Exam 2- Nervous, Endocrine, Cardio, Respiratory Systems Flashcards
(310 cards)
1
Q
What are the 3 main functions of the NS?
A
1) sensory input
2) integration
3) motor output
2
Q
What does the CNS consist of?
test q
A
Brain and spinal cord
3
Q
What does the PNS consist of?
test q
A
12 pairs of cranial nerves and 31 pairs of spinal nerves
4
Q
What is a part of the autonomic NS?
test q
A
Sympathetic (fight/flight) and parasympathetic (rest/digest)
5
Q
What are the cells of the nervous system?
A
-glia or neuralgia
-neurons
6
Q
What is the function of neuroglia
A
Provide metabolic support and mechanical scaffolding of neurons
7
Q
What are the 3 ways to organize the NS?
A
Structure, function, and direction of flow
8
Q
What are the structural classifications of NS?
Test q
A
CNS and PNS
9
Q
What are the functional classifications of NS?
Test q
A
Somatic and autonomic NS
10
Q
What are the direction of flow classifications for the NS?
Test q
A
Afferent and efferent
11
Q
What types of neuroglia are found in the CNS?
Test q
A
1) oligodendrocytes
2) astrocytes
3) microglia
4) ependymal cells
12
Q
What is the fight or flight division of NS?
A
Sympathetic NS
13
Q
What is the rest and digest division of NS?
A
Parasympathetic NS
14
Q
What are oligodendrocytes? What is the function of oligodendrocytes?
Test q
A
Type of neuroglia in CNS
Produce the myelin sheath around nerve fibers in the CNS
15
Q
What are astrocytes? What are the functions?
Test q
A
A type of neuroglia in CNS
-maintain BBB
-attached to brain capillaries
-biochemical support for CNS tissue regulation of blood flow and movement of substances to/from blood to nervous tissue
16
Q
What are microglia? What is the function?
Test q
A
A type of neuroglia in the CNS
resident macrophage cells of CNS (main form of active immune defense)
17
Q
What are ependymal cells? What are the functions?
Test q
A
A type of neuroglia in the CNS
-lines ventricular system of the brain and spinal cord
-produces CSF
18
Q
What are the neuroglia of the PNS?
Test q
A
Schwann cells and satellite cells
19
Q
What are Schwann cells? What do they do?
Test q
A
-neuroglia of the PNS
-also called neurolemmocytes
-produce myelin sheath around nerve fibers in the PNS
20
Q
What are satellite cells? What do they do?
Test q
A
-neuroglia of the PNS
-cover the surface of nerve cell bodies in the PNS
-regulate neuron environment
21
Q
What are the functions of myelin sheath?
A
-increase speed of electrochemical impulse transmission
-insulate and protect axon or nerve fiber
22
Q
What is the neurilemma?
A
Outer layer of neuroglia cell cytoplasm surrounding an axon
23
Q
What is the node of ranvier?
A
-gaps in the myelin sheath between adjacent glial cells
-axon is exposed to ECF (sodium influx)
24
Q
What are the 4 neuronal zones?
A
1) Input zone
2) summation zone
3) conduction zone
4) output zone
25
What is a part of the input zone?
Dendrites and cell bodies
Dendrites process/carries impulses to the soma
Cell body/soma contains the nucleus
26
What is a part of the summation zone of the neuron?
Axon hillock (adds EPSPs and IPSPs)
27
What is a part of the conduction zone of the neuron?
Axon and collateral axons
Axons process/carries impulses away from the soma
Collateral axons are the side branches of axons
28
What is a part of the output zone of the neuron?
Telodendria and axon terminals
Telodendria are the distal branches of the main axon
Axon terminals, also called synaptic terminals or terminal buttons are expanded tips of the telodendria
29
What are the two ways to classify neurons?
Structural (number of processes from the soma) and functional (direction impulse relative to CNS)
30
What is the structural classification of neurons?
Number of processes from the soma
31
What is the functional classification of neurons?
Direction impulse relative to CNS
32
What are the 3 types of neurons under the structural classification?
1) pseudo-unipolar (1 process that divides like a “T”)
2) bipolar (2 processes (1axon + 1 dendrite))
3) multipolar (2+ processes (1 axon+ 2+ dendrites))
33
What does a pseudo-unipolar neuron look like?
1 process that divides like a T
ex: DRG
34
Is a pseudo-unipolar neuron a sensory or motor neuron?
sensory neuron
35
What does a bipolar neuron look like?
2 processes (1 axon + 1 dendrite)
ex: found in the retina and olfactory mucosa
36
Is a bipolar neuron a sensory or motor neuron?
sensory neuron
37
Which structural neuron is the rarest type?
bipolar neuron
38
What does a multipolar neuron look like?
more than 2 processes (1 axon and 2+ dendrites)
ex: found in the nervous system
39
What are the functional classifications of a neuron?
