Exam 1 (part 2) Flashcards
(190 cards)
1
Q
What are the 6 functions of the skeletal system?
A
1) support
2) protection
3) movement
4) mineral homeostasis (stores calcium and phosphate)
5) hematopoiesis (blood cell formation fo WBCs, RBCs, and platelets)
6) triglyceride storage in yellow bone marrow
2
Q
What is the skeletal system composed of?
A
-connective tissue
-cartilage
-bones
-joints
3
Q
What tissue surrounds cartilage and bones like a sleeve, except where articular cartilage occurs?
A
CT
4
Q
What is perichondrium?
A
outside surface of cartilage (proper dense irregular CT)
5
Q
What is periosteum?
A
outside surface of spongy bone and compact bone
6
Q
What is endosteum?
A
inside surface of compact bone (borders cavity)
7
Q
What tissue is nourished by blood supply and is able to lay down more cartilage or bone as needed?
A
CT
8
Q
Which tissue is in charge of attachment for tendons and ligaments?
A
CT
9
Q
Is there blood vessels or nerves within cartilage?
A
NO
10
Q
What are chondrocytes?
A
cells that produce cartilage matrix (chondrin)
11
Q
Chondrin is a firm but elastic _____________ made by chondrocytes
A
protein matrix
12
Q
What are the 3 types of cartilage?
test q
A
1) hyaline cartilage (slippery and smooth)
2) fibrocartilage
3) elastic cartilage
13
Q
What is the most abundant type of cartilage?
test q
A
hyaline
14
Q
Where is hyaline cartilage found?
A
1) synovial joints (articular surfaces)
2) costal cartilage (rib attachment to sternum)
3) respiratory tract (cartilage rings of the trachea and bronchi)
4) nasal cartilage (lateral, septal, and alar)
15
Q
Which cartilage type is flexible and found in only 3 locations?
A
elastic (external ear, eustachian tube, and epiglottis (covers the larynx))
16
Q
Which cartilage works best with pressure and stress?
A
fibrocartilage
17
Q
Where is fibrocartilage found?
test q
A
-menisci of knees
-IVD
-pubic symphysis
18
Q
bones are classified by what?
A
texture and shape
19
Q
What are the texture classifications of bone?
A
compact or spongy bone (spongy bone is also known as trabecular or cancellous)
20
Q
What are the 4 shape classifications of bone?
A
1) flat
2) irregular
3) long
4) short
21
Q
All bones have a superficial thin layer of compact bone around a central mass of spongy bone, except where the latter is replaced by a ______________________ and only a thin layer is present (like in long bones). Endosteum lies between the thin layer of spongy bone and medullary cavity
A
medullary (marrow) cavity
22
Q
What are the characteristics of compact bone?
test q
A
dense, smooth, and homogenous
23
Q
What are the characteristics of spongy bone/trabecular/cancellous bone?
test q
A
holey, rough, irregular
24
Q
Compact bones are composed of repeating structural units called ___________, or Haversian systems
test q
A
osteons
25
What is the structural unit of compact bone?
test q
osteons (Haversian system)
26
Do spongy bones contain osteons?
no!!!
27
Spongy bone is composed of trabeculae, inside of which lamellae are arranged in an irregular pattern. The spaces between the trabeculae are filled with....
blood cells (red marrow) or fat (yellow marrow)
28
What are examples of flat bones?
exam q
-skull
-sternum
-ribs
-pelvis
29
What are some examples of irregular bones?
exam q
-vertebrae
-sphenoid
-ethmoid
30
What are some examples of long bones?
