Cognitive-affective bases of behavior

Question 1

_____________ deals with the observation that two individuals confronted with the same
stimulus presentation may come to different conclusions, that is, they may not
agree as to whether a simple stimulus was present. Disagreement may occur due
to differences in discriminability or response bias

Answer 1

Signal detection theory

process interpreting physical sensations

Question 2

___________ of the stimulus is described by the mathematical function of separation/
spread, with separation representing signal strength and spread representing the
background noise present during the stimulus presentation.

Answer 2

Discriminability

d′

Question 3

Response bias is a function of where the criterion for stimulus detection is set. The criterion can be set low to avoid _________ at a more
liberal threshold, or the criterion can be set high to avoid ____________ at a more
conservative threshold

Answer 3

False negatives; false positives

Question 4

_____________ is the branch of psychology that deals with the detection and interpretation
of sensory stimuli.

Answer 4

Perception

Question 5

__________ means that a perceived stimulus will undergo successive elaboration. For a
visual stimulus this means edge and orientation processing at early stages, the detection of features such as corners or curves or shapes at middle stages, and the identification of an object from a memory store at a later stage.

Answer 5

Hierarchical Processing

Question 6

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ means that there is a separate central nervous system unit for processing each
visual feature (i.e., shape, color, and motion). Integration occurs by the simultaneous activity of processing units gaining access to each other’s contents (parallel and distributed processing).

Answer 6

Functional Segregation

Question 7

_______________ defined as the cognitive process by which a unified internal representation of a
stimulus is formed from the activity of multiple mental modules. FB requires greater attentional resources than single feature processing, is
more likely to rely on the activity of the frontal and parietal cortex, and is supported
by cholinergic activity.

Answer 7

Feature Binding

Question 8

____________ (Bayesian
approaches) has been used to understand sensory/perceptual processes (Brainard,
2009; Simoncelli, 2009). By applying optimal estimation theory (also known as
statistical decision theory) to a simple example, such as color recognition, we can
outline its basic principles and extrapolate to a more complex process such as
objection recognition.

Answer 8

optimal estimation theory

more recent than signal detection theory

Question 9

Given several possible interpretations of a visual scene, the visual system selects the most probable interpretation a priori (Brainard et al., 2006),
or, put another way, the actual image data are combined with prior assumptions
(Brainard, 2009).

Answer 9

this is what is meant by Bayesian approaches, such as how we know the color of an object doesn’t change even though the lighting / environment may change.

Question 10

Cocktail party effect

Answer 10

The term attention can
also mean a process occurring during alert states by which a stimulus can either
be attended to or ignored. (Selective attention).

Question 11

___________ is a neuropsychological test often used to assess attention. Formulated by Michael Posner,[1] the task assesses an individual’s ability to perform an attentional shift. It has been used and modified to assess disorders, focal brain injury, and the effects of both on spatial attention.

Answer 11

The Posner cueing task, also known as the Posner paradigm

Question 12

In the classic demonstration of a______________________, individuals who are actively tracking an aspect of a sports event fail to notice a person in a gorilla suit walking
directly through the game—clearly, attention cannot be directed everywhere.

Answer 12

Attentional blindness

Question 13

when attentional resources are taxed through
increased processing load, or by dividing them between two tasks, performance
______ are observed; however, those resources can be increased through
practice (Treisman, 2009).

Answer 13

decrements

Question 14

______ the more similar tasks are, the more they
compete
for limited attentional resources. Similar tasks tend to share the same
sensory/
perceptual modality.

Answer 14

Structural Interference

Question 15

___________________there is a general limit to the extent of attentional resources.
Evidence for this limit can be found even when attention is divided between
two noninterfering (i.e., different modalities) tasks and performance decrements
occur. These decrements are less than those occurring with high structural interference,
but they are still meaningful enough to indicate a drain on a general
attentional resource that is occurring.

Answer 15

General Interference

Question 16

______—the unity of our actions places limits on attentional

resources in preparing responses.