-afferent (sensory)
-interneurons (association)
-efferent (motor)
40
Are afferent neurons sensory or motor neurons?
test q
sensory neurons
41
Are efferent neurons sensory or motor neurons?
test q
motor neurons
42
Which neurons send impulses toward the CNS?
Test q
afferent (sensory) neurons
43
Which neurons are usually pseudo-unipolar?
afferent (sensory) neurons
44
Which neurons have the cell bodies located in the ganglia outside of the CNS?
afferent (sensory) neurons
45
Which neurons are known as the association neurons?
interneurons
46
Which neurons connect the sensory and motor neurons?
interneurons
47
Which neurons are usually multipolar and located inside of the CNS reflex arc?
interneurons
48
Which neurons are motor neurons and send impulses away from the CNS?
test q
efferent neurons
49
Which neurons are usually multipolar and the cell bodies are located inside the CNS?
efferent neurons
50
define upper motor neuron (UMN)
neuron that starts in the motor cortex of the brain and terminates within the medulla or within the spinal cord
51
define lower motor neuron (LMN)
nerve cell that goes from the spinal cord to a muscle
52
What is an electromotive force?
difference in potential that tends to give rise to an electric current
it exists by virtues of separation of opposite charges
53
What are membrane potentials?
a cell membrane potential is the electromotive force that exits across the plasma membrane
54
What are the 3 types of membrane potentials?
Test q
-resting membrane potential
-local (graded) potential
-action potential
55
What is a resting membrane potential?
Test q
electromotive force that exists across the plasma membrane when a cell is at rest
56
What is a local/graded potential?
Test q
a slight shift away from resting membrane potential in a specific/local region of the cell membrane
Note: there are 2 types: EPSP and IPSP
57
What are the 2 types of local/graded potentials?
Test q
1) EPSP (excitatory post synaptic potential, the inside of the cell membrane comes closer to threshold potential (less negative or more positive))
2) IPSP (inhibitory post synaptic potential, inside of the cell membrane moves further from the threshold potential (more negative))
58
What is a threshold potential?
Test q
summation of graded/local potentials that reaches a certain critical magnitude at the axon hillock to generate an action potential
59
What is an action potential?
Test q
change in electrical potential associated with the passage of an impulse along the cell membrane (at this point, axonal depolarization is self-generating and non-decremental)
60
What are the 5 phases of an action potential?
Test q
1) resting phase (all Na+ and K+ voltage gated channels are closed)
2) depolarization phase (threshold potential reached, Na+ voltage gated channels open)
3) repolarization phase (Na+ voltage gated channels close, and K+ voltage gated channels open)
4) Hyperpolarization phase (brief delay of K+ voltage gated channels close)
5) return to rest (all Na+ and K+ channels are closed, Na+/K+ pump restores resting membrane potential)
61
What is a synapse?
a junction/minute gap across which a nerve impulse passes from an axon terminal to a neuron, muscle cell, or gland cell
62
What are the 2 classifications of synapses?
structural and functional classes
63
What are the structural classifications of synapses?
Test q
-neuronal (between neurons)
-neuromuscular (between neuron and muscle)
-neuroglandular (between neuron and gland)
64
What are the 2 functional classes of synapses?
Test q
electrical and chemical
65
What are the 3 components of all synapses?
Test q
-presynaptic neuron (axon terminal/synaptic knob)
-synapse (synaptic cleft)
-postsynaptic cell (plasma membrane)
66
What are the 3 major events of chemical/neurotransmitters synaptic transmission?
Test q
1) presynaptic event
2) synaptic event
3) post synaptic event
67
What are the presynaptic events of chemical/neurotransmitter synaptic transmission?
Test q
-AP arrives at the axon terminal of the presynaptic neuron
-calcium voltage gated channels open in axon terminal plasma membrane and calcium enters
-cytoskeleton contracts to release neurotransmitter vesicles into synapse
68
What are the synaptic events of the chemical/neurotransmitter synaptic transmission?
Test q
neurotransmitter diffuses across interstitial fluid of the synaptic cleft
69
What are the postsynaptic events of the chemical/neurotransmitter synaptic transmission?
Test q
-neurotransmitter binds to protein receptors on postsynaptic plasma membrane
-open or close chemical ligand gated ion channels
-EPSP or IPSP created on postsynaptic plasma membrane
70
Neurotransmitter is a substance that is released from the axon terminal of a _____________ neuron upon excitation, and that travels across the synaptic cleft to change membrane potential (either excite or inhibit) of the target cell (nerve, muscle, organ, or other tissue)
Test q
presynaptic
71
What are some examples of small molecule neurotransmitters?