-humerus
-radius
-ulna
-femur
-tibia
-fibula
metacarpals
-phalanges
31
What are some examples of short bones?
carpals or tarsals
32
What is the epiphyses?
exam q
end of the long bone
33
What is the metaphysis?
exam q
region separating diaphysis and epiphysis
epiphyseal growth plate is here and its a line of hyaline cartilage that allows diaphysis to grow in length
the epiphyseal line is also here and its an remnant of the epiphyseal growth plate in adults
34
What is the diaphysis (shaft)?
exam q
long cylinder of compact bone, surrounding the medullary cavity (contains bone marrow)
35
What is articular cartilage?
exam q
hyaline cartilage over epiphyses of a joint
36
What are the 2 membranes found in long bones?
exam q
1) periosteum (covers external spongy and compact bone surface. Blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatic vessels present)
2) endosteum (lines the inside of the medullary cavity. Blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatic vessels present)
37
What is red bone marrow/hematopoietic tissue? Where is it found?
site of blood cell formation in the medullary cavity and spongy portion of long bones, and diploe of flat bones
38
What is yellow bone marrow and where is it found?
site of triglyceride (fat) storage and is found in the medullary cavity of adult long bones
39
Bone is what type of tissue?
CT
40
What are the 4 cells of CT?
exam q
1) osteogenic or osteoprogenitor cells (stem cells)
2) osteoblasts (form bone matrix)
3) osteocytes (mature osteoblasts that are surrounded by and maintain bone matrix)
4) osteoclasts (breakdown bone matrix)
41
What do osteoblasts do?
exam q
form bone matrix
42
What do osteoclasts do?
exam q
breakdown bone matrix
43
What makes up the ECM in CT?
ground substance (water, GAGs, glycoproteins) and fibers (fibrous or structural proteins)
44
What are the inorganic components of bone?
-ions (calcium, phosphate group, hydroxyl group, sodium, potassium, magnesium)
-mineral salts (calcium phosphate, calcium hydroxide, and calcium hydroxyapatite
45
What are the ions found in bone?
-calcium
-phosphate group
-hydroxyl group
-sodium
-potassium
-magnesium
46
What mineral salts are found in bone?
calcium phosphate, calcium hydroxide, calcium hydroxyapatite
47
What makes up 65% of bone?
calcium hydroxyapatite (one of the mineral salts)
48
What do mineral salts do?
give bone hardness
49
What do collagen fibers give bone?
resistance/resilience
50
What is prenatal ossification?
1) intramembranous ossification (bone formation directly from membranes like bones of skull or clavicle)
2) endochondral ossification (bone formation from cartilage (all other bones))
51
What is intramembranous ossification?
bone formation directly from membranes like bones of the skull or clavicle
52
What is endochondral ossification
bone formation from cartilage (all other bones besides skull and clavicle)
53
What is post-natal ossification?
test q
1) length (growth of epiphyseal plate cartilage followed by ossification)
2) width (growth of bone bordering periosteum and endosteum)
54
All bones are derived from where?
mesenchyme (embryonic CT-mesoderm)
55
What hormones regulate bone growth/increase bone formation?
test q!!!!!!!
-growth hormone (GH)
-calcitonin
-testosterone
-estrogen
56
What are the 2 divisions of the skeletal system?
Test q
axial and appendicular
57
What bones are included in the axial skeleton?
test q
-skull (cranial bones, facial bones)
-hyoid bone
-auditory (ear) ossicles
-vertebral column (26 vertebrae, 7 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 1 sacrum, and 1 coccyx)
-thorax (sternum, ribs)
58
What bones are included in the appendicular skeleton?
test q
-pectoral or shoulder girdle (clavicle, scapula)
-upper limbs
-pelvic or hip girdle (ilium, ischium, and pubic bones)
-lower limbs
59
What bone markings are found on the occiput?
test q
occipital condyles and foramen magnum
60
What bone markings are found on the temporal bone?
test q
-zygomatic process/arch
-external auditory meatus
-styloid process
-mastoid process
61
What bone markings are found on the sphenoid bone?
test q
-sella turcica
-greater and lesser wings
-superior orbital fissure
62
What bone markings are found on the ethmoid bone?
test q
-crista gali
-cribriform plate
-superior and middle conchae
63
What bone markings are found on the maxillary bone?
