Ethical/Legal/Professional Issues Flashcards
(113 cards)
1
Q
Beneficence and Nonmaleficence
A
do good, avoid harm
2
Q
Fidelity and Responsibility
A
Develop trust; accept responsibility of work; uphold professional standards of conduct
3
Q
Integrity
A
Maximize benefits and minimize harm through accuracy and honesty.
4
Q
Justice
A
Exercise competence and reasonable judgment
5
Q
Respect for People’s Rights and Dignity
A
Respect autonomy; maintain professional boundaries; preserve confidentiality and privacy
6
Q
the Standards consist of _____ individual standards within the following 10categories:
A
89
7
Q
Ethical theory revolves around four basic concepts: _______, nonmaleficence, beneficence, and justice.
A
respect for autonomy
8
Q
Belmont report (U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, 1979), a document that highlights three ethical principles for research;
respect for persons (and protection for those who are considered vulnerable)
beneficence,
and ________.
A
Justice
9
Q
The Preamble and General Principles are aspirational and ______, which means that they provide general guidelines for ethical decision-making but will not serve as the basis for disciplinary action against a psychologist.
A
nonenforceable
10
Q
Ethical Standards are mandatory, _____ provisions, and it is usually one or more Ethical Standards that are cited in a charge of ethical misconduct by the Ethics Committee.
A
enforceable
11
Q
Lack of awareness or misunderstanding of an Ethical Standard is not itself a defense to a ____
A
charge of unethical conduct.
12
Q
client confidentiality always _______ the need to educate or punish an offending psychologist and, if an informal or formal action will violate client confidentiality. the action is prohibited.
A
takes precedence over
13
Q
it would be unethical to deny a person a promotion simply because he/she is the complainant or respondent in an _______ complaint. Note that this prohibition applies only to parties in a pending case and does not prohibit psychologists from making decisions about hiring, promotion, tenure, etc. based on the outcome of a complaint (Fisher, 2003).
A
unresolved
14
Q
if a psychologist wants to change from a specialty in educational psychology to one in clinical psychology, she ____have to obtain a second doctoral degree in clinical psychology but must complete the coursework and supervised training required for that degree.
A
does not
15
Q
Although the client (or the client’s legal guardian or representative) is the ____ of the privilege, a psychologist may claim the privilege on behalf of the client when the psychologist is asked to disclose confidential information in a legal proceeding. As an example, the first time a therapist is asked to disclose confidential information about a client when providing testimony in court, the psychologist should ordinarily state that he or she is claiming the privilege on the client’s behalf. The therapist would then release the information only when ordered to do so by the court or when the client or the client’s representative consents to the release.
A
holder
16
Q
Note that, under Tarasoff, a psychologist ____ if a client (a) reveals he/she killed a person ten years ago but was never questioned by the police; (b) says that his/her brother-in-law has been talking about killing his boss; or (c) says he/she is “mad enough to kill someone” but further questioning reveals no specific intended victim. In each of these cases, there are other actions a psychologist might want to take. For example, in the first and second situations, the psychologist would want to encourage the client to contact the police.
A
would not have a duty to warn/protect
17
Q
The primary goal of psychology licensure is to “protect the public by limiting licensure to those persons who are _______ psychology as defined by state or provincial law”
A
qualified to practice
18
Q
____ involves comparing the costs and benefits of an intervention in monetary terms. This method may be used to evaluate a single intervention or compare two or more interventions. A difficulty with CBA Is that it may be difficult to assign a monetary value to an intervention’s outcomes.
A
Cost-benefit analysis (CBA)
19
Q
_____ is useful when the interventions to be compared have similar goals, but it is not possible to assign a monetary value to their outcomes.
A
Cost-effectiveness analysts (CEA)
20
Q
_____ involves evaluating alternative interventions by comparing their costs with the value of their outcomes in terms of healthy years of life - e.g., In terms of “quality-adjusted life-years” (QAL Ys), which combines measures of gain In the quantity (duration) and quality of life.
A
Cost-utility analysis (CUA)
21
Q
____ is used to evaluate the feasibility of one or more Interventions on the basis of the monetary and other resources they would require. Doesn’t take into account outcomes of an intervention.
A
• Cost :feasibility analysts (CFA)
22
Q
______ is used to determine the least costly option that produces equivalent outcomes. CMA could be used to determine if paraprofessionals can provide mental health services that are not only comparable to those provided by professionals but also at a lower cost.