Test q
-ACh
-dopamine
-Epi
-NE
-serotonin
-GABA and glycine
-glutamate
72
Where is ACh found?
Test q
in the motor and parasympathetic pathway (at the synapse with the target organ)
73
What is the function of dopamine?
Test q
motor and cognitive motivation
74
What is the function of Epi?
Test q
attention
75
Where is NE found?
Test q
in the sympathetic pathway (at the synapse with the target organ)
76
What is the function of serotonin?
Test q
arousal, emotions, mood, and sexual urges
77
What is the difference between GABA and glycine in terms of location?
Test q
GABA is found in the brain, where as glycine is found within spinal column (both are small neurotransmitters)
78
What is the function of GABA and glycine?
Test q
inhibit CNS (brain for GABA, spinal cord for glycine)
79
Which neurotransmitter excites the CNS?
Test q
glutamate
80
What are the 2 large molecule neurotransmitters?
Test q
endorphins and enkephalins
81
What is an endorphin? How are enkephalins related?
Test q
endorphins= hormone secreted within the brain and nervous system that binds to the body's opiate receptors, causing an analgesic/pain relieving effect
enkephalin= peptide, not hormone, but has the same pain relieving effect
82
What is an axon?
Test q
neuron fiber
83
What word describes a bundle of nerve fibers?
Test q
fascicle
84
What words describes a bundle of fascicles in PNS?
Test q
nerve
85
What surrounds a nerve fiber?
endometrium
86
What surrounds a fasiscle?
perineurium
87
What surrounds nerves?
epineurium
88
What nerves consist of both efferent and afferent neurons?
mixed neurons
89
What are the 3 types of nerves?
1) afferent (sensory, impulses toward CNS)
2) efferent (motor, impulses from CNS)
3) mixed nerves (both efferent and afferent)
90
What are fissures?
deep grooves
91
What are notches?
indentations
92
What are sulci?
shallow grooves
93
What are gyri?
elevations, folds, convolutions
94
precentral gyrus = ___________ cortex
motor
95
postcentral gyrus = ________________ cortex
somatosensory
96
What are the 5 structural lobes of the brain?
Test q
1) frontal
2) parietal
3) temporal
4) occipital
5) insular
97
Brain lobes are named after the cranial bones they connect with, besides the....
insular lobe
98
What is the prosencephalon?
test q
forebrain
99
What are the 2 parts of the prosencephalon (forebrain)?
test q
1) telencephalon (cerebral hemispheres, right and left)
2) diencephalon (inner brain)
100
What are the 3 parts of the diencephalon (inner brain)?
test q
1) epithalamus (pineal gland makes melatonin)
2) thalamus (gateway to the cerebral cortex, "switchboard")
3) hypothalamus (pituitary gland)
101
What are the 2 parts of the brainstem?
Test q
1) mesencephalon (midbrain is in charge of visual, auditory, and motor)
2) rhombencephalon (hindbrain)
102
What are the functions of the mesencephalon (midbrain)?
Test q
visual, auditory, and motor
103
What are the 2 parts of the rhombencephalon (hindbrain)?
1) metencephalon (after brain)
2) myelencephalon (spinal brain/ medulla oblongata)
104
What are the 2 parts of the metencephalon?
1) pons
2) cerebellum
105
Who produces neurotransmitters?
pons
106
Who is in charge of coordination and balance?
cerebellum
107
What is the function of the myelencephalon/medulla oblongata?
its the cardio and respiratory center
108
What are meninges?
layers of connective tissue which surrounds and protects the CNS
109
What are the 2 layers of the dura matter?
1) periosteal (endosteal) layer
2) meningeal layer (subdural space is below here)
110
What space is below the arachnoid mater? Is it a true space or potential space?
test q
subarachnoid space, its a true space containing most CSF
111
Which meningeal layer is in direct contact with the brain and spinal cord?
pia mater
112
What are the bran cavities of the ventral system of the brain?
-lateral right and left
-3rd ventricle
4th ventricle
113
The ventricular system of the brain is filled with CSF originating from the ____________________, capillaries in ventricles
chorioid plexus
114
Where does CSF leave through to enter the subarachnoid space?
4th ventricle
115
CSF is returned to....
dural venous sinuses
116
What are dural venous sinuses?
endothelium lined venous channels between the endosteal and meningeal layers of the dura mater
CSF is returned here
117
What is the circle of willis and where is it found?
pentagon shaped circle of arterial vessels on the ventral aspect of the brain in the area encircling the optic chiasm and pituitary gland
118
Who are the primary suppliers of oxygenated blood to the brain and contribute to the cerebral arterial circle/ circle of willis?
test q
internal carotid a. and vertebral aa.
