occur
```
204
what should be done as a breeder in stage 1 of labour
reverse caslicks
wash perineum
bandage the tail
205
describe stage 2 of labour
15 mins long
1 allantochorion ruptures (waters break) at cervical staff
2 strong contractions from uterus
3 foal expelled
4 hindlimbs of foal may remain inside while mare rests
5 umbilicus breaks when mare stands
206
how long after the waters break should you see a foal / contractions
within 10 mins if not call vet
207
describe labour stage 3
```
3 hours long
expulsion of the placenta with uterine contractions and expelling lochia (foetal fluids)
white side (amnion on foal side)
red side (allanochorion endometrial side)
```
208
how long can foetal membranes be retained for
maximum 3 hours - medical emergency if not
209
what is the post-partum 123 rule
1 hour - foal should be standing
2 hour - foal should have suckled
3 hour -placenta should have passed
210
what are the features of respiratory neonatal adjustment
induced by cold air / dam licking - gasps for 30 secs, rhythmic after 1 min, 30-40 breaths a min by 4 hours
211
what are the features of cardio neonatal adjustment
40-80bpm at birth
| 80-100bpm at rest by 4 hours
212
why would a heart murmur be present for the first few days of a foals life
until the ductus arteriosus and foramen ovale close
213
what are the neonatal reflexes
standing - normally in 30 mins (wobbly with wide base)
| suckling - drawn to udder by pheromones
214
what is the cervicial star
a non villus area of the placenta which the foal breaks through during birth
215
what could a thickened placenta be indicative of
the foal being born late - mare may have been dripping colostrum so may be at risk of infection
216
describe the type of placenta a horse has
epitheloichorical (6 layers)
non-deciduate (foetal and maternal layers are separate)
diffuse (placenta covered in villi)
217
summarise equine passport legislation
all horses born after 2005 need a passport
| all horses born after 2009 need a microchip (now all horses born before are also required to have one)
218
what information does a passport include and when is it needed
- vaccination status and if it is fit for human consumption
| - needed for travel / sale / slaughter
219
when do passport applications have to be made
by Dec 31st on year of birth
when foal is 6 months old
(whichever is later)
220
what is needed in a passport application form
- owner details
- location / scanning of microchip details
- identification certificate (with pictures of markings)
- owner / vet (stamp) signature
221
where is a microchip placed
nuchal ligament (neck)
222
what is the procedure for inserting a microchip
1 scan chip to ensure it is the correct one
2 scan neck to ensure no chip is present
3 insert chip
4 scan in situ to ensure functionality
223
what is the capacity of a horses stomach and what does this mean for meal size
5-15L
| around 2.25kg of grain maximum per 500kg of horse
224
what is the transit time of food and water in a horse stomach
water 20 mins
| food 1 hour
225
what is a hindgut fermenter (actually occurs in midgut)
digestion of complex starches (cellulose) due to a large microbial population and absorption of fluid
226
what is the trainsit time in the hindgut
50 hours
227
what are the aims of feeding horses
maintaining bodily condition / reproductive status / growth / reduce colic / allowing horses to perform to the height of their genetic ability
228
what is the KER body condition scoring
a score of 1-9 with 1 = severe emaciation and 9 severe obesity (5 is perfect)
229
what places do you identify fat on during body condition scoring
crest / withers / ribs / tail head/ back crease
230
what places do you identify muscle on during body condition scoring
withers / shoulder / topline / loin / hindquarters
231
what are the 1-9 scales of the KER
```
1 poor
2 very thin
3 thin
4 moderately thin
5 moderate
6 moderately fleshy
7 fleshy
8 fat
9 extremely fat
```
232
how much forage should a horse be eating
around 1-1.5% of bodyweight
233
what are potential sources of forage
grass / hay / haylage
234
why do horses need forage food
physiological need for gut stability (microbiome) / nutritional requirements
psychological need to chew
235
how long does it take to eat 1kg of hay vs concentrate and what factors affect this
hay 20 mins
concentrate 8 mins
confinement reduces this - horse gets bored = stable vices
236
how should forage be fed to a horse
hay nets (increases time taken to eat to keep horse occupied) / hay racks
237
why are concentrates processed into pellets
increasing palatability / bioavailability
238
how should concentrates be fed
bucket / stable toy normally on the floor
239
what is sugar beet pulp
low sugar high fibre concentrate that has to be soaked (to prevent gastric rupture)
240
how much is the recommended daily intake of water
40-60ml per kg
241
when does water instake increase