test q
inferior orbital fissure between the greater wing of sphenoid bone and the infraorbital foramen
64
What bone markings are found on the mandible?
test q
ramus
-condyle
-TMJ
-coronoid process
65
What is the largest and only freely moveable facial bone?
test q
the mandible
66
What bone markings are found on C1/atlas?
test q
-lateral masses
-anterior and posterior arches and tubercles
67
What bone markings are found on C2/axis?
test q
dens (odontoid process)
68
What bone markings are generally found on the vertebrae?
test q
-central canal
-pedicles
-transverse process
-transverse foramen
-lamina
-spinous processes
-facets (superior and inferior)
-intervertebral foramen
69
What bone markings are found on the clavicle (collar bones)?
test q
conoid tubercle and trapezoid line are attachments for coracoclavicular ligament
70
What bone markings are found on the scapulae?
test q
-spine
-acromion process
-coracoid process
-glenoid cavity (articulation w/ humerus)
71
What bone markings are found on the humerus PROXIMALLY?
test q
-head
-anatomical neck
-greater and lesser tubercles
-inter-tubercular sulcus (aka bicipital groove)
72
What bone markings are found on the humerus DISTALLY?
test q
-medial and lateral epicondyles
-olecranon fossa
73
What bone markings are found on the ulna?
test q
-olecranon process (elbow)
-trochlear notch
74
What bone markings are found on the radius?
test q
-radial tuberosity (biceps tendon insertion)
75
What bone markings are found on the ilium?
test q
-anterior and posterior superior iliac spines
-greater sciatic notch
76
What bone markings are found on the ischium?
test q
-lesser sciatic notch
-ischial tuberosities
77
What bone markings are found on the pubis?
test q
-pubic symphysis
-obturator foramen
78
What bone markings are found on the femur?
test question
-head
-neck
-greater and lesser trochanters
-gluteal tuberosity
-medial and lateral epicondyles
-medial and lateral condyles
79
What is the largest and strongest bone in the body?
test q
femur
80
What bone markings are found on the tibia?
test q
-medial and lateral condyles
-tibial tuberosity (proximal)
-medial malleolus (distal)
81
What bone markings are found on the fibula proximally?
test q
the head
82
What bone markings are found on the fibula distally?
test q
lateral malleolus
83
What are the 3 types of muscle tissue?
1) skeletal (voluntary, striated)
2) cardiac
3) smooth (visceral)
84
What are the characteristics of skeletal muscle?
test q
-attached to skeleton
-long and cylindrical
-multinucleated cells
-striated (banded) appearance
-voluntary
85
What are the characteristics of cardiac muscle?
-branching cells, intercalated discs, functional syncytium
-uninucleate, or binucleate
-striated appearance
-involuntary
86
What are the characteristics of smooth muscle?
-found on the walls of blood vessels and hollow organs
-spindle shaped
-uninucleated
-non-striated
-involuntary
87
What are the 7 functions of skeletal muscle?
1) movement of bones and joints through space
2) exert forces on external objects
3) stabilize joints
4) posture
5) facial expression
6) body language
7) heat generation
88
What are the 5 organizational parts of skeletal muscle?
test q
1) filaments (protein molecules like actin, myosin, and titin)
2) fibril (cylindrical organelles)
3) fiber/muscle cells
4) fascicle
5) muscle
89
What are the 3 filaments found in skeletal muscle?
test q
-actin (thin)
-myosin (thick)
-titin (elastic)
90
Fibrils are cylindrical organelles that are a bundle of _____________ arranged into sarcomeres. Sarcomeres are repeating contractile units of fibril and they occupy most of the sarcoplasm of a muscle cell
filaments
91
Fibers/muscle cells are a bundle of.....
fibrils
92
A fascicle are a bundle of...
fibers
93
A muscle is a bundle of....
fascicles
94
What is F actin?