119
The R and L vertebral arteries unite to form the ___________ artery, which is the terminal branch of the cerebral arterial circle/circle of willis
basilar
120
What is the epidural space?
space between the bony vertebrae and dura mater, filled w/ fat and has a network of veins
121
What does the central canal contain and how long is it?
contains CSF, runs the length of the spinal cord through the gray commissure
122
How many spinal cord segments are there?
31
8C, 12T, 5L, 5S, 1Cc
123
What is the cauda equinae?
spinal nerves emerging from inferior end of the spinal cord superior to conus medullaris and extending through to inferior end of spinal canal (L5-Cc1)
124
What is the conus medullaris and where is it found?
cone shaped terminus of the spinal cord at the level of L1 or L2 vertebrae (S1-Cc1)
125
What is the filum terminale?
fibrous extension of meninges from the conus medularis to the coccyx
126
Gray matter is the interneuron of cell bodies and is H shaped. What is a part of gray matter?
-dorsal horn
-lateral horn (T1-L2 only)
-ventral horn
-gray commissure (transverse bar, connects R and L halves, central canal runs through here)
127
Is white mater myelinated or unmyelinated axons?
myelinated axons
128
What is white matter composed of?
myelinated axons
-funiculi, or white columns (ventral, dorsal, lateral)
129
How many cranial nerve pairs are there?
12 pairs
130
How many spinal nerve pairs are there?
31 pairs
131
Where do the cranial nerves connect to?
undersurface of brain, mostly the brainstem
132
Which cranial nerve extends into the abdomen?
CN X (vagus n.)
note: all other cranial nerves are only in the head and neck
133
What are the 12 pairs of cranial nerves?
Test q
CN I= Olfactory | Oh
CN II= Optic | Oh
CN III= Oculomotor | Oh
CN IV= Trochlear | Tiny
CN V= Trigeminal | Tits
CN VI= Abducens | And
CN VII= Facial | Furry
CN VIII= Vestibulocochlear | Vaginas
CN IX= Glossopharyngeal | Give
CN X= Vagus | Victor
CN XI= Spinal accessories | A
CN XII= Hypoglossal | Hardon
134
What is the function of CN I?
Test q
olfactory/smell
135
What is the function of CN II?
Test q
optic/sight
136
What is the function of CN III (oculomotor)?
Test q
all eye muscle movements except lateral rectus and superior oblique
(LR6SO4)3
LR6= lateral rectus is innervated w/ CN 6
SO4= superior oblique is innervated w/ CN 4
137
What is the function of CN IV (trochlear)?
Test q
superior oblique eye muscle movement
138
What is the function of CN V (trigeminal)?
Test q
sensory to face
3 divisions: ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular
139
What is the function of CN VI (abducens)?
Test q
lateral rectus eye muscle movement
140
What are the functions of CN VII (facial)?
Test q
muscle movement of facial expressions and taste anterior 2/3 of tongue
141
What are the functions of CN VIII (vestibulocochlear)?
Test q
hearing and balance
142
What is the function of CN IX (glossopharyngeal)?
Test q
taste posterior 1/3 of tongue
143
What is the function of CN X (vagus)?
Test q
parasympathetic to visceral organs of the neck, thorax, and abdomen
144
What are the functions of CN XI (accessory)?
Test q
SCM and trapezius muscle movement
145
What is the function of CN XII (hypoglossal)?
Test q
muscle movement of tongue
146
Where do spinal nerves course through?
intervertebral foramen (IVF)
147
What are the 2 spinal nerve divisions?
test q
1) dorsal ramus
2) ventral ramus
148
Is the dorsal ramus sensory or motor?
test q
sensory
149
What does the dorsal ramus innervate?
intrinsic back muscles and sensory skin of the back
150
Is the ventral ramus sensory or motor?
motor
151
What does the ventral ramus form?
spinal nerve plexi or intercostal nerves
152
Sympathetic rami are a part of the ventral ramus and go through the sympathetic chain ganglia. What rami are here?
gray and white rami
153
Where is gray rami found?
at all vertebral levels
154
Where is white rami found?
T1-L2 only (sympathetic outflow)
155
Define spinal nerve plexi
Test q
an interlacing of fiber fascicles from adjacent spinal nerves to form a network
156
What are the 2 parts of the cervical plexus?
Test q
1) ansa cervicalia ("handle of neck", branches to the hyoid muscles in the neck)
2) phrenic nerve (goes to diaphragm)
157
Name the nerves of the brachial plexus
test q
-musculocutaneous n.
-axillary n.
-radial n.
-median n.
-ulnar n.