A
Cost-minimization analysis (CMA)
23
Q
______ is also known as medical cost offset when it is used to determine the reduction in medical costs obtained by providing a mental health or other non-medical intervention. Research shows that providing therapy serves to offset medical costs.
A
Cost-offset analysts
24
Q
the identification of job performance (criterion) measures typically begins with a job ___.
A
analysis
25
A________ is a systematic method for collecting the information needed to describe job requirements. Its results serve as the basis for developing criterion measured.
job analysis
26
_______ methods provide information about the characteristics of the tasks that are performed on the job, while worker-oriented methods provide information about the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other characteristics ("KSAOs") that a worker needs to perform the job successfully
Job-oriented
27
job _____ is performed to determine the worth of jobs in order to set salaries and wages.
evaluation
28
Job evaluation techniques are often used to establish ________ - i.e., to ensure that people who are performing comparable work receive comparable pay. This involves using the same job evaluation technique (usually a point system) for all jobs within an organization so that wages are established on the basis of each job"s inherent value rather than on the job title or on who usually performs the job.
comparable worth;
may try and help gender gaps and sometimes may further the gender wage gap/biases
29
________: The ultimate criterion is also known as the conceptual or theoretical criterion and refers to an accurate and complete measure of performance, while the actual criterion is the way that performance is actually measured. For example, for a psychotherapist, an ultimate criterion might be "provides effective therapeutic services," and the actual criterion might be a client survey of satisfaction with therapy.
Ultimate vs. Actual Criterion
30
_______: Criterion relevance refers to the actual criterion's construct validity -i.e., the degree to which it measures the ultimate criterion.
Relevance
31
______ refers to the degree to which an actual criterion does not measure all aspects of the ultimate criterion and is one of the factors that limits criterion relevance.
Deficiency
32
_________ Is another factor that limits relevance and occurs when an actual criterion assesses factors other than those it was designed to measure
Criterion contamination
33
_______ techniques require the rater to compare the performance of two or more employees, while absolute techniques provide Information on a ratee's performance without reference or comparison to other employees
Relative (comparative)
34
____ biases occur when a rater tends to avoid the middle range of a rating scale and, instead, rates all employees as either high (leniency) or low (strictness) on all dimensions of job performance.
Leniency and strictness
35
____ bias refers to a rater's consistent use of only the middle range of the rating scale.
Central tendency
36
The _____ (error) occurs when a rater's evaluation of an employee on one dimension of job performance affects his/her evaluation of that employee on other unrelated dimensions or when the rater's general impression of an employee influences how the rater rates the employee on all dimensions of job performance. A halo effect can be either "positive" or "negative."
halo bias
37
______ training is useful for improving the accuracy of performance ratings; it provides raters with a common conception of the multidimensional nature of job performance and of what constitutes effective and ineffective performance on each dimension
frame-of-reference
38
The ______ Rule is often used to determine if a procedure is having an adverse impact: When using this rule, the hiring rate for the majority group is multiplied by 80% to determine the minimum hiring rate for the minority group. As an example, if use of a selection test results in a 50% hiring rate for African Americans and a 90% rate for Whites, the test would be having an adverse impact for African Americans because 90% times 80% is 72%, which is greater than the hiring rate for African Americans. A shortcoming of the 80% Rule is that it can be used to determine if a person has been discriminated against only when he or she is a member of a specific group. In other words, for a finding of adverse impact, the 80% Rule requires that a pattern of discrimination be established.
80% (Four-Fifths)
39
Differential validity occurs when a measure is valid for one group but is not valid (or is significantly less valid) for another group. The characteristic that distinguishes between the two groups- e.g., gender, race, or age- is referred to as a _______
moderator variable
40
______ occurs when members of one group consistently obtain lower scores on the predictor than members of another group, but the difference in predictor scores is not related to differences in scores on the criterion
Unfairness
41
_____ (BFOQJ). Gender, for example, is a BFOQ when it's an essential determinant of the genuineness of the job (e.g., it would be acceptable to interview only men for a male role in a play) or when a person's gender must be taken into consideration to maintain community standards of morality or propriety (e.g., it would be acceptable to interview only women for the position of women's restroom attendant).
bonafide occupational qualification
42
_______ refers to the increase in decision-making accuracy an employer will achieve by using the predictor to make selection decisions.