protein polymer strand
95
Actin filaments are thin filaments that have active sites for binding with the heads of ___________ filaments
myosin
96
What is tropomyosin?
protein chain that covers active binding sites
97
What is troponin?
spherical protein that holds tropomyosin in place
98
Are myosin filaments thin or thick?
thick
99
Titin filaments are elastic and anchor ________ to _______ and springs back after stretch
myosin, Z disc
100
__________ are cylindrical bundles of filaments formed by specialized organelles.
Myofibrils
101
________________ are repeating contractile unit (segment of filaments) that make up fibril
Sarcomeres
102
Striations are dark and light bands formed by arrangement of filaments in....
sarcomere
103
What are the prefixes for muscle?
myo-
mys-
sarco-
104
Sliding filament theory of muscle cell contraction:
During muscular contraction, the actin (thin) filaments slide over the myosin (thick) filaments so that they overlap to a greater degree. _________ and __________ spaces are reduced. When muscle fibers are stimulated by the NS, the heads of the myosin filaments latch to myosin binding sites on actin filaments. These cross-bridge attachments are repeatedly broken and reformed propelling the actin filaments toward the center of the sarcomere. The event occurs simultaneously in all sarcomeres throughout the fiber (muscle cell) causing it to shorten
H zone, I band
105
What are the 4 events/phases of muscle cell contraction (in order)?
test q!
1) initiation
2) muscle cell action potential
3) excitation contraction coupling
4) relaxation
106
What is initiation of muscle cell contraction?
transmission of impulses from axon terminal of a motor neuron to a muscle fiber
107
What is a muscle cell action potential?
propagation of an action potential on the muscle cell membrane (sarcolemma)
108
Excitation-contraction coupling is where electrical current enters ____________ and cause the release of calcium ions by the sarcoplasmic reticulum. Calcium binds to ____________ changing its shape which moves tropomyosin off of actin binding sites. Myosin heads attach to exposed actin binding sites and pull actin filaments medially.
T-tubules, troponin
109
What is relaxation of muscle cell contraction?
calcium pump removes calcium ions from fluid of fibril after contraction, causing relaxation
110
What are the 2 sources of energy for muscle contraction?
1) phosphocreatine (removal of phosphate group to release energy)
2) glucose metabolism (breakdown of glucose to release energy)
111
What is phosphocreatine?
removal of phosphate group to release energy (for muscle contraction)
112
What are the 2 options for glucose metabolism for muscle contraction?
1) glycolytic metabolism (incomplete breakdown of glucose to lactic acid (anaerobic- insufficient oxygen))
2) oxidative metabolism (complete breakdown of glucose to acetyl coa (aerobic- sufficient oxygen present))
113
What are the 3 ways to classify muscle cells/fibers?
test q
1) color (white= glycolytic, red=oxidative)
2) metabolic pathway (anaerobic= glycolytic, aerobic= oxidative)
3) speed of contraction (fast= glycolytic, slow= oxidative)
114
What are the color classifications for muscle cells/fibers?
test q
-white (glycolytic)
-red (oxidative)
115
What are the metabolic pathway classifications for muscle cells/fibers?
test q
-anaerobic (glycolytic)
-aerobic (oxidative)
115
What are the speed of contraction classifications for muscle cells/fibers?
test q
-fast (glycolytic)
-slow (oxidative)
116
Myoglobin is a red iron-containing protein pigment in muscle cells to which oxygen binds and is stored. Muscle cells that engage in aerobic (oxidative) metabolism have myoglobin. The more myoglobin, the _________ the muscle cell
redder
117
What muscles would be red, use aerobic (oxidative) metabolism, and are slow in contraction?
postural muscles, or muscles used for long distance running
118
What muscles would be pink, use aerobic (oxidative) metabolism, and have intermediate fast contraction?
muscles used for endurance exercise
119
What muscles would be white, use anaerobic (glycolytic) metabolism, and have fast contraction?
muscles used for power lifting or sprinting
120
What is a motor unit?
test q!!!!