(my aunty recognized my uncle)
158
What are the 2 major nerves of the lumbar plexus?
test q
1) femoral n. (innervates muscles in anterior compartment of thigh/quads)
2) obturator n. (innervates muscles of medial compartment of thigh/adductors of thigh)
159
What nerve innervates muscles in the anterior compartment of thigh/quads?
test q
femoral n.
160
What nerve innervates muscles of the medial compartment of thigh/adductors of thigh?
test q
obturator n.
161
What is the main nerve of the sacral plexus and what are its divisions?
test q
sciatic n. divides into tibial n. and common fibular n.
162
What nerve is a part of the coccygeal plexus?
Test q
anococcygeal n.
163
What is another name for the autonomic NS?
visceral NS
164
What is a subdivision of the NS and is integrated in both the CNS and PNS and is involuntary?
ANS
165
What are the efferent divisions of the ANS?
Test q
sympathetic (fight of flight, thoracolumbar outflow) and parasympathetic (rest and digest, craniosacral outflow)
166
Which nervous system uses energy?
sympathetic NS (fight or flight)
167
Which nervous system has short preganglionic fibers and long postganglionic fibers?
sympathetic NS
168
Which nervous system conserves or replenishes energy?
parasympathetic NS (rest and digest)
169
Which nervous system has long preganglionic fibers and short postganglionic fibers?
parasympathetic NS
170
Which glands have ducts?
exocrine glands
171
Which glands produce non-hormonal substances like sweat, oil, saliva, and enzymes, and route them to membrane surfaces?
exocrine glands
172
Which glands are ductless?
endocrine glands
173
Which glands produce hormones?
endocrine glands
174
Which glands release secretions into the ECF and have extensive vascular and lymph drainage?
endocrine glands
175
Which organs have both endocrine and exocrine glands?
liver and pancreas
176
define hormone
chemical substance/messengers that are secreted by cells into the ECF and enter the blood stream, transported throughout the body, and regulate metabolic function of cells
177
Where are non-tropic hormones found?
target cells, tissues, and organs
178
Where are tropic hormones found?
in target endocrine glands
179
Which hormone is both tropic causing liver, which has a secondary endocrine function, to secrete insulin like growth factor hormones, and non-tropic targeting non-endocrine cells, tissues, and organs?
growth hormone (GH)
180
What is the primary controller and regulatory system of the body?
the nervous system (communication-electrical and chemical)
181
What are the primary messenger molecules in the NS?
neurotransmitters
182
How fast is the response to stop/start something in the NS?
quick
183
Which system has targeted and specific effects?
nervous system
184
What is the secondary controller and regulatory system of the body?
endocrine system (communication- chemical only)
note: NS communication also has electrical communication
185
Who are the primary messenger molecules of the endocrine system?
hormones
186
How fast is the response to stop/start something in the endocrine system?
slow
187
Which system has widespread effects?
endocrine system
188
What are the similarities between endocrine system and NS?
some chemicals are both neurotransmitters and hormones, for ex: NE and dopamine
189
What are neurosecretory cells?
test q
neurons that synthesizes and secretes hormones
190
What are neuroendocrine cells?
test q
endocrine cells that secretes hormones in response to neuron stimulation
191
What are the 2 major hormone classifications?
Test q
1) amino acid based
2) steroid based
KNOW CHART
192
What is the solubility of amino acid based hormones?
test q
all water soluble except thyroid hormone TH
193
What are the 2 main types of amino acid based hormones?
1) monoamines
2) peptides
194
What are monoamines and what are some examples?
made from 1 amino acid/fragments of an amino acid, and retains an amino group (NH2)
-nervous system hormones ex: dopamine, epi, NE, melatonin
-thyroid hormone (TH), only monoamine that is not water soluble
195
What are peptide hormones and what are some examples?
made from a chain of amino acids
-pituitary hormones
-thyroid hormone calcitonin (tones your bones)
196
What is the solubility of steroid hormones? What are steroids made from?
test q
fat soluble, made from cholesterol
197
What are the 2 main types of steroid hormones?
1) sex steroids
2) corticosteroids
198
What are some examples of sex steroids?
-estrogen (estradiol)
-progesterone
-androgen (testosterone)
199
Where are corticosteroids produced and what are some examples of corticosteroids?
test q
produced by the adrenal cortex
-glucocorticoids (cortisol)
-mineralcorticoids (aldosterone)
-gonadocorticoids (similar to sex steriods)
200
The active form of vitamin D, ____________, is considered a steroid hormone in addition to being a fat soluble vitamin. As a steroid hormone is in involved with learning and memory
calcitriol
201
What are the 8 major endocrine glands?
1) pituitary
2) pineal
3) thyroid
4) parathyroid
5) thymus
6) pancreas
7) adrenals
8) reproductive (ovaries and testes)
202
What are the 2 parts of the pituitary gland?
anterior and posterior pituitary
203
Growth hormone (GH) or somatotropin is a somatic hormone that is made where?