Answer 16

Behavioral coherence

Question 17

_________ is an example of
attention to objects (i.e., word identity) taking precedence over attention to attributes
(i.e., the color of ink the word is printed in)

Answer 17

The Stroop Effect (Stroop, 1935)

Question 18

________ helps to explain the push–pull relationship of the facilitative and inhibitory
mechanisms at work (Pinsk, Doninger, & Kastner, 2004). The theory posits the
degree to which an ignored stimulus is processed depends on the extent of processing
required by the attended stimulus. According to ____________, reduction of interference caused by distractors is greatest when the processing
demands to the attended stimulus are highest.

Answer 18

Attentional load theory (Lavie &

Tsal, 1994)

Question 19

Attention can be “captured” in a stimulus-driven fashion, referred to as _______
mechanisms or reflexive attention, or in a strategic fashion, referred to as _______
mechanisms (Treisman, 2009).

Answer 19

bottom-up (odor of smoke, name said across a room); Gestalt
principles of perceptual organization (i.e., similarity, proximity, and common fate)
are part of bottom-up attentional influences (Kastner et al., 2009)

top-down (Anne Treisman’s conjunction search paradigm (Treisman & Gelade,
1980); find the O in red ink); lateral parietal and frontal
lobes; Top-down attentional
control helps to resolve competition between stimuli by introducing bias toward one stimulus over another.

Question 20

Latent variable analysis suggests that _______ is a critical component of EFs, as there is a near perfect correlation of WM and non-WM executive
functioning tasks, leading some experts to refer to a unitary underlying construct
of executive attention

Answer 20

Working memory

Question 21

“_____” EFs are thought to involve cognitive functions, whereas “___” EFs involve social and affective processing.

Answer 21

Cold; Hot; EFs are the only neuropsych tested constructs that relate to personality. (e.g., frontal lobe injury, HM).

Wisconsin Card Sort Test (set establishment and maintenance), the Stroop Color Word Test (attentional control), and the Controlled Oral Word Association Test
(verbal fluency).

Question 22

______ viewed intelligence tests as probing the limited range of linguistic, logical, mathematical,
and spatial abilities, and so expanded to a theory of multiple intelligences to incorporate musical, bodily-kinesthetic, naturalistic, interpersonal and
intrapersonal abilities

Answer 22

Gardner

(compared to Stanford-Binet, Weschler, etc).
(Weschler: Intelligence is the aggregate or global capacity of the individual to act
purposefully, to think rationally and to deal effectively with his environment”)

Question 23

_________ theory, from the bottom up are: (1) regulation of cortical
arousal and attention; (2) receiving, processing, and retention of information; and
(3) programming, regulation, and verification of behavior.

Answer 23

Luria’s (1980) theory of intelligence.

Question 24

________ theorized that each mental ability represented by a mental test
was influenced by a general factor and a specific factor, which he designated as
lower case g and s

Answer 24

Spearman (same guy as ranked correlation -1 - +1).

Question 25

Cattell (1941) proposed that g was actually composed of _______ (Gf) and _______ (Gc) ability. Gf was described as a facility for reasoning and adapting to new situations. Gc was described as accessible stores of knowledge.