2-3 hours after fibre intake / during chewing (as fluid is taken from the plasma to create saliva and digestive secretions
242
what components are needed in a balanced diet
digestible energy
crude protein
minerals
vitamins
243
what minerals are required in a horses diet
```
calcium
phospherous
copper
zinc
selenium
```
244
what vitamins are required in a horses diet
ADEK fat soluble
BC water soluble
thyamine (B1)
riboflavin (B2)
245
how much of their body weight should a horse eat in dry matter per day
2-2.5% of their bodyweight (3/4 should be forage)
246
what percentage of a horses bodyweight should a horse consume in protein
around 8.5-11% (below 14% for anything not a racehorse / lactating mare)
247
why should a horse be fed a high carbohydrate diet
serum glucose / insulin can cause behavioural issues
| horses have more energy (higher HR / more excitable)
248
what can happen when a horse is chronically fed carbohydrates
acidic gut syndrome = colic / diarrhoea / laminitis
249
what are some causes of acidic gut syndrome
bed eating
coprophagia (eating poo)
chewing wood
250
what order should hay and grain be fed in to prevent a sharp serum glucose peak
hoy first than after a delay grain creating a lower more stable glucose level to prevent hyperactivity
251
what are the symptoms of excessive protein intake
increased urination
dehydration
increased drinking
(expensive)
252
what is the first limiting amino acid in the horse
lysine
253
why are fats easily absorbed by the horse
continuous flow of bile
254
what percentage of the diet should constist of fats
7%
255
what types of horses is a higher fat diet appropriate for
geriatric
high performance
horses with malabsorption / glucose intolerance
256
what percentage fat does grass and hay contain
5% and 1-3%
257
why should a foal suckle within the first 6-8 hours
absorption of IgS (need a plasma transfusion if not)
258
how much colostrum does a foal need for its first 6 hours of life
250ml per hour
259
what does colostrum contain
Ig G M E A
260
describe the maturation process of a foals digestive system
starch absorption before fermentation
10-12 weeks bacteria colonise
6 months intestines mature
261
how much forage can a foal tolerate
3 months - less than 20%
| 6 months around 30%
262
when should you wean a foal
when theyre eating around 3kg of conc food a day
| usually around 6-8 months
263
why would you wean a foal early
mare unable to sustain lactation
need mare for something else
excessive foal growth rates = orthapedic challenges
264
what should you supplement a foals diet with if they have to be weaned before 4 months of age
milk based foal starter
265
what changes in diet would you make for a young equine athlete and why
increase protein and energy but maintain the same ration as must account for both growth and exercise
266
what energy sources does a horse use during exercise
glucose from blood
glycogen in muscles
fat burn (long slow exercise)
267
why sould you aim to maintain blood glucose
risk of central nervous system fatigue which reduces optimum performance
268
what is the aim for feeding pre-competing
food is eaten digested absorbed and stored but energy has not yet been mobilised
269
what occurs if you exercise a horse within 3 hours of feeding them
risk of colic
high insulin at start
high glucose levels (stored and used)
glucose levels drop below normal compromising performance until insulin levels fall
270
what is the optimal delay between feeding concentrates and elite competing
8 hours
optimal energy mobilisation liver glycogen will have been stored and then can be converted to glucose faster than consumption requirements
271
when should a horse be fed after exercise
1.5-2 hours after (important in endurance competitions)
272
describe how you would diet an obese horse
slow steady weight loss
increase fibre %
increase exercise
increase frequency / difficuilty of feeding
restrict grazing
track system (put food and water on opposite ends of the field)
273
how would you restrict grazing
grazing muzzle
274
what are the nutrient requirments of a donkey compared to a horse
around 75%
275
what happens if a donkey experiences severe stress or diet change
hyperlipidaemia (increase in fat in bloodstream)
276
what is the normal weight loss target for a donkey
around 2kg per month - do not cut ration by more than 10%
277
how to increase horse body conditioning with feeding
allow unlimited access to high quality feed
increase energy via cereal and oil
many small meals of concentrate
allow selections of favourites (reasonably)
278
describe the general feeding of a geriatric horse
maintaining forage (short fibres to reduce chewing requirements)
if thin - oils for energy and more protein
if obese - reduce carbohydrates and oil / increase fibre
279
what is a neutraceuticals
non toxic food component with evidence of health benefits e.g. disease prevention
280
what are some examples of neutraceuticals
glucosamine (NO inhibitor)
| Vit E + selenium (antioxidants and weight gain)
