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E&E Exam 2 > Equine Eval/Disease > Flashcards

Equine Eval/Disease Flashcards

1
Q

What is the term for the demonstration of symptoms in equine patients that are interpreted as evidence of abdominal pain?

A

(Colic)

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2
Q

Why should you palpate the legs/feet in horses with signs of colic?

A

(Looking for signs of laminitis or shock)

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3
Q

When planning to pass an NG tube in a horse with suspected GI disease, you should pick the largest or smallest tube that will work.

A

(Largest)

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4
Q

What is the disadvantage to sedating a horse you want to pass an NG tube in?

A

(Reduces swallowing reflex which is useful for passing the NG tube)

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5
Q

Which of the types of NG tubes, single bore or multi-fenestrated, is best for draining fluid?

A

(Multi-fenestrated)

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6
Q

If you get back a net reflux of 3 liters, is this normal or abnormal?

A

(Slightly more than normal)

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7
Q

You got a net reflux of 3 liters on a horse. You test the pH and it comes back basic, what does this indicate?

A

(It is a combo of gastric and small intestinal fluid, lesion is located in the small intestine)

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8
Q

You got a net reflux of 3 liters on a horse and tested the pH (info in other questions). You suspect enteritis may be playing a role in this horse’s issues, what do you do next?

A

(Submit reflux for Salmonella culture)

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9
Q

Is a CBC/chem part of the minimum database that you should obtain when seeing a colicky horse?

A

(No)

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10
Q

What blood work test can tell you an equine patient is dehydrated, has splenic contraction due to pain, or endotoxemia?

A

(PCV → increased)

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11
Q

What is indicated if a colicky horse has lymphopenia and neutropenia with toxic changes?

A

(Endotoxemia w/ compromised gut wall which is allowing endotoxin to enter the bloodstream)

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12
Q

Why should you aim slightly to the right off midline when performing an abdominocentesis in an equine patient?

A

(To avoid the spleen)

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13
Q

What is indicated by lactate on an abdominocentesis sample being higher than peripheral blood lactate?

A

(There is a segment of bowel not being properly perfused)

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14
Q

What two instances related to your collected abdominocentesis fluid would indicate if a culture is necessary?

A

(High WBC count and/or bacteria seen on cytology)

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15
Q

What imaging methodology is especially useful for evaluating gut wall thickness, GI motility and presence of free fluid in the abdomen?

A

(Ultrasound)

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16
Q

What length endoscope is necessary for gastroscopy in equine patients?

A

(3 meters)

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17
Q

(T/F) It is not necessary to deflate the horse’s stomach after you have completed your gastroscopy.

A

(F)

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18
Q

Intravenous injection should be made where in the cervical region of horse patients?

A

(Cranial ½-⅓ of neck)

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19
Q

What is the purpose of the alcohol swab you apply prior to venipuncture in a horse?

A

(Lays the hair down and allows for better visualization)

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20
Q

What is the minimum time you should wait after occluding the vein of a horse to make sure you are visualizing the vein?

A

(20 seconds, can hold off as long as you want to get a lot of filling to be 100% sure but at least 20 seconds)

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21
Q

(T/F) You should continue to hold off the vein as you administer your intravenous medication in equine patients.

A

(T)

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22
Q

What is the purpose of aspirating again at the end of your intravenous injection?

A

(Will flush leftover medication out of needle and hub)

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23
Q

How can you BEST determine in the off the syringe needle technique that you are in the carotid versus the jugular?

A

(Should not flow when not holding off in the jugular vein, will continue to flow when not holding off in the carotid)

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24
Q

What are the two primary sites for intramuscular injection in horses?

A

(Cervical and semimembranosus/semitendinosus muscles)

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25
Q

What are the three landmarks of the cervicalis intramuscular injection site in a horse?

A

(Ventral - cervical vertebrae, dorsal - nuchal ligament, caudal - cranial scapula)

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26
Q

What are the two landmarks for the semimembranosus/semitendinosus intramuscular injection site in a horse?