Answer 25

``` General Fluid (decreases with age); General Crystallized (stays same with age; increases with age, correlates with SES / education). ```

Question 26

The _________ model is often referred to as Cattell–Horn–Carroll (CHC) theory, and most, but not all, contemporary intelligence tests are based on it (Schneider & McGrew, 2012).

Answer 26

three-stratum model

Question 27

_________ refers to the value of an assessment in selecting and implementing interventions and treatments that will benefit the examinee.

Answer 27

Treatment validity

Question 28

African Americans differ from Caucasians by about ____ standard deviation, with Caucasians obtaining the higher scores, a finding that has been relatively consistent across time and assessment methods but is a difference that diminishes to a ____ standard deviation when socioeconomic status is accounted for (Reynolds & Ramsay, 2003).

Answer 28

1; 0.5

Question 29

Sternberg (2003) has demonstrated in __________ that measures of practical and creative ability contribute significantly to predicting first-year undergraduate grade point average (GPA) above and beyond Scholastic Assessment Test (SAT) scores. Relative to ethnic differences in SAT and GPA, the ________ practical and creative ability measures reduced ethnic difference gaps, particularly for Hispanic Americans.

Answer 29

Project Rainbow

Question 30

The dominant learning theory of the early 20th century was based on the work of ________ (1898), in the United States, and independently, _______ (1927), in Russia. Their findings were known as related forms of conditioning and became the cornerstone of behaviorism.

Answer 30

Thorndike and Pavlov

Question 31

Classical / Pavlovian conditioning

Answer 31

US: meat powder; UR: drooling CS: metronome; CR: drooling to metronome Goal: I want to get the dog to drool when they hear the metronome, something the dog doesn't usually drool to. CS/US > UR until conditioning has occurred, when the UR takes place as soon as the CS appears and the US is not needed any more, and the paradigm becomes simply CS > CR

Question 32

Little Albert

Answer 32

Watson conditioned him to be scared of white rabbits in few trials. The fear generalized (stimulus generalization) to other white objects. Things like anxieties can develop from generalizing responses to stimuli.

Question 33

Operant Conditioning

Answer 33

Thorndike noticed the principles of operant conditioning by noticing bxs were repeated only if they were rewarded. CS > CR/US > UR. The paradigm is read as: a stimulus that precedes a behavior that leads to a “satisfying state of affairs” will tend to be repeated

Question 34

If the reinforcer follows every instance of the CS, it is called ___________, or CRF. CRF is the fastest way to learn, but, because it requires so many reinforcers, it is not efficient.

Answer 34

continuous reinforcement

Question 35

If the schedule does not vary in proportion, say, consistently every fifth press is rewarded, it is called _________

Answer 35

Fixed Ratio

Question 36

If the presses that are rewarded are randomly spaced, it is _________.

Answer 36

Variable Ratio; Both ratio schedules produce high rates of output. That is, they follow the rule that the more the work, the more the reward, or to maximize rewards, one maximizes output.

Question 37

_____________ means | that the first press after a set interval is rewarded.

Answer 37

Fixed Interval; An FI schedule leads to intermittent behavior that, when graphed, looks scalloped because responses right after the reward are never rewarded, and as a result, responses stop for a time. After a while, the responses start again slowly, reaching a high rate just before the end of the interval. Responses are never rewarded at the beginning of an interval, but are always rewarded at the end, so responses stop at the beginning, and become rapid at the end. Responses stop again for a bit, and the cycle continues. Work on term papers nicely illustrates this schedule

Question 38

Intervals between reinforcements can be of unpredictable length. This is called ____________, and a very steady response rate is produced, but of only medium speed. Again, this rate maximizes reinforcement, while minimizing work.

Answer 38

Variable Ratio

Question 39

Ebbinghaus (1885), the method with himself as subject involved memorizing nonsense syllables to see where the errors occurred. One approach presented a list in order over and over until there were no mistakes. It was called the ____________________ because after each syllable Ebbinghaus would try to anticipate the next syllable.

Answer 39

anticipation method

Question 40

______ and _______ effects referred to the first and last syllables being the easiest to remember, respectively.

Answer 40

primacy; recency

Question 41

These and other studies showed that the concept of reinforcement had to be expanded to include cognitive and social reinforcements. Similarly, a number of human behaviors, such as solving puzzles; observing art; and expressing emotion in art, dance, or music, also call for expanded reinforcement concepts.

Answer 41

Examples include Harlow's monkeys (pressing levers more or less to see certain stimuli), Tolman with rats in maze with no food reward vs. food reward at end.

Question 42