Incremental validity
43
The _____ is the ratio of job openings to job applicants. For example, a selection ratio of 1 :50 indicates that there is one job opening for every fifty job applicants. A low selection ratio (many applicants for one or a few jobs) Is preferred since it allows an employer to be more selective when making hiring decisions. With a low selection ratio, the employer can raise the predictor cutoff score and thereby reduce the risk of hiring false positives (individuals who score high on the predictor but low on the criterion).
selection ratio
44
The ________ is the percent of employees who are performing satisfactorily without use of the proposed predictor and ranges in value from 0 to 1.0.
base rate
45
A _________ is associated with the greatest incremental validity.
moderate base rate (0.5).
46
The _______ tables can be used to estimate the percent of new hires that will be successful as employees given various combinations of validity coefficients, selection ratios, and base rates.
Taylor-Russell
47
In other words, when the selection ratio is low (1:100) and the base rate moderate (.45), a predictor with a ____ validity coefficient can improve decision-making accuracy.
low (e.g., .30)
48
Multiple regression is _______ since exceptional performance on one predictor can offset poor performance on another predictor.
compensatory
49
the multiple cutoff method is ________, which means that a minimum score on each predictor must be obtained before a job applicant will be considered for selection. The multiple cutoff technique can be used in conjunction with multiple regression by first selecting only those people who score above the minimum cutoff point on all predictors and then using the multiple regression equation to predict each selected person's criterion score.
noncompensatory
50
___________: When using this technique, predictors are admin1stered one at a time in a predetermined order, with each predictor being administered only if the previous one has been successfully passed or completed. An advantage of multiple hurdles is that it saves time and money since all of the predictors are not administered to all individuals.
Multiple (Successive) Hurdles
51
Of the BIG 5, _________ has been found to be the best predictor of job performance across different jobs, job settings, and criterion measures (Schmidt & Hunter, 1998).
conscientiousness
52
_____ have been found to be more valid for predicting job choice, satisfaction, and persistence than job success.
Interest tests
53
The use of ______ as a selection tool is based on the assumption that the best predictor of future behavior is past behavior, and this assumption has been confirmed by studies finding biographical information to be among the most valid predictors across organizations, occupations, and samples
biodata
54
_____ are by far the most common method of obtaining information about applicants, although they generally have lower levels of reliability and validity than many other selection techniques.
Interviews
55
there is evidence that _______ are most reliable, valid, and cost-effective when they entail a single interviewer (Cooper & Robertson, 1995).
structured interviews
56
An assumption underlying the use of _______ is that disillusionment with the job is a primary cause of turnover; and the purpose of an RJP is to reduce unrealistic job expectations and thereby increase job satisfaction and commitment and lower turnover rates.
realistic job preview
57
_____ learning is most effective for tasks that are low in complexity but high in organization, while part learning is most effective for tasks that are highly complex but low in organization.
Whole
58
Tiedeman and O'Hara's ( 1963) career decision-making model describes vocational identity development as an ongoing process that is tied to ego identity development (which they describe in terms of Erikson's psychosocial stages) and that involves the repetitive processes of differentiation and integration.. There are two phases: ___ and _____
anticipation phase; implementation and adjustment phase
can move between the two phases
59
Krumboltz's Career Belief Inventory is used to identify irrational, illogical beliefs that affect an individual's ________.
career-related decisions
60
A person with a ______ career concept envisions his/her career as involving periodic moves across occupational specialties or disciplines.
spiral
61
A person with a ____ career concept considers the ideal career as involving frequent job changes, often to jobs in unrelated fields.
transitory
62
in the past, organizations ordinarily preferred employees with linear and expert career concepts. However. because of the trend toward continuous internal change in organizations, individuals with spiral and transitory career concepts may be preferable. They argue that, to maintain their effectiveness, organizations must adopt a .. ____ career culture" that supports the various career concepts of their employees.
pluralistic
63
Dawls and Lofquist's ( 1984) theory of work adjustment (TWA) describes satisfaction, tenure, and other job outcomes as the result of the correspondence between the worker and his/her work environment on two dimensions - satisfaction and "''· _________
satisfactoriness
64
The latter workers may exhibit ______ syndrome, which is characterized by depression, anxiety, guilt, stress-related illnesses, and decreased job satisfaction and organizational commitment
This is often a result of Downsizing.
survivor
65
Scientific management was developed by Frederick Taylor ( 1911) who applied the scientific method to the study of ______.
job productivity
66
The improvement in job performance resulting from psychological and social factors related to participation in a research study is referred to as the ________.
Hawthorne effect
67
_____ work group norms have a significant impact on worker productivity.
informal
| this person is doing too much --> rate buster; this person isn't doing enough
68
Theory _____ managers believe that employees dislike work and avoid it whenever possible and, as a result, must be directed and controlled.