1 motor neuron + all of the muscle fibers/cells it innervates
121
Define twitch
test q
contraction of 1 motor unit from a single action potential
122
What are the types of motor units?
1) small (few muscle fibers per neuron)
2) large (many muscle fibers per neuron)
123
fibers of a particular motor unit can be either ___________ or ____________
oxidative, glycolytic
124
What is recruitment of muscle contraction?
the greater the strength of a contraction of a muscle that is required, the greater the number of motor units activated
125
The 2 variables of muscle contraction is force and length. What are the type of force contractions?
test q
1) tension (force exerted by muscle on object)
2) load (force exerted by object on muscle)
126
The 2 variables of muscle contraction is force and length. What are the types of length contractions?
test q
1) isometric (length does not change, tension does)
2) isotonic (tension does not change, length does)
Isotonic can be either:
-concentric (muscle length decreases)
-eccentric (muscle length increases)
127
What does isometric length mean in terms of muscle contraction?
test q
length does not change, tension does
128
What does isotonic length mean in terms of muscle contraction?
test q
tension does not change, length does
can be either:
-concentric (muscle length decreases)
-eccentric (muscle length increases)
129
What does concentric, isotonic length mean in terms of muscle contraction?
test q
muscle length decreases (tension does not change)
130
What does eccentric, isotonic length mean in terms of muscle contraction?
test q
muscle length increases (tension does not change)
131
What is the origin of attachment mean?
less movable point of attachment of muscle to bone
131
What is the the insertion of attachment mean?
more moveable point of attachment of muscle to bone
132
What does the action of a movement refer to?
main movement of when a muscle contracts, insertion moves toward the origin
133
What does the reverse action of movement refer to?
origin and insertion switch roles
134
What are the functional classifications of muscles?
-prime mover
-antagonist
-synergist
135
What is a primer mover?
muscle primarily responsible for a specific movement or action
136
What is an antagonist?
muscle that opposes or reverses the action of a prime mover
137
What is a synergist?
aid the action of prime mover by:
-contributing to same movement OR
-reducing undesirable movement as prime mover contracts
138
What is the naming criteria for skeletal muscles?
-location (temporalis)
-shape (deltoid, trapezius)
-direction of fibers (rectus, transverse, oblique muscles)
-number of origins (biceps, triceps, quadriceps)
-location of attachments- origin and insertion (SCM)
-action (flexor, extensor, adductor, abductor
139
What is the regional organization of muscles?
-head and neck
-back
-thorax
-axilla
-upper extremity
-pelvis
-lower extremity
140
What are the origins of the upper trapezius?
test q
-EOP
-SNL of occiput
-ligamentum nuchae (C1-C7)
141
What is the insertion point of the upper trapezius?
test q
clavicle (lateral 1/3)
142
What is the action of the upper trapezius?
test q
elevate shoulder
143
What are the origins of the middle trapezius?
test q
C7-T6 SPs
144
What is the insertion point of the middle trapezius?
test q
scapula (spine and acromion process)
145
What is the action of the middle trapezius?
test q
retraction (adduction) of scapulae
146
What are the origins of the inferior trapezius?
test q
T7-T12 SPs
147
What is the insertion point of the inferior trapezius?
test q
scapula (tubercle on the base of the spine)
148
What is the action of the inferior trapezius?
test q
depress the scapula
149
What are the origins of the pectoralis major?
test q
-clavicle (medial 1/2)
-sternum
-upper 6 ribs
150
What is the insertion point of the pectoralis major?
test q
lateral lip of inter-tubercular (bicipital) groove of the humerus
151
What are the actions of the pectoralis major?
test q
-adduct and medially rotate arm
-the clavicular head flexes the arm
-the sternocostal head depresses the arm/shoulder
152
What is the action of the clavicular head of the pectoralis major?
test q
flex the arm
153
What is the action of the sternocostal head of the pectoralis major?