Test q
anterior pituitary
204
What does growth hormone (GH)/somatotropin do?
Test q
-increase muscle mass and bone density
-decrease fat
-visceral growth
205
Who makes prolactin (PRL)?
Test q
anterior pituitary gland
206
What is the function of prolactin (PRL)
Test q
breast development and milk production
207
Who makes trophic hormones?
Test q
anterior pituitary
208
What are some examples of trophic hormones?
Test q
-thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
-adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)
-gonadotrophic hormones (FSH and LH)
209
What does thyroid stimulating hormone do?
Test q
release thyroid hormone from thyroid gland
210
What does adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) do?
Test q
adrenal cortex hormone release
211
What is the female function of follicle stimulating hormone (FSH, its a gonadotrophic hormone)? What is the male function?
Test q
female= follicle development
male= sperm production
212
What is the female function of luteinizing hormone (LH, its a gonadotrophic hormone)? What is the male function?
Test q
female= increase estrogen
male= increases testosterone
213
What 2 hormones are produced in the posterior pituitary?
Test q
1) antidiuretic hormone (ADH)/ vasopressin
2) oxytocin
214
What does antidiuretic hormone (ADH)/ vasopressin do?
Test q
causes water and sodium reabsorption in the kidneys
215
What does oxytocin do?
Test q
-uterine contraction in childbirth
-breast milk ejection (suckling infant)
216
What hormone is produced in the pineal gland and what is its function?
Test q
melatonin
-relaxation and drowsiness
-promotes sleep
217
What is the largest pure endocrine gland?
thyroid gland
218
What hormones does the thyroid produce?
Test q
calcitonin and thyroid hormone (TH)
219
What does calcitonin do?
test q
-decrease blood calcium
-increase bone density/tone
220
What does thyroid hormone (TH) do?
Test q
increase metabolic rate of thyroid cells
221
What hormone is produced in the parathyroid and what is its function?
Test q
parathyroid hormone (PTH)
-increase blood calcium (inactivates vitamin D, which increases calcium absorption in the small intestine)
222
What hormone is produced in the thymus and what is its function?
Test q
thymus hormone
-maturation of T cells for immunity
223
What hormones are produced in the pancreas?
Test q
glucagon and insulin
224
What is the function of glucagon?
Test q
increase blood glucose
225
What is the function of insulin?
Test q
decrease blood glucose
226
What are the 2 parts of the adrenal gland/suprarenal glands?
Test q
cortex (3 layers) and adrenal medulla
227
What hormones does the adrenal cortex produce?
Test q
adreno-cortical hormones
-mineralocorticoids (aldosterone)
-glucocorticoids (cortisol)
-gonadocorticoids (sex steroids)
228
What does aldosterone do?
Test q
sodium and water reabsorption in the kidneys
229
What does cortisol do?
test q
stress hormone
-increase glucose, blood fat, and BP
-decrease memory, immunity, and sex steroids
230
What part of the adrenal gland has a sympathetic fight or flight response and increase bronchodilation, heart rate and blood pressure? What hormones are produced here?
test q
adrenal medulla
-epi (adrenaline)
-NE (noreadrenaline)
231
What do the testes produce? What is its function?
Test q
testosterone
-male sex development
-aggression
-sex drive
-increase muscle mass, bone density
-decrease fat
232
What do the ovaries produce? What are its functions?
Test q
estrogen
-female sex development
-menstrual cycle
-nurture/receptivity
-increase bone density and fat
progesterone
-menstrual cycle
-maintain pregnancy
233
Where are the great vessels of the heart found?
superior mediastinum
234
What arteries are a part of the aortic arch?
test q
1) brachiocephalic trunk (BCT, only on right side of aortic arch)
2) left common carotid artery (CCA)
3) left subclavian artery (SC)
235
What 2 arteries make up the brachiocephalic trunk?
Test q
right common carotid artery (CCA) and right subclavian artery (SC)
236
What veins are found in the superior mediastinum?
Test q
-R and L brachiocephalic veins (BCV)
-superior vena cava (SVC)
-R and L internal jugular vein (IJV)
-R and L subclavian vein (SCV)
237
The superior mediastinum is located above the transverse thoracic plane lane. What angle is here?
sternal angle/ angle of louis (T4-T5)
238
The fibrous pericardium is irregular dense fibrous CT sac continuous with adventitia of great vessels superiorly and central tendon of...
diaphragm inferiorly
239
What is the serous pericardium?
serous membranes inside of the fibrous pericardium surrounding the heart
-parietal layer
-pericardial cavity containing pericardial fluid
-visceral layer (epicardium)
240
What are the 3 cardiac surfaces?
