ET VOL 4 CH 3,4 Flashcards Preview

2015 > ET VOL 4 CH 3,4 > Flashcards

Flashcards in ET VOL 4 CH 3,4 Deck (54):
1

2

Of the following information, which could be provided by modern IFF systems?

1. Mission of the target 2. What squadron the target belongs to 3. The altitude of an aircraft (side number)?

3

What are the three basic steps of the IFF identification process

Challenge, reply, and recognition

4

The spacing between IFF interrogation pulse pairs is determined by which of the following factors?

Mode of IFF operation

5

When you use IFF, a dashed line just beyond the target on your radar screen indicates which of the following craft?

A friendly craft

6

The Mark XII IFF aystem is capable of how many modes of operation?

5

7

Which IFF unit provides the control signals that determine the MK XII mode of operation?

Video decoder

8

Which of the following modes of IFF operation is NOT a selective identification feature (SIF) mode?

C

9

The transponder of a pilotless aircraft, responding to a SIF mode interrogation, would send which of the following replies?

X-pulse

10

Which of the following codes could be selected as an IFF transponder reply code for mode 1 operation?

4300 (first 0-7) (second 0-3) (remaining 2 digits 0's)

11

A major failure in your radio room has knocked your communications off the air. Which of the following codes should you set in the IFF transponder for mode 3/A replies?

7600

12

What reply code in IFF is 7700?

civilian emergency

13

what reply code in IFF is 7777?

interceptors on active ait defense missions

14

what reply code in 3/A mode withh trigger FAA towers?

7500,7600,7700,7777

15

Which of the following IFF mode 3/A reply codes may your ship use in U.S. national air space?

5011, (50XX, 54XX,61XX,64XX

16

Which of the following IFF mode C reply codes will your ship use?

0000

17

A commercial airliner using TCAS could mistake your ship’s IFF mode C reply for which of the following structures?

A small aircraft flying at about 10,000 feet

18

general aircaft fly below how many feet

12,500?

19

Under which of the following circumstances may you operate IFF in mode C when your ship is in or near port?

When testing with the antenna disconnected

20

The MK XII IFF system requires triggers to initiate interro– gations. Where do they come from?

The pulse generator of the IFF interrogator

21

You would find direct altitude readouts for IFF mode C replies on which of the following displays?

Intratarget data indicator

22

All the indicators on your ship that are interfaced with IFF have ring-around. Which of the following places will the problem most likely be found?

Primary radar antenna

23

The antenna pedestal assembly is being rotated at 21 rpm. To what mode of operation is your IFF manual pedestal set?

Slave (2-30 rpm)

24

What are the different Mode of operations for the manual pedestal set?

1. Free-Run (15RPM) 2.Slave(2-30RPM) 3.Manual (any Azimuth)

25

Which of the following modes of IFF operation does/do NOT require that reply codes be set by thumbwheel switches?

4

26

You would need written permission from the Skipper to work on which of the following units without formal training?

KIT–1A/TSEC, ,KIR-1,KIK-18

27

Which of the following agencies is/are involved in agreements made under the AIMS program?

1. The Air Force 2. The Navy 3. The FAA

28

You are at a shore installation and your DAIR system alarms when the target strays ±300 feet from the controller–assigned altitude. What type of DAIR system do you have?

type-10 radar

29

What are the different types of DAIR(direst altitude and identify readout)

Type 8 CArrier Type 10 Radar Type 12 Amphibous

30

A controller using a CATCC DAIR system has which of the following information available at his/her console?

1. Flight identity 2. Flight altitude 3. Ship’s barometric pressure

31

As an aircraft leaves the CATCC controller’s area of respon– sibility, it is passed to which of the following controllers?

1. Another CATCC control position 2. CIC 3. ACLS/PALS

32

Which type of DAIR system would be used for amphibious operations?

Type 12

33

Each DAIR system provides information to allow control of aircraft within a given area. Which type has a responsibility area of 50 nautical miles surrounding the ship?

Type 8 catcc pair cv18

34

Which type of DAIR system has the AOA as its responsibility area?

Type 12 AATC (V)12

35

On board your carrier you have just updated your AN/TPX–42A(V)8 to a (V)12. Which additional system can now interface with your DAIR?

ITAWDS (Integrated Tactical Amphibous Warfare Data System) SDMS(Shipboard Data Muliplex System)

36

A technician trained to maintain a RATCF DAIR system will have what NEC?

ET-1578

37

A technician trained to maintain an AIMS Mk XII IFF system will have what NEC?

ET–1572

38

A technician trained to maintain an AATC DAIR system will have what NEC?

ET-1576

39

Which of the following systems, if any, integrates other systems and subsystems to perform detection and entry functions?

NTDS(Naval Tactical Data Systems)

40

What are combat system functions controlled by NTDS?

1. Tracking and identification 2. Threat evaluation and weapon assignment 3. Engagement and engagement assessment

41

As an ET you are responsible for maintenance on which of the following NTDS-related equipment?

Video and sync amps, Radar, Antenna, Radar Switch Boards

42

What publication, if any, provides information on radar and NTDS as an integrated system on your ship?

CSTOM Combat Systems Technical Operation Manual

43

The Combat Systems Technical Operations Manual provides information required to take which of the following actions?

1. Define the limitations of the NTDS system 2. Operate the NTDS system 3. Maintain the material readiness of the NTDS system

44

Which of the following are CRT safety hazards?

1. Violent implosion if broken 2. Toxic phosphor coating 3. Very high voltage

45

what are the electrical safety rubber gloves ratings?

Class 0 (750 Watts) Class I (3000 watts) Class II (4000 Watts) Class III (5000 watts)

46

In which section of the tag-out log would you place a tag-out record sheet that has been cleared after completion of radar PMS

section 5

47

RADHAZ labels indicate an RF electromagnetic field intense enough to do which of the following damage?

1. Cause spark ignition of fuel 2. Produce harmful biological effects in humans 3. Actuate electroexplosive devices

48

When you are in port, who must give you permission to test operate your radar system?

The supervisor in charge of operations

49

Which of the following hazard conditions is most critical during a refueling operation?

HERF (Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation to Fuels)

50

Which of the following hazard conditions is most critical when a person is working aloft?

HERP (Hazards of Electromagnetic Personal)

51

Which of the following hazard conditions is most critical during an ammunition off–loading operation?

HERO (Hazards of Electromagnetic of Ordnance)

52

What parameter(s) is/are used to determine safe limits associated with electronic equipment?

1. Power density of the radiation beam 2. Exposure time of the human body

53

Which of the following requirements pertain(s) to a safety observer for a technician working on energized equipment?

1. Must be CPR qualified 2. Must know the location of all cut–off switches 3. Must have a nonconductive device to pull the technician from a circuit

54

How often is the required PMS performed on a safety harness?

Each time it is used