Exam 1 Flashcards
(196 cards)
1
Q
What are the 2 divisions of regional anatomy?
A
axial (the axis), includes head neck and trunk
appendicular includes girdles (shoulder and pelvic) and limbs
2
Q
The 4 quadrants of the abdomen and pelvis has the intersection point where?
A
naval (umbilicus)
3
Q
The 9 regions of the abdomen and pelvis is made up of 4 planes, 2 horizontal at the _____________________, and anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) with 2 vertical mid clavicular lines
A
inferior border of the ribs (10)
4
Q
What organs are in the upper right quadrant?
Test q
A
liver, gallbladder, and R kidney
5
Q
What organs are in the lower right quadrant?
Test q
A
cecum, ilioceceal valve, appendix, and R ovary
6
Q
What organs are in the upper left quadrant?
Test q
A
spleen and left kidney
7
Q
What organs are in the lower left quadrant?
Test q
A
sigmoid colon and left ovary
8
Q
What is the differance between surface and sectional anatomy?
A
surface anatomy is external surface of body w/o dissection
sectional anatomy is deep to the surface w/ dissection
9
Q
Define longitudinal
A
Parallel to long axis of body or part
10
Q
Define transverse section
A
Right angle to longitudinal axis of body or part
11
Q
What other words can you use for superior?
A
Cephalad or cranial
12
Q
What are the other words you can use for inferior?
A
Caudad or caudal
13
Q
What are the 2 dorsal body cavities?
A
1) cranial cavity (brain enclosed by skull)
2) vertebral or spinal cavity (spinal cord enclosed by vertebral column)
14
Q
What are the two ventral cavities?
A
1) thoracic cavity
2) abdominopelvic cavity
15
Q
What cavities are found within the thoracic cavity?
A
pleural cavities (2)
16
Q
What do the pleural cavities hold?
A
lungs
17
Q
What is the mediastinum between?
test q
A
the pleural cavities
18
Q
The mediastinum is split into…
A
superior and inferior parts
19
Q
What is found within the superior mediastinum?
exam q
A
great vessels of the heart
20
Q
The inferior mediastinum is split into….
Exam q
A
anterior, middle, and posterior parts
note: the middle is also called the pericardial and the heart is located here
21
Q
What is found within the abdominal cavity?
A
digestive viscera
22
Q
What is found within the pelvic cavity?
A
bladder, reproductive organs, and rectum
23
Q
What splits the thoracic cavity and the abdominal cavity?
exam q
A
the diaphragm
24
Q
Define variable
test q
A
factor or event that changes and is being regulated
25
Define set point
test q
optimal or ideal level at which a variable is to be maintained
26
What are homeostatic control mechanisms (HCS)?
physiologic systems that work to return variable to set point
note: the level of a variable fluctuates around its set point as the body attempts to optimize it
27
Define homeodynamics
maintenance of homeostasis as set points change in body as we grow and age
28
Define setting point
a set point at a particular time in one's life
29
What are the 3 components of all homeostatic control systems (HCS)?
test q
1) sensory (receptor)
2) control (integrating) center
3) effector
30
What is the homeostatic control systems (HCS) pathway?
test q
stimulus (variable) > sensor (receptor) > info (input) > control (integrating) center > info (output) > effector > response
31
What are the 2 types of homeostatic control systems (HCS)?
intrinsic and extrinsic
32
One of the types of homeostatic control systems (HCS) is intrinsic. What does this mean?
self regulation of cells, tissues, organs
ex:
-intracrine (within)
-autocrine (outside, to itself)
-paracrine (nearby)
33
What does "crine" mean?
Greek for seperate or secrete
34
One of the types of homeostatic control systems (HCS) is extrinsic. What does this mean?
endocrine or NS (distant) regulation of cells, tissues, and organs
35
Feedback loops are what type of HCS?
extrinsic
36
What are the 3 types of feedback loops?
test q
1) negative
2) positive
3) feedforward control loop
37
What is the most predominant feedback loop?
test q
negative feedback
38
Which feedback loop is this?
Responds to (output) and feeds back to become new stimulus. The sensor monitors change, control center establishes set point for variable, and effector elicits a response. Then there is deceleration of the pathway
test q
negative feedback
39
Which feedback loop is this?
Responds to (output) and feeds back to become new stimulus. The sensor monitors change, control center establishes set point for variable, and effector elicits a response. Then there is acceleration of the pathway.
test q
positive feedback loop
40
What feedback loop is this?