A

(Ventral - calcean tendon, dorsal - tuber ischii)

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27
Q

(T/F) You should always use the detached needle injection technique for intramuscular injections into the semimembranosus/semitendinosus site in a horse.

A

(T)

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28
Q

Once the needle is in the semimembranosus/semitendinosus, what should you do?

A

(Release the needle to make sure if the horse moves, you don’t pull the needle out)

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29
Q

(T/F) Complex colic cases are usually due to GI lesions or disease.

A

(T)

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30
Q

What is the term for the reaction of a part of the body to injury or infection, characterized by swelling, heat, redness, and pain?

A

(Inflammation)

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31
Q

In a case of inflammatory colic, there is increased or decreased blood flow to the GI tract?

A

(Increased)

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32
Q

What three GI sequela result from inflammation?

A

(Reduced motility, bowel wall thickening, and intraluminal accumulation of ingesta)

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33
Q

The increased intraluminal pressure due to an obstruction ‘strains’ the gut wall and collapses the capillary beds in the gut wall, what does this result in?

A

(Tissue injury)

34
Q

Parascarid impaction in the small intestines is associated with which age group of horses?

A

(Young)

35
Q

What three sequela result from the interrupted blood flow to GI tract tissues due to strangulation in equine patients?

A

(Epithelial sloughing, loss of gut barrier, and eventual death of affected tissue)

36
Q

What is the primary worry with the strangulation induced loss of the gut barrier?

A

(Allows endotoxin to cross the gut wall and cause endotoxemia)

37
Q

What are the three things that determine the severity of a lesion causing GI disease/colic?

A

(Type of lesion, part of gut involved, and duration of the problem)

38
Q

(T/F) GI diseases/colic caused by inflammation are usually treated medically.

A

(T)

39
Q

(T/F) GI diseases/colic caused by strangulation are usually treated medically.

A

(F, surgically)

40
Q

(T/F) The upper GI tract is more tolerant to distension than the lower GI tract.

A

(F, other way around)

41
Q

(T/F) Lesions that interrupt blood flow in the upper GI tract are more serious than if they were to occur in the lower GI tract.

A

(F, always serious)

42
Q

Lesions of the (large or small) intestine tend to result in systemic endotoxemia due to size and microbial content?

A

(Large intestine)

43
Q

What is the source of endotoxin (in terms of the bacteria itself)?

A

(Cell wall of gram negative bacteria in the gut)

44
Q

Which of the parts of the bacterial lipopolysaccharide is highly variable?

A

(O-antigen or O-chain)

45
Q

Which of the parts of the bacterial lipopolysaccharide is constant?

A

(Lipid A)

46
Q

What part of the bacterial lipopolysaccharide connects the highly variable and constant parts?

A

(Polysaccharide core)

47
Q

In a horse with endotoxemia, will their GI sounds be increased or decreased to absent?

A

(Decreased to absent)

48
Q

In a horse with endotoxemia, will their heart rate and respiration be increased or decreased?

A

(Increased)

49
Q

What are four classic clin path abnormalities in a horse with endotoxemia?

A

(Leukopenia, neutropenia, left shift, toxic changes)

50
Q

In a horse with endotoxemia, will they have increased or decreased serum creatinine due to poor renal perfusion?

A

(Increased)

51
Q

Horses with endotoxemia will be initially hypoglycemic and then hyperglycemic or is it the other way around?

A

(Other way around, hyperglycemia and then hypoglycemic)

52
Q

Blood lactate greater than what mmol/L is indicative of severe disease in a horse?

A

(>5 mmol/L)

53
Q

What is the fluid rate that should be given to horses in shock?

A

(45/ml/kg/hour)

54
Q

What two products are used to replace lost proteins in horses with endotoxemia?

A

(Plasma or hetastarch)

55
Q

What are two products that can be used to neutralize circulating endotoxin in an endotoxemic horse?