X
69
Theory ___ managers view work as being .. as natural as play" and assume that employees are capable of self-control and self-direction
Y
McGregor thinks this is more likely to lead to positive outcomes.
70
high motivation alone does not lead to high performance but that successful performance is a function of high motivation, high ability, and adequate environmental support (materials, equipment, etc.)
Performance = f{Ability + Motivation + Environment)
71
Alderfer (1972) developed his theory as an alternative to Maslow's approach and reduced Maslow's five needs to three: existence, relatedness, and ____ ("ERG")
growth;
gotten more empirical support than Maslow's
72
The need for _____ refers to the need to surpass standards of excellence and to advance and grow. Individuals with a high need for achievement are goal- and task-oriented.
achievement; most researched
High need for achievement often leads to seeking out moderate difficulty and risk tasks.
73
• The need for _____ refers to the need to control or influence others. McClelland distinguished between socialized power (which is used to benefit others) and personalized power (which is used to benefit oneself) and proposed that effective leaders have a high need for socialized power.
power
74
• The need for _____ refers to the need to establish warm and close relationships with other people. Individuals with a high need for affiliation work best in teams and in jobs that require them to relate well with others.
affiliation
75
Herzberg's two factor theory of satisfaction and ____.
motivation
76
Lower-level needs have little effect on job satisfaction and motivation but produce _______ when they are unfulfilled. Factors that satisfy lower-level needs are called hygiene job context) factors and include pay. benefits. co-worker relationships, supervision, job security. and physical work conditions.
dissatisfaction
77
Higher-level needs increase job satisfaction and motivation when they are fulfilled but do not cause dissatisfaction when they are ________. Factors that satisfy higher-level needs are referred to as motivator job content) factors and include opportunities for responsibility, advancement, recognition. and achievement.
unfulfilled
78
An important contribution of Herzberg's work was his development of ________ as a way to increase worker motivation. Job enrichment involves combining several jobs into a larger job so that the employee performs a meaningful unit of work and is given greater responsibility, freedom, autonomy, and control
job enrichment
(many smaller jobies into one bigger jobie) ....vertical loading, more meaningful tasks
79
job_______ entails increasing the job's horizontal loading by increasing the number and variety of tasks. Although job enlargement can reduce boredom, it does not usually have a substantial impact on satisfaction and motivation.
enlargement
80
According to Locke and Latham's (1990) goal-setting theory, employees are motivated to achieve goals they have consciously accepted and are, therefore, _______
committed to.
81
Adams's ( 1963) _______ emphasizes the impact of social comparison on motivation and proposes that employees compare the ratio of their own inputs (skills, experience, education, etc.) to outcomes (financial and nonfinancial rewards) to the input/outcome ratios of others who are performing similar jobs.
equity theory
82
According to _______ (Porter & Lawler, 1968; Vroom, 1964), an employee will work hard if he or she (a) believes that high effort will lead to successful task performance (high expectancy), (b) believes that successful performance will lead to rewards (high instrumentality), and (c) views the rewards as desirable (positive valence}.
expectancy (VIE) theory
83
Bandura's _____ theory:
1) Goal setting
2) Self-observation
3) Self-evaluation
4) Self- Reaction
social cognitive
84
____ commitment refers to a worker's perceptions regarding the social and monetary costs of leaving the organization.
Continuance;
only related to turnover. Affective commitment is most related to other things.
85
Judge et al. (2002) found that ________ was the strongest predictor of effective leadership.
extraversion
86
____ theory proposes that leadership effectiveness is the result of an interaction between the leader's style and the favorableness of the situation:
contingency
87
Under low levels of stress, a leader's intelligence is more predictive of performance than is his/her experience. This is because, in low stress situations, a leader is able to apply his/her judgment, problem-solving skills, and other cognitive resources to the task. However, under high levels of stress. the opposite is true - I.e., a leader's experience is more predictive of performance than is his/her intelligence. The reason for this is that stress interferes with the leader's ability to use his/her cognitive resources; and, consequently, the leader must rely on his/her experience.
Cognitive Resource Theory
88
____ theory proposes that an effective leader is one who can help carve a path for subordinates that allows them to fulfill personal goals through the achievement of group and organizational goals.