Feedback loop (negative or positive) starts or stops in anticipation of stimuli. Control center establishes set point for variable, and effector elicits a response. Then the response feeds back to become new stimulus
test q
feed forward control loop
41
What is an atom?
test q
smallest unit of an element that retains the chemical properties of that element
42
What is an element?
test q
pure substance compound of only 1 type of atom
43
What is a molecule?
test q
smallest unit of a compound that retains the chemical properties of that compound
44
What is a compound?
test q
pure substance composed of 2+ types of atoms
45
What is an ion? What are the 2 types?
test q
atom or molecule that carries an electrical charge
1) cation (positive charge)
2) anion (negative charge)
46
The interaction of making or breaking bonds of reactive atoms is to achieve stability or ____________ by gaining, losing, or sharing electrons
homeostasis
47
Define metabolism
sum of all the biochemical reactions
48
What are the 2 types of metabolism?
1) anabolic (smaller to larger molecules)
2) cationic (large to small molecules)
49
Define metabolite
any substance produced in metabolism
50
Do inorganic compounds contain carbon?
test q
NO
51
What are 2 examples of inorganic compounds?
water and electrolytes
52
What are electrolytes/minerals?
substances that dissociate into ions (charged particles) when placed in solution and are able to conduct electrical current
53
What are 3 examples of electrolytes/minerals?
1) acids (release H+ ions)
2) bases (release OH- or combine w/ H+ ions)
3) salts (formed by reactions between acid and bases)
54
Do organic compounds contain carbon?
test q
YES
55
What are examples of organic compounds?
nutrients or other metabolites
56
What are the 4 types of nutrients we discussed in class?
1) carbohydrates (sugars)
2) lipids (fats and oils)
3) proteins
4) vitamins (coenzymes)
57
What are some examples of other metabolites that are organic compounds (not nutrients)?
nucleic acids (DNA and RNA), or ATP
58
Acids release what into solution?
H+ ions
59
Bases release what into solution?
OH- ions
60
How are salts formed?
by reaction between acid and base
61
pH is a relative measure of what ion concentration?
H+ ions (note: relatively small changes can have drastic effects on the body!)
62
What is neutral pH?
number of H+ = number of OH- ions
7 is neutral
63
What is acidic pH?
number of H+ > number of OH-
0-7 is acidic
64
What is basic/alkaline pH?
number of H+ < number of OH-
7-14 is basic/alkaline
65
A lipid is composed of fatty acids attached to a modified simple sugar called....
glycerol (a 3C alcohol)
66
What is a monoglyceride?
glycerol + 1 FA
67
What is a diglyceride?
glycerol + 2FAs
68
What is a triglyceride?
glycerol + 3FAs
69
What is a phospholipid?
diglyceride + phosphate group
70
What is a glycolipid?
diglyceride + carbohydrate group
71
Steroids are lipids w/ _____ interlocking hydrocarbon rings
4
72
What specific compound is the structural basis of manufacture of all steroids in the body?
cholesterol
73
What are the 2 types of steriods?
1) sex hormones (estrogen, progesterone, and testosterone)
2) corticosteroids (produced in the adrenal cortex- aldosterone, cortisol, and sex steroids)
74
What are the 3 sex hormones?
-estrogen
-progesterone
-testosterone
75
Where are corticosteroids produced? What are they?
in the adrenal cortex (aldosterone, cortisol, and sex steroids)
76
Proteins are chains of amino acids joined together by what type of bonds?
peptide bonds
77
What are the building blocks of protein?
amino acids
78
There are 20 amino acids in the body, ____ of which are essential (cannot be produced in body and must be consumed in the diet)
8
79
What are oligopeptides?
2-9 amino acids
80
What are polypeptides?
10-49 amino acids (genes)
81
How many amino acids make up proteins?
50+
82
What are the 2 types of protein?
1) fibrous or structural proteins
2) globular or functional proteins
83
What are the 4 characteristics of fibrous/structural proteins?
1) stands or sheets
2) insoluble
3) mechanical support
4) cytoskeleton (actin, keratin, tubulin filaments) and ECM (collagen, reticular, and elastic fibers)
84
What are the 4 characteristics of globular/functional proteins?
1) sphere-like
2) soluble (in water)
3) chemically reactive
4) antibodies/immunoglobulins, neurotransmitters, hormones, and enzymes
85
What type of protein are enzymes?
globular/functional proteins
86
What are enzymes/ what do they do?
test q
specific catalysts that speed up a chemical reaction without being consumed (used up) or changed in the process
they speed up reactions by lowering the activation energy
87
What are the 3 major regions of cells?