A

(Hyperimmune plasma and serum and polymyxin B)

56
Q

Why would you not use a corticosteroid in a horse with endotoxemia, even though suppressing inflammation is really important and corticosteroids are potent anti-inflammatories?

A

(Can cause laminitis and endotoxic horses are already at risk for developing laminitis)

57
Q

The risk of developing gastritis, enteritis, colitis, and/or laminitis is higher or lower with the consumption of large quantities of high fiber/complete feeds?

A

(Lower)

58
Q

The risk of developing gastritis, enteritis, colitis, and/or laminitis is higher or lower with the consumption of large quantities of concentrate?

A

(Higher)

59
Q

You have a horse with proximal enteritis and a horse with a small intestinal strangulating lesion, which horse will have a fever?

A

(The horse with proximal enteritis)

60
Q

If a horse has a small intestinal strangulating lesion, will their pain be reduced after refluxing?

A

(No)

61
Q

What is the difference in small intestinal motility in proximal enteritis versus small intestinal strangulation?

A

(Proximal enteritis → some motility, small intestinal strangulation → little to no motility)

62
Q

What is the difference between lactate of abdominal fluid obtained via abdominocentesis in proximal enteritis versus small intestinal strangulation?

A

(Proximal enteritis → in acute cases, abdominal fluid lactate is small to a little higher than peripheral blood lactate; small intestinal strangulation → abdominal lactate is usually higher than peripheral blood lactate, disparity grows more advanced with prolongation)

63
Q

What are the two possible etiologies of large colon torsion in postpartum mares?

A

(Parturition leaves a large space in abdomen and lactating mares may be hypocalcemia which affects normal GI motility)

64
Q

What is typically the first treatment pursued for meconium impactions?

A

(An enema)

65
Q

How should enteral mineral oil be administered?

A

(By NG tube, not by mouth in a dosing syringe)

66
Q

How long should you fast a horse you plan to perform a gastroscopy on to identify GI ulcers?

A

(12 hours)

67
Q

(T/F) Diarrhea can be a sign of stomach ulcers in foals but ulcers do not cause diarrhea in adult horses.

A

(T)

68
Q

Where does fiber digestion occur in the equine GI tract?

A

(Large intestines)

69
Q

Should horses have continuous or sporadic access to feed?

A

(Continuous)

70
Q

Horses should be fed no more than what percentage of concentrate of their total daily diet?

A

(30%)

71
Q

(T/F) Older horses can have a nonpathologic icterus of their sclera and mucous membranes.

A

(T)

72
Q

What are two stall side blood tests that you can perform to help you to bring liver disease higher or lower on your differential list?

A

(PCV/TP → icteric or lipemic serum, low protein d/t low albumin; lactate → elevated in advanced hepatic disease)

73
Q

Why can liver enzyme levels be normal in horses with chronic liver disease?

A

(Not enough normal liver tissue to maintain increased enzyme levels)

74
Q

What is the liver enzyme that you should look at if you suspect liver damage in a horse?

A

(SDH)

75
Q

(T/F) An elevated SDH indicates an ongoing, active liver disease in a horse.

A

(T)

76
Q

What is the most useful enzymatic indicator of biliary disease in horses?

A

(GGT)

77
Q

What is the main reason for increased unconjugated bilirubin in the absence of other blood chemistry abnormalities in equine patients?

A

(Anorexia)

78
Q

What is the causative agent of Tyzzer’s disease?

A

(Clostridium piliforme)

79
Q

EHV-1 infected mares typically abort late term but occasionally a foal can survive, those foals typically have what condition?

A

(Severe interstitial pneumonia)

80
Q

What effect does the mycotoxin associated with trifoliosis have on the hepatobiliary system?

A

(Causes biliary fibrosis and hyperplasia)

81
Q

What is your first step if presented with a mini donkey that has been anorexic for about 36 hours?

A

(Check serum triglycerides)

E&E Exam 2 (6 decks)

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