Rather than learning rote responses, human subjects may be learning the relationship between the two stimuli, resulting in wide flexibility rather than rigid reflexes.

Answer 42

Rescorla, reinterpretting Pavlov's work.

Question 43

_______ involves learning through observation of the consequences of actions for other people. When a learner observes someone they identify with and the role model receives reinforcement, the learner is motivated to imitate the behaviour as if they had been reinforced themselves.

Answer 43

Vicarious reinforcement

Question 44

The “modal model” of information processing originated with Waugh and Norman (1965) and was expanded by Atkinson and Shiffrin (1968). It was composed of three levels:

Answer 44

sensory memory, short-term memory, and long-term memory

Question 45

________ involves chopping the flow into memories to compare to others in processing their meaning; it's based on retaining visual images and auditory inputs for just milliseconds. In turn, these residual images can be used by the visual system.

Answer 45

Sensory memory

Question 46

_________ represents storage of information that can be retained only for a brief time, and in limited amounts. “One is always very conscious of information in _______” (Springer & Deutsch, 1998).

Answer 46

Short-term memory (STM)

Question 47

It represents the material we are | thinking about at a given moment, and has come to be called____________

Answer 47

Working Memory

Question 48

________ refers to all the information that has been learned, but is not needed at the moment. It represents a relatively permanent memory bank. It is a vast library of information and comes in two main categories, declarative and nondeclarative.

Answer 48

Long Term Memory

Question 49

__________ (part of explicit memory, concious) is composed of things one knows (explicit) and can access, and, according to the analysis of Squire (1992), it has two divisions: semantic and episodic

Answer 49

Declarative memory

Question 50

Memories of things that have happened to you. Prroposed by Tulving (1972) and is autobiographic memory. Everyday experiences are recorded here and are connected to other events of the day. These memories are essentially stored automatically

Answer 50

Episodic Memory

Question 51

_______ refers to knowledge of the world such as facts, meanings, concepts, and rules of culture. These are often learned in school, and as we all know, may require hard work to store.

Answer 51

Semantic Memory

Question 52

___________ consists of items the person is unaware of knowing (implicit), yet can still demonstrate knowledge of.

Answer 52

Non-declarative memory (implicit memory, unconscious)

Question 53

________ means presenting similar words or word parts previous to a test, which will reduce the time to identify a word fragment. It may be a form of cuing, in that both techniques involve activating associated brain areas, so that search there becomes faster and more efficient. It is an implicit characteristic when one is not aware of

Answer 53

priming

Question 54

Greenwald and Leavitt (1984) worked out a theory of four levels of processing in perceiving stimuli, which they labeled as follows:

Answer 54

Presensory (the catching-attention phase), Focal Attention (the paying-attention phase), Comprehension (the understanding phase), Elaboration (making-connections and storing phase).

Question 55

Craik and Lockhart (1972), who had proposed that rather than discrete memory stores, memory was a function of ___________. The deeper the level of processing, the better the recall would be.

Answer 55

cognitive level of processing

Question 56

Affect picks up the stimulus as a source of _________, and the cognitive system then analyzes it to find out why (Zajonc, 1980, 2000).

Answer 56

Cognitive

Question 57

___________ was the first psychologist to propose a theory of emotional experience. His theory postulated that changes in physiological sensation are the primary elements of emotional experience (James, 1884)

Answer 57

William James

Question 58

the ________theory models emotion as the psychological response to the changes in the physical systems of the body after the presentation of a stimulus.

Answer 58

James–Lange

Question 59

The ________ theory proposes that the physiological responses associated with emotion are a consequence of experiencing emotion, not a necessary precursor.

Answer 59

Cannon–Bard

Question 60

1. The individual observes a threatening bear in the woods. 2. The individual runs away and has increased autonomic activity (increased heart rate, increased respiration, etc.). 3. The individual observes his increased autonomic activity and that he is running away from the bear. 4. The individual concludes that he is experiencing fear.

Answer 60

James-Lange

Question 61

1. The individual observes a threatening bear in the woods. 2. The individual processes the sensory information and recognizes a threatening situation. 3. The individual experiences fear. 4. The individual begins to experience physiological changes, such as autonomic arousal and an urge to flee.

Answer 61

Cannon-Bard

Question 62

Stimulus cortical -> processing thalamic -> processing behavior

Answer 62

Cannon-bard

Question 63