1) plasma membrane
2) cytoplasm (cytosol, organelles, inclusions)
3) nucleus
88
What does the plasma/cell membrane separate?
intracellular from extracellular environment
89
The plasma/cell membrane is selectively permeable and _____________
amphipathic (both hydrophilic and hydrophobic)
90
What is the fluid mosaic model?
plasma membrane has a bilayer (double) layer of phospholipids molecules with protein molecules dispersed within it
the plasma membrane is constantly changing mosaic pattern (number and arrangement) of these protein molecules
91
What are the proteins in the cell membrane?
-transmembrane (integral) proteins span the entire width
-peripheral proteins are on the outside or inside surface
92
What are the 3 types of transmembrane proteins?
1) carrier (functional/globular)
2) channel (functional/globular)
3) junction (structural/fibrous)
93
Is a carrier protein a functional/globular protein or structural/fibrous protein?
functional/globular
94
Is a channel protein a functional/globular protein or structural/fibrous protein?
functional/globular
95
Is a junction protein a functional/globular protein or structural/fibrous protein?
structural/fibrous
96
What are the 3 types of peripheral proteins?
1) attachment (structural/fibrous)
2) receptor (outside, functional/globular)
3) enzyme (inside, functional/globular)
97
Is a receptor a functional/globular protein or structural/fibrous protein?
functional/globular
98
Is an enzyme protein a functional/globular protein or structural/fibrous protein?
functional/globular
99
What are the 2 types of channel proteins?
-ungated (leaky, always open) channels
-gated channels
100
What is the difference between voltage gated channels and chemical (ligand) gated channels?
voltage gated channels open/close depending on the membrane potential (the charges move the gate of the channel protein)
chemical (ligand) gated channels open/close depending on binding of a primary messenger molecule to the channel protein (ligand/chemical changed the shape of the channel protein)
101
The body can be divided into 2 fluid compartments. What are they?
test q
intracellular fluid (ICF) and extracellular fluid (ECF)
102
What is intracellular fluid? What ions are found here?
test q
fluid inside the cell
contains large amounts of potassium, magnesium, and phosphate ions
103
What are the 2 variations of ECF?
-interstitial fluid = between cells
-intravascular fluid= within blood vessels
104
What is ECF? What ions are found here?
test q
fluid outside of the cell, contains large amounts of sodium, chloride, calcium, and bicarbonate ions
also contains nutrients and gases, fatty acids, amino acids, and oxygen/carbon dioxide
105
What is a tissue?
a group of cells, similar in structure that perform a common or related function
106
What are the 4 tissue types?
1) epithelial (covers body surfaces, lines cavities and tubular structure, makes up glands)
2) connective (support, wrap, and bind)
3) muscular (contraction to produce movement)
4) nervous (electrical impulse transmission)
107
What are the characteristics of epithelial tissue (ET)?
-basement membrane (a complex structural border between ET and underlying CT
-vascularity (no blood vessels, nerves are present)
-regeneration (highly regenerative!!!)
108
What are glands?
1+ cells that are specialized for secretion and produce/secrete substances
109
What are the 2 major types of glands?
endocrine and exocrine glands
110
Which glands have ducts?
exocrine glands
111
Which glands are ductless?
endocrine glands
112
Which glands secrete hormones?
endocrine glands
113
Which glands secretes non-hormonal substances?
exocrine glands
114
Connective tissue packages organs and blood vessels, forms underlayment of skin, and makes up....
tendons, ligaments, joints, cartilage, bone, and blood
115
What are the 2 main components of CT?
specialized cells and extracellular matrix
116
What makes up the ECM in CT?
ground substance (water, glycoproteins, and GAGs (hyaluronic acid + glucosamine)) and fibers (fibrous or structural proteins)
117
Epithelial membranes are made up of what tissue sheets?
epithelial and connective tissue
118
epithelial membranes are cutaneous. What does this mean?
skin!
119
Epithelial membranes secrete mucus and....
serous fluid
120
connective tissue membranes contain what tissue sheets?
CT only
121
connective tissue is found within the meninges. What is the purpose here?
to protect the brain and spinal cord
122
Connective tissue produces __________ fluid
synovial
123
Serosa or serous membranes produce lubricating fluid that allows organs to....
reduce friction
124
What does the viscera cover?
organs
125
What does the parietal membrane cover?
lines wall of body cavities
126
serous membranes are usually named after the body cavity they are located in
-pleura= ?
-pericardium= heart
=peritoneum =?
pleura= lungs
peritoneum = abdominopelvic organs
127
Muscular tissue makes up the flesh of the body cavity, the heart, and the walls of hollow visceral organs. What are the 3 types of muscle tissue?
1) skeletal (voluntary or striated)
2) cardiac
3) smooth (visceral)
128
Nervous tissue makes up the cells of the nervous system. What are the cell types of the nervous system (NS)?