Test q
1) sternocostal (anterior)
2) diaphragmatic (posterior/inferior)
3) pulmonary (R and L)
241
Auricles (R and L) are also called atrial appendages. It is the ear-like conical muscular pouch that arises from each atrium. What is the function?
test q
to increase the capacity of the atrium and also increase the volume of blood that is able to contain
242
The coronary (atrioventricular) sulcus is a shallow groove of the outer surface of the heart marking the division between the...
Test q
atria and the ventricles
243
The coronary (atrioventricular) sulcus is a shallow groove of the outer surface of the heart marking the division between the atria and ventricles. The left coronary sulcus is marked by what?
the circumflex branch of the left coronary artery and coronary sinus
244
The coronary (atrioventricular) sulcus is a shallow groove of the outer surface of the heart marking the division between the atria and ventricles. The right coronary sulcus is marked by what?
the location of the right coronary artery and small cardiac vein
245
The inter-ventricular sulcus anterior and posterior grooves are on the surface of the heart that lie over the ______________________ and join at the ______
inter-ventricular septum, apex
246
What are the 3 layers of the heart wall?
Test q
1) epicardium (visceral layer of the serous pericardium, outer layer)
2) myocardium (cardiac muscle, middle layer)
3) endocardium (continuous with the tunica interna of the blood vessels, inner layer)
247
What are the chambers of the heart?
R and L atria, R and L ventricles
248
What chamber of the heart receives deoxygenated blood?
right atrium
249
What features does the R atrium have?
Test q
-auricle
-pectinate muscles
-fossa ovalis (oval depression in the interatrial septum)
-ostea (openings): SVC, IVC and coronary sulcus
250
What chamber of the heart receives oxygenated blood?
left atrium
251
What features does the L atrium have?
Test q
-auricle
-pectinate muscles
-ostea (openings): 4 pulmonary veins (2R, 2L)
252
What features do both the right and left ventricles have?
Test q
-trabeculae carneae muscles
-papillary muscles
-chordae tendonae (tendons)
-AV (atrioventricular) valves
253
What are the 2 septums of the heart?
1) interatrial septum (between R and L atrium)
2) interventricular septum (between R and L ventricle)
254
What are the valves of the heart?
Test q
1) atrioventricular (AV) valves
-R AV valve (tricuspid valve)
-L AV valve (bicuspid valve)
2) semilunar valves
-pulmonary semilunar
-aortic semilunar
255
Where is the pulmonary semilunar valve found?
Test q
R ventricle to pulmonary trunk (lungs)
256
Where is the aortic semilunar valve found?
Test q
L ventricle to trunk of aorta (entire body)
257
What are the 2 cell heart types?
1) conductive (auto-rhythmic, or nodal) cells
2) contractile (cardiac muscle) cells
258
Which heart cells are a part of the intrinsic conductive system?
conductive (auto-rhythmic, or nodal) cells
259
Which heart cells are capable of generating and transmitting rhythmic action potentials?
conductive (auto-rhythmic, or nodal) cells
260
What are the characteristics of contractile cardiac muscle cells?
-striated
-uni or binucleated
-intercalated discs
261
What is the pacemaker of the heart?
Test q
sinoatrial node/SA node
262
What is an inter-arterial pathway that spreads depolarization from the right to left atrium?
bachmann's bundle
263
What is the order of the conducting system of the heart?
Test q
-sinoatrial node/SA node/pacemaker
-bachmann's bundle (inter-atrial pathway, spreads depolarization from right to left atrium)
-atrioventricular node/AV node
-atrioventricular bundle/ bundle of His
-R and L bundle branches
-purkinje fibers
264
What is the difference between arteries and veins?
arteries carry blood away from the heart, while veins carry blood to the heart
265
What is the exception of arteries/veins ?
all arteries are red (oxygenated blood), EXCEPT the 2 R and L pulmonary arteries which are blue (deoxygenated blood), pulmonary arteries carry deoxygenated blood from the lungs to get oxygen
All veins are blue (deoxygenated blood) EXCEPT the 2 R and L pulmonary veins which are red (oxygenated blood), pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood from lungs to the heart
266
What is the pulmonary circuit?
R ventricle of heart > lungs > L atrium of heart
267
What is the systemic circuit?
L ventricle of heart > throughout body > R atrium of heart
268
What is the simplest way to describe a trunk?
large artery
269
What is the deoxygenated blood flow through the heart?
Test q
SVC (upper body) > IVC (lower body) and coronary sinus (heart tissue) > R atrium > R AV valve > R ventricle > pulmonary semilunar valve > pulmonary trunk > R and L pulmonary arteries
note:
-R and L pulmonary arteries carry deoxygenated blood to R and L lungs to be oxygenated
-R AV valve is also called tricuspid valve
270
What is the oxygenated blood flow through heart?