____________ concluded that individuals must cognitively appraise a situation in order to determine their emotional states—they referred to this as the “two-factor” model of emotion: Autonomic arousal -> Cognitive interpretation -> Emotion

Answer 63

Schacter and Singer

Question 64

_______ has been the dominant model of emotion since the 1960s

Answer 64

cognitive appraisal

Question 65

_______________'s early work identified two stages of appraisal. In primary appraisal, the valence and threat of the stimulus are identified in a general sense (positive vs. negative; benign vs. stressful). During secondary appraisal, the individual identifies the resources and options that may be available to cope with the stimuli. Both processes combine into the experience of a particular emotion.

Answer 65

Richard Lazarus

Question 66

_______ described a model of emotion that allowed for the experience of affect without cognitive contribution. He challenged the idea that cognition is a necessary component of emotional experience, though he did not conclude that cognition never contributed to emotion.

Answer 66

Zajonc (1980)

Question 67

The central tenet behind the _________________________ is that decision making is influenced by marker signals that arise from multiple levels of operation, both consciously and unconsciously. Marker signals arise in bioregulatory processes (e.g., changes in heart rate, blood pressure, and glandular secretion) and in emotions and feeling.

Answer 67

somatic marker hypothesis (SMH)

Question 68

_____________- often results in significant | changes in the ability to make decisions

Answer 68

ventromedial prefrontal cortex (VMPFC; Damasio)

Question 69

The main figure associated with the basic emotion model is ______________. In 1971, he published an article reporting the ubiquity of facial expressions related to emotion by studying facial expressions across several cultures. They identified six basic/primary emotions as defined by these facial expressions

Answer 69

Paul Ekman; happy, sad, surprised, disgusted, angry, and afraid.

Question 70

________ models of emotion attempt to incorporate flexibility into a simple model in an effort to provide a broader description of emotional experience. They did not begin to be well described and researched until _______________.

Answer 70

Dimensional; | Osgood, Suci, and Tannenbaum (1961)

Question 71

two dimensions of emotion—usually identified as _________, the pleasantness of a stimulus, and _________, the autonomic arousal in response to a stimulus

Answer 71

valence and arousal

Question 72

The nucleus accumbens, a small cluster of neurons within the basal ganglia, has been shown to be particularly important to the process of positive reinforcement and reward and is often identified as the brain’s “___________________”

Answer 72

pleasure center

Question 73

Motivation is the internal force that pushes the individual toward action and is generally considered to be composed of three components—____________________

Answer 73

arousal, direction, | and intensity

Question 74

A drive such as hunger is defined as a _______ drive—these are drives that are biological and innate. Drives that are learned through experience, such as achieving wealth, are ______ drives, as they are not innate and do not directly support a biological need.

Answer 74

primary; secondary

Question 75

________ is among the most influential of motivational theorists who described a drive theory; he believed that there are internal drives that motivate behavior.

Answer 75

Clark Hull

Question 76

Work by Amsel and colleagues (Amsel & Roussel, 1952; Amsel & Ward, 1965) demonstrated that frustration can _______ motivation more than reward.

Answer 76

increase

Question 77

1. Physiological—food, water, sleep, and sex 2. Safety—shelter, employment, and health 3. Love/belonging—friendship and family 4. Esteem—self-esteem, achievement, and respect of others 5. Self-actualization—morality and creativity

Answer 77

Maslow's hierarchy of needs

Question 78

_________ theory, which postulates that motivation is governed by three considerations—achievement, authority, and affiliation (McClelland, 1965). Achievement is the need to find a sense of accomplishment through advancement and feedback. Authority is the need to lead and to make an impact. Affiliation is the need to be liked and to develop positive social interactions.

Answer 78

Need for Achievement

Question 79

___________, focuses on the idea that humans have “inherent growth tendencies” that lead to consistent effort (Deci & Vansteenkiste, 2004). This theory centers on intrinsic motivation and consists of three basic needs—competence, relatedness, and autonomy. Competence is the need to develop mastery. Relatedness is the need to develop relationships with others. Autonomy is the need to have control in one’s own life while maintaining relationships with others.

Answer 79

self-determination theory (SDT)

Question 80

_________: when individuals behave in a manner that is inconsistent with their values or beliefs, they will change their beliefs to manage the psychological tension created by the mismatch

Answer 80

Cognitive Dissonance (Festinger)

Question 81

______________________relies on three components—valence, expectancy, and instrumentality—to understand behavioral motivation. Valence refers to how much one values a particular consequence and will lead an individual to approach or avoid a behavior. Expectancy is the belief that one possesses the resources to achieve a certain goal, whereas instrumentality is the belief that completing a behavior will lead to a predictable outcome.

Answer 81