test q
depresses the arm/shoulder
154
What are the origins of the deltoid?
test q
-clavicle (lateral 1/3)
-acromion
-scapula (spine)
155
What is the insertion point of the deltoid?
test q
humerus (deltoid tuberosity)
156
What are the actions of the deltoid?
test q
abduct, flex, extend, and rotate arm
157
What are the origins of the latissimus dorsi?
test q
-SPs of T6-sacrum
-iliac crest
-ribs 9-12
-scapula (inferior angle)
158
What is the insertion point of the latissimus dorsi?
test q
(floor of) inter-tubercular (bicipital) groove of the humerus
159
What are the actions of the latissimus dorsi?
test q
extend, adduct, and medially rotate humerus
160
What is the origin of the long head of the biceps brachii
test q
supraglenoid tubercle of the scapula
161
What is the origin of the short head of the biceps brachii?
test q
coracoid process of the scapula
162
What is the insertion point of the biceps brachii?
test q
radial tuberosity
163
What are the actions of the biceps brachii?
test q
supination and flexion of the forearm
164
What is the origin of the lateral head of the triceps?
test q
humerus (superior to the radial groove)
note: the medial head origin is inferior to the radial groove of the humerus
165
What is the origin of the long head of the triceps?
test q
infra-glenoid tubercle of the scapula
166
What is the origin of the medial head (deep to the long head) of the triceps?
test q
humerus (inferior to radial groove)
note: the lateral head is superior to the radial groove of the humerus
167
What is the insertion point of the triceps?
test q
olecranon process of the ulna
168
What is the action of the triceps?
test q
extend the forearm
169
What is the origin of the rectus abdominis?
test q
the pubic crest
170
What are the insertion points of the rectus abdominis?
test q
-xyphoid process (sternum)
-costal cartilages 5-7
171
What is the action of the rectus abdominis?
test q
flexion of the trunk
172
What are the 4 parts of the quadriceps femoris?
1) rectus femoris
2) vastus lateralis
3) intermedius
4) medialis
173
what is the origin of the rectus femoris (part of the quadriceps femoris)?
test q
ASIS
174
What is the origin of the vastus lateralis, intermedius, and medialis (part of the quadriceps femoris)?
test q
femur
175
What are the insertion points of the vastus lateralis, intermedius, and medialis (part of the quadriceps femoris)?
test q
patella (tibial tuberosity)
176
What is the action of the vastus lateralis, intermedius, and medialis (part of the quadriceps femoris)?
test q
extend the leg
177
What are the 3 parts of the hamstrings?
1) biceps femoris
2) semitendinosus
3) semimembranosus
178
What is the origin of the short head of the biceps femoris (part of hamstrings)?
test q
linea aspera
179
What is the origin of the long head of the biceps femoris (part of the hamstrings)?
test q
ischial tuberosity
180
What is the insertion point of the biceps femoris (part of the hamstring)?
test q
head of the fibula
181
What are the actions of the biceps femoris (part of the hamstrings)?
test q
-flex knee
-laterally rotate leg
-extend thigh (long head only)
182
What is the origin of the semitendinosus (part of the hamstrings)?
test q
ischial tuberosity
note: the origin for the semimembranosus is ALSO ischial tuberosity
183
What is the origin of the semimembranosus (part of the hamstrings)?
test q
ischial tuberosity
note: the origin for the semitendinosus is ALSO ischial tuberosity
184
What is the insertion point of the semimembranosus (part of the hamstrings)?
test q
upper tibia
185
What are the actions of the semimembranosus (part of the hamstrings)?
test q
-flex knee
-extend thigh
-medially rotate leg
186
What are the origins of the gastrocnemius?
test q
lateral and medial condyles of the femur
187
What is the insertion point of the gastrocnemius?
test q
calcaneal tuberosity via the Achilles tendon
188
What is the action of the gastrocnemius?
test q
plantar flexion of the foot