Test q
R and L pulmonary veins in R and L lung > R atrium > L AV valve > L ventricle > aortic semilunar valve > aortic trunk (aorta)
note:
-aorta carries oxygenated blood to all tissues of the body
-L AV valve is also called bicuspid valve or mitral valve
271
What innervates all organs?
ANS!
this is why:
-SA node/pacemaker spontaneously depolarizes 100 X/min
-average HR = 75 bpm
-the greater the parasympathetic signals, the slower the HR below 100
-sympathetic NS increases HR over 100 bpm
272
What is the lub sound?
test q
AV valves close, which causes ventricular ejection/contraction (systole)
273
What is the dub sound?
SL valves close, which causes ventricular filling/relaxation (diastole)
274
Who are the first branches off of the aortic trunk and supply oxygenated blood to the heart itself?
Test q
R and L coronary arteries
275
Most veins of the heart, cardiac veins, drain into the _____________ which in turn drains into the ___________ of the heart
Test q
coronary sinus, R atrium
276
Where do the coronary sinus, SVC and IVC drain into?
Test q
R atrium
277
The trachea is made up of C-shaped rings of _________ cartilage
test q
hyaline
278
The trachea descends from the....
Test q
larynx
279
The trachea enter the.....
Test q
superior mediastinum
280
What is a flat posterior surface in contact with the esophagus?
Test q
the trachea
281
Where does the trachea end?
Test q
at the carina of the sternal angle (bifurcation point, superior to heart)
it will divide into R and L primary (main) bronchi
282
What are the conductive zones of the lungs?
test q
-main (primary) bronchi (to R and L lung)
-lobar (secondary) bronchi (3 branches in R lung, 2 branches in L lung)
-segmental (tertiary) bronchi (10 segments in each lung)
>>>> bronchopulmonary segments are segments of the lungs that receive segmental (tertiary) bronchi
-terminal bronchioles
283
Where is the respiratory zone?
at the respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveolar sacs, and pulmonary alveoli
284
What is the common space into which alveoli open?
alveolar sacs
285
What is the structural unit of gas exchange?
pulmonary alveoli
286
Bronchi have cartilage in their walls, ____________ do not have cartilage in walls
Test q
bronchioles
287
The term bronchial refers to...
Test q
bronchi or bronchioles
288
How many lobes does the right lung have?
test q
3 lobes: superior, middle, inferior
289
How many fissures does the right lung have?
test q
2 fissures: horizontal and oblique
290
What grooves are found in the right lung?
venous structures (brachiocephalic vein, SVC, and azygous vein) and the esophagus
291
What are the hilum contents in the lungs
test q
-pulmonary arteries (blue)
-pulmonary veins (superior and inferior, red)
-bronchi
292
Where is the pulmonary ligament found?
fused triangular shaped sheet of parietal and visceral pleura that extends from the hilum to the dome of the diaphragm
293
How many lobes are there in the left lung?
test q
2 lobes: superior and inferior
294
How many fissures are there in the left lung?
Test q
1 fissure- oblique
295
What grooves are found in the left lung?
arterial structures (subclavian artery and aorta), and esophagus
296
What is the pleural sac?
Test q
serous membranes which invest and enclose lungs in pleural cavities
-visceral pleura (invests lung surfaces)
-parietal pleura (lines walls of pleural cavity)
297
Are lungs innervated by the ANS?
yes!
298
What are the types of blood vessels of the lungs?
Test q
-pulmonary (involved in gas exchange, colors are reversed= arteries are blue, veins are red)
-bronchial (serve lung tissue, colors are typical= arteries are red, veins are blue)
299
What color are pulmonary arteries?
blue
300
What takes deoxygenated blood to the lungs to be oxygenated from the R ventricle (pulmonary trunk)?
Test q
pulmonary arteries
301
What color are bronchial arteries?
red
302
What supplies lung tissue with oxygenated blood from branches of the thoracic aorta?
bronchial arteries
303
What color are pulmonary veins?
red
304
What takes oxygenated blood from the lungs to the L atrium?
pulmonary veins
305
How many pulmonary veins are there?
2 per lung
306
What color are bronchial veins?
blue
307
What drains lung tissue of deoxygenated blood?
bronchial veins
308
R bronchial veins drain into the....
azygous vein
309
L bronchial vein drains into the....
accessory hemiazygous vein
310
What are the 4 processes of respiration?
1) pulmonary ventilation (breathing, air in and out of lungs)
2) external respiration (gas exchange between lungs and blood)
3) transport of respiratory gases (transport of gases between lungs and cells)
4) internal respiration (gas exchange between blood and cells)