Expectancy Theory; Victor Vroom

Question 82

_____________was the first psychologist to describe the importance of the interaction of cognition and emotion in normal and abnormal functioning, particularly in disorders like depression. In 1955, he established rational emotive behavior therapy (REBT), which focused on how thoughts determine emotion

Answer 82

Albert Ellis

Question 83

________ expanded on the influence of cognition on emotion when he developed cognitive therapy in 1967 with his seminal work, Depression: Clinical, Experimental, and Theoretical Aspects.

Answer 83

Aaron Beck

Question 84

The theory of ____________ was developed to explain research that found that animals exposed to inescapable pain will eventually stop trying to avoid the pain, even when opportunities to escape were presented.

Answer 84

learned helplessness (Seligman & Maier, 1967)

Question 85

Weiner developed the concept of __________and globality/specificity, stability/instability, and internality/externality (Weiner, 1986). Globality/specificity refers to whether an individual interprets events as a general response or a situation-specific response.

Answer 85

attributional style

Question 86

A ___________style is characterized by explanations of the causes of negative outcomes as being stable, global, and internal, and the causes of positive outcomes as being unstable, specific and external in nature.

Answer 86

pessimistic explanatory

Question 87

_______________ styles are characterized by explanations for negative outcomes as being due to unstable, specific and external causes, while positive outcomes are perceived as due to stable, global and internal causes.

Answer 87

optimistic explanatory

Question 88

_________ (Adams, 1965) was among the first theories to apply cognitive/emotional interactions to these areas. This theory indicates that individuals assess the rewards from their work. If they feel under-rewarded or over-rewarded, they experience emotional distress and attempt to rectify these feelings through changing either their evaluations of or contributions to their work.

Answer 88

Equity theory

Question 89

___________ incorporated the fact that humans can plan for and form expectations about the future and that these expectations can assist individuals in reaching peak performance.

Answer 89

Goal-setting theory (Locke)

Question 90

_____ affect behavior in four ways: 1. by directing attention 2. by mobilizing efforts and resources for the task 3. by encouraging persistence 4. by facilitating the development of strategies to complete the goal

Answer 90

goals

Question 91

The observable effects of anxiety on performance have been described with the ______________, which indicates that there is an optimal level of anxiety that will lead to peak performance. If anxiety is too low or too high, performance will be negatively affected.

Answer 91

Yerkes–Dodson law

Question 92

____________ postulates that increased anxiety associated with performance under pressure leads the individual to exert conscious control over a skill or activity that otherwise can be completed with automatic processing (Masters, 1992). This conscious focus on the skill disrupts the normally smooth automatic processing and leads to decrements in performance.

Answer 92

Conscious Processing Hypothesis (CPH)

Question 93

______, on the other hand, focuses on the effect anxiety has on the cognitive resources available to the individual. PET predicts that increased stress will reduce the capacity of WM, thereby increasing the difficulty of completing the task for the individual (Eysenck & Calvo, 1992).

Answer 93

Processing Efficiency Theory (PET).

Question 94

______________ postulates that the impact of stress and emotions on performance can be understood as a function of individual and group resources (Hobfoll, 1998). According to this theory, an individual is primarily motivated to build and maintain resources that will protect both the individual and the social system that supports the individual.

Answer 94

Conservation of Resources (COR)

Question 95

_____________________(Sarason, 1984), which postulates that negative self-talk unrelated to the task interferes with the individual’s ability to perform adequately by drawing cognitive resources, such as attention, away from the task. This differs from the more contemporary understanding of self-talk in that current research tends to focus on self-talk related to the task.

Answer 95

Cognitive Interference Theory

Question 96

_______: a high probability behavior is used to reinforce a low probability behavior. A therapist would be using the Premack Principle to increase the amount of time a student spends studying when, after learning that the student frequently watches television, she tells him he can watch TV only after studying for at least one hour. In this situation, watching TV (a high probability behavior) is being used to reinforce studying (a low probability behavior) to ftlcrease study time. The Premack Principle is particularly useful when it's difficult to identify a stimulus that would act as a reinforcer for a particular individual.

Answer 96