1) neurons or nerve cells
2) neuroglia ("nerve glue") or glial cells
129
What are the structural units of the NS?
neurons
130
Neurons generate and conduct _____________________ impulses
electrochemical
131
Are glial cells conductive or nonconductive?
nonconductive
132
What do glial cells do?
support and protect neurons
133
The integumentary system is composed of....
test q
-skin (epidermal and dermal regions)
-sensory receptors
-accessory organs (glands with oil or sweat, hair, and nails)
134
What are the 6 functions of the integumentary system?
1) protection (chemical, physical, or biological)
2) temperature regulation
3) sensation
4) chemical conversions (vitamin D precursor)
5) blood reservoir (large volumes of blood)
6) excretion
135
What are the 2 regions of the skin?
test q
epidermis and dermis
136
The epidermis is the superficial layer of the skin and contains epithelial cells. It is avascular. What epithelia is found here along with CT?
stratified squamous keratinized epithelia
137
The dermis is the deep layer of the skin and contains fibrous CT. It is vascular. What CT is found here?
proper loose areolar CT and proper dense irregular CT
138
The hypodermis is found below the dermis and is also called the subcutaneous layer. Is this a part of the skin?
test q
NO!
139
The hypodermis is found below the dermis and is also called the subcutaneous layer. The hypodermis is not a part of the skin. It is primarily what tissue?
adipose CT
140
The hypodermis is found below the dermis and is also called the subcutaneous layer. The hypodermis is not a part of the skin. It is primarily adipose CT. What does the hypodermis do?
anchors skin to fascia of skeletal muscles (epimysium)
141
What is keratin?
a fibrous or structural protein that protects the skin
142
What are keratinocytes?
"hornlike cells", arranged in 4-5 layers in various stages of development that comprise the epidermis and produce keratin
143
What are the layers of the epidermis superficial to deep?
test q
come lets get sun burnt (thick skin)
1) stratum corneum (“horny")
2) stratum lucidum (THICK SKIN ONLY, "clear")
3) stratum granulosum ("granular")
4) stratum spinosum ("spiney")
5) stratum basale ("base")
144
What is the outermost layer of the epidermis?
stratum corneum
145
What is the function of the stratum corneum (superfical layer of the epidermis)?
protection (there are flat dead keratinocytes here that rub off/shed)
146
What is the difference between thin and thick skin?
thick= 5 layers of keratinocytes
thin = 4 layers
the layer that is not present in thin skin is stratum lucideum
147
Which layer of the epidermis is water repellent?
stratum granulosum
148
What are the functions of stratum spinosum/what cells are found here (one of the layers of the epidermis)?
-cells are covered with thorn-like spines for strength and flexibility
-contains langerhans dendritic cells (a type of phagocytic antigen presenting immune cell)
-melanin pigment
149
What is the deepest layer of the epidermis?
Test q
stratum basale (contains a single row of cells for cell reproduction)
150
What cells are found at the stratum basale (deepest layer of skin) and what are the cells functions?
test q
-melanocytes secrete melanin pigment
-merkel cells are present and perceive light tough
151
Where is thick skin found?
palms, finger tips, and soles of feet (there are no oil/sebaceous glands here or hair)
note: thin skin contains oil glands and hair and is found everywhere else
152
What connective tissues are found in the dermis?
proper loose areolar CT and proper dense irregular CT
153
Is the dermis vascular or avascular?
vascular
154
What are the 2 layers of the dermis?
test q
1) papillary (superficial layer, thin layer and is proper loose areolar CT)
2) reticular layer (deep layer, thick layer, and is proper dense irregular CT)
155
Which dermal layer is proper loose areolar CT?
papillary layer
156
What is the superficial layer of the dermis?
papillary layer
157
What is the thin layer of the dermis?
papillary layer
158
What is the deep layer of the dermis?
reticular layer
159
What is the thick layer of the dermis?
reticular layer
160
Which dermal layer is proper dense irregular CT?
reticular layer
161
The papillary layer of the dermis is only _____ of total thickness of the dermis
1/5
162
The papillary layer of the dermis is composed of dermal papillae (papillary dermis projects into the undersurface of the epidermis). What do the dermal papillae produce?
fingerprints!