Path-goal
89
person may be allowed to occasionally violate norms when he/she has gained prestige, status, and respect by functioning competently in the group, serving as the group leader, or consistently conforming to group norms in the past. According to Hollander ( 1960), this is because, by doing so, the person has accumulated _______.
idiosyncrasy credits
90
```
Forming
Storming
Norming
Performing
Adjourning
```
5 stages of group development
91
Although centralized networks are more efficient for simple tasks, ________ networks are better for complex tasks because they provide greater flexibility and exchange of ideas.
decentralized; most participants are more satisfied with decentralized communication.
92
_____ was described by Janis ( 1982) as a suspension of critical thinking ~at can occur in highly cohesive groups, especially when the leader is highly directive and the group is working under conditions of high stress.
Groupthink;
| Teamthink is the opposite (diversifying views and opinions)
93
A group leader can reduce the likelihood of groupthink by encouraging ___ and dissent among group members, appointing someone to play devil's advocate, bringing in outside opinions, reducing time pressures to reach a solution, and not stating his/her own opinion prior to a group discussion.
skepticism
94
________, , which is the tendency for groups to make decisions that are more extreme (more conservative or risky) in the direction of the views initially held by group members than decisions that would have been generated by individual members alone
Group Polarization
95
_______ (negotiation) is probably the most common method for resolving conflict in organizations. When using this technique, opposing sides in the dispute exchange offers, counteroffers, and concessions either directly or through representatives.
Bargaining
96
In _______, a neutral third party uses various tactics to facilitate voluntary agreement between the disputants. Although a mediator can offer specific recommendations, he or she has no formal power and cannot impose a settlement upon the parties
mediation
97
An ______ has more authority than a mediator and controls both the process and outcome of conflict resolution. There are several types of arbitration. In binding arbitration, the two sides agree In advance to accept the settlement recommended by the arbitrator, while, in voluntary arbitration, the parties agree only to the arbitration process. In conventional arbitration, the arbitrator is free to choose any settlement solution, but, inflnal offer arbitration. the arbitrator must select one of the final offers made by the disputants.
arbitrator
98
According to Lewin's (1951) force field analysis of planned change, organizations continually respond to forces that either promote or resist change. 3 stages:
Unfreezing
Changing
Refreezing
99
Organizational development (OD) is most commonly used when companies want to improve ____
productivity
100
________programs are designed to
humanize work and the work environment. An important aspect of QWL is its emphasis on employee empowerment. or "the process of enabling workers to set their own goals, make decisions, and solve problems within their sphere of responsibility and authority"
Quality of Work Life
101
A ___ consists of a small voluntary group of employees who work together on a particular job and meet regularly to discuss job-related problems and solutions.
Quality Circle (most impact on employees attitudes)
102
A _____ are made up of employees who work together as a unit and are trained in skills to effectively perform group task.
self-managed work team
103
_____ refers to activities designed to assist members of an organization--help themselves by improving their ability to perceive, understand, and alter the processes that are undermining their interactions with one another. observes employees during meetings and other usual activities and then shares obtained information with the employees to help them identify ways to improve their future interactions; they focus on bxs.
Process Consultation
104
_____ includes:
Data collection
Data feedback
Action planning
Survey Feedback
105
________ is distinguished from
other approaches by its focus on customer satisfaction, employee involvement and empowerment, continuous improvement (kaizen) in the quality of goods and services, and ongoing measurement of performance in order to identify problems. With regard to employee involvement. TQM emphasizes teamwork and decision-making at all levels of the organization.
Total Quality Management
106
A _____ Is an individual who is responsible for guiding the change effort. Can be internal or external to organization.
change agent
107
group discussions about ways to accomplish change may be useful for overcoming resistance to change and maximizing productivity once the change is implemented.
normative-reeducative strategy
108
____ refers to the fairness of the way in which a procedure or policy is
implemented.
Procedural Justice
109
___ refers to the fairness of the outcomes of an organizational procedure or policy .
Distributive Justice
110
__ refers to how people feel about the quality and content of person-to-person interactions.
Interactional Justice
111
Organizational culture is embedded within the national culture and is influenced by it. Kedia and Bhagat (1988), for example, found that new technologies are more readily accepted by organizations in ______ countries than by organizations in collectivistic countries.
individualistic
112
Level 1) observable artifacts (dress code, etc)
Level 2) espoused values and beliefs (org's norms)
Level 3) basic underlying assumption
Level's of organizational culture
113
the combination of high job demand and ___ job control produces the most stress which, in turn, is associated not only with job dissatisfaction but also with emotional exhaustion, depression, and other health problems.
low