Premack Principle: When using the Premack Principle (Premack, 1965)

Question 97

__________ combines positive reinforcement with extinction and involves reinforcing alternative behaviors while ignoring the target behavior. As an example, a child who engages in stereotyped hand movements (which are self-reinforcing) might be reinforced with nickels or tokens for each two-minute period she plays with available toys rather than engaging in the hand movements. In this situation, playing with toys is being reinforced, while hand movements are being extinguished.

Answer 97

Differential reinforcement

Question 98

________ is illustrated by Foxx and Azrin's ( 1972) treatment of a hospitalized woman with severe retardation who constantly disrupted the ward by throwing objects and overturning her bed. When the woman engaged in these behaviors, she was required to straighten the entire room (restitution) and then to practice more desirable behaviors such as making up all of the beds on the ward (positive practice).

Answer 98

Overcorrection

Question 99

_____________: Negative practice is essentially the opposite of the positive practice component of overcorrection and involves requiring the individual to deliberately repeat the undesirable behavior to the point that it becomes aversive to the individual or the individual becomes fatigued. It's especially useful for eliminating habits and other behaviors that the individual would like to eliminate but has been unable to control such as nail biting, hair twisting, pica, motor tics, stuttering, and smoking. As an example, when used to eliminate a motor tic, the individual is instructed to .. practice"

Answer 99

Negative Practice

Question 100

___________ is an application of negative punishment and involves removing a specific reinforcer each ll:me the target behavior is performed. Although response cost is most commonly associated with token economies (in which token fines are imposed for undesirable behavior), it can be used whenever the control of positive reinforcers is possible.

Answer 100

Response cost

Question 101

______ involves removing all sources of positive reinforcement for a brief, prespecified period of time following a behavior in order to decrease that behavior.

Answer 101

Time-out

Question 102

• Cognit£ve Modeling: The client observes a model perform the task while the model makes self-statements aloud. Self-statements include questions about the nature of the task, answers to those questions, specific instructions on how to do the task, and self-reinforcement. • Cognitive Participant Modeling: The client performs the task as the model verbalizes the instructions. • Overt Self-Instruction: The client performs the task while instructing him- or herself aloud. • Fading Overt Self-Instruction: The client whispers the instructions while carrying out the task. • Covert Self-Instruction: The client performs the task while saying the instructions covertly.

Answer 102

Self-instructional Therapy

Question 103

• Self-Monftortng: Depressed people selectively attend to negative events and to the immediate (versus delayed) consequences of their behavior. • Self-Evaluation: People who are depressed make inaccurate internal attributions and compare their behavior to standards that are excessively rigid and perfectionistlc. • Self- Refnjorcement: Depressed individuals engage in low rates of self-reward and high rates of self-punishment.

Answer 103

Rehm's self-control therapy

Question 104

_______attributes depression to a low rate of response-contingent reinforcement due to inadequate reinforcing stimuli in the environment and/or the lndivtduars lack of sklllin obta1ning reinforcement.

Answer 104

Lewinsohn's (1974) behavioral model

Question 105

describes memory as consisting of three components - sensory memory, short-term memory, and long-term memory.

Answer 105

information-processing model | Atkinson & Shtffrtn, 1968

Question 106

____________, which involves relating new information to existing information, than with maintenance rehearsal, which involves simply repeating the information with little or no processing.

Answer 106

elaborative rehearsal

Question 107

_____________ as another component of L TM that is responsible for the capacity to remember to do things in the future (i.e., to "remember to remember").

Answer 107

prospective memory

Question 108

___________ of working memory consists of a central executive and three subsystems - the phonological loop, the visuo-spatial sketchpad, and the episodic buffer.

Answer 108

multi-component model of WM (Baddeley).

Question 109

According to this view, forgetting results when cues needed to retrieve information from long-term memory are insufficient or incomplete. The tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon is believed to be due to inadequate retrieval cues.

Answer 109

Cue-dependent forgetting

Question 110

satiation

Answer 110

reinforcer losing its value d/t overuse

Question 111

thinning

Answer 111

moving from continuous reinforcement to intermittent reinforcement

Question 112

behavioral contrast

Answer 112

cleaning and raking the yard both earn allowance. Dad stops giving allowance for raking but keeps giving allowance for cleaning. What will happen? Cleaning bx with increase and raking will decrease.