163
What are the contents of the dermal papillae?
test q
1) blood vessels (all dermal papillae contain capillary loops)
2) sensory receptors (free nerve endings detect pain and temperature, meissner tactile corpuscles/merkel cells detect light touch)
164
What are the 2 sensory receptors of the dermal papillae?
test q
1) free nerve endings (detect pain and temperature)
2) meissner tactile corpuscles (detect light touch)
165
What do the free nerve endings of the dermal papillae detect?
exam q
pain and temperature
166
What do the meissner tactile corpuscles/Merkel cells of the dermal papillae detect?
exam q
light touch
167
What are the contents of the reticular layer of the dermis?
exam q
1) blood vessels (arteries and veins)
2) glands (sweat/sudoriferous and oil/sebaceous)
3) sensory receptors (kraus detects deep touch and pressure, ruffini is in charge of stretch, and pacinian is in charge of pressure)
168
What are the glands of the reticular layer of the dermis?
exam q
sweat/sudoriferous and oil/sebaceous glands
169
What are the 3 sensory receptors of the reticular layer?
exam q
1) kraus (deep touch and pressure)
2) ruffini (stretch)
3) pacinian (pressure)
170
What is the function of kraus sensory receptors in the reticular layer?
exam q
deep touch and pressure
171
What is the function of ruffini sensory receptors in the reticular layer?
exam q
stretch
172
What is the function of pacinian sensory receptors in the reticular layer?
exam q
pressure
173
What are the 3 accessory organs of the integumentary system?
1) cutaneous glands
2) hairs
3) nails
174
Sebaceous glands are a type of cutaneous gland. The specific name for sebaceous glands are ___________ glands. Mature cells are destroyed with the secretion of contents
holocrine
175
There are 2 types of sudoriferous (sweat glands, type of cutaneous glands). What are they?
1) apocrine (apex comes off and is found in axillary and anogenital region with a whitish appearance/odor)
2) merocrine (no cell damage, true sweat)
176
Ear wax or breast milk is an example of what type of secretion?
apocrine (sudoriferous/sweat, a type of cutaneous gland)
177
What is another name for hair?
pili
178
What is the structure of hair?
columns of dead keratinized epithelial cells bonded together with extracellular proteins (usually collagen in the ECM)
179
What are the 2 regions of hair?
test q
1) shaft (the part in the epidermis and projects above the skin surface)
2) root (deep to the shaft, found in the dermis and hypodermis/subcutaneous layer)
180
The shaft and root of hair are comprised of 3 concentric layers of cells. What are they/what are they called?
1) medulla (innermost, pigments)
2) cortex (middle, major portion)
3) cuticle (outermost portion, single layer of cells arranged of shingles w/ free edge pointed toward end)
181
The root of a hair is contained within a follicle or....
epithelial root sheath
182
What are the 2 parts of the hair follicle/epithelial root sheath?
1) internal root sheath (epithelial cells between external sheath and root)
2) external root sheath (invagination/extension of the dermis)
183
What is the dermal root sheath?
invagination/extension of the dermis surrounding the follicle (external root sheath)
184
What are the 2 parts of the hair bulb?
test q
1) papilla (nipple shaped indentation for nutrition, contains blood vessels and areolar tissue)
2) matrix (single layer of germinal cells covering papilla and is a continuation of stratum basale (site of cell division) of the external root sheath for hair growth)
185
What CT type is found at the papilla of the hair bulb?
areolar CT
186
Arrector pili muscles are a bundle of _________ muscle cells that extend from the papillary layer of the dermis to the dermal root sheath of the bulb. What neurons innervate here?
test q
smooth
innervated by sympathetic neurons (ANS)
187
Under emotional (fright) or physiological (cold) stress, arrector pili muscles contract and the hair shaft becomes perpendicular to the skin surface and the skin below the shaft forms a slight elevation, called....
goosebumps
188
What is the hair root plexus?
dendrites of neurons which surround the dermal root sheath of each bulb
189
What are nails?
plates of tightly packed, hard, dead, keratinized epidermal cells that form clear protective covering on the dorsal surface of the distal part of fingers and toes
190
What are the 2 main parts of nail structure?
1) root (portion of nail buried in proximal skin fold)
2) nail body or plate (visible attached portion)
191
What are the 2 parts of the nail body?
1) lunula ("little moon", whitish crescent shaped area of proximal portion of nail body)
2) free edge (part of nail body that extends beyond the distal end of digit)
192
What part of the nail is this?
Skin covering the matrix and unexposed portion of lunula or proximal nail plate
mantle
193
What part of the nail is this?
stratum corneum is thickened at the base of the nail
eponychium (cuticle)
194
What part of the nail is this?
stratum basale layer of epidermis where nail starts to grow (produce cells)
matrix (root)
195
What part of the nail is this?
pinkish-colored epidermis underneath nail plate
nail bed
196
What part of the nail is this?
stratum corneum of epidermis thickened under the free edge of the nail
hyponychium
