Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Traditional medicine focuses on ________ patient health while Public Health focuses on the effects of disease on _________.

A

individual
populations

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2
Q

COVID-19 is a zoonosis which mutated and transferred to humans from:

A

horseshoe bats

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3
Q

Flesh-Eating Bacteria etiology is _______ _______.

A

Vibrio vulnificus

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4
Q

Flesh-Eating Bacterial infections are associated with increased:

A

water temperatures (climate change)

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5
Q

How is Vibrio vulnificus transmitted?

A

contaminated seafood

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6
Q

What disease uses humans and horses as a dead-end host and transmitted by mosquitos primarily in the Gulf Coast States?

A

Eastern Equine Encephalitis

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7
Q

Sudden headache, fever, chills, and vomiting are signs of Eastern Equine Encephalitis. Severe infections cause ________, ________, and ________.

A

disorientation
seizures
coma

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8
Q

Legionnaire’s Disease is caused by _________.

A

Legionella

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9
Q

Legionella causes severe _________, especially in immunocompromised hosts.

A

pneumonia

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10
Q

What outbreak location is Legionnaire’s Disease associated with?

A

Fletcher State Fair

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11
Q

Which bacteria is normal in healthy dogs and cats but can cause necrotic wounds in humans via licking/biting?

A

Capnocytophaga canimorsus

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12
Q

Which bacteria is associated with food-borne disease in weakened immune systems via an outbreak of contaminated milkshakes?

A

Listeria

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13
Q

Which disease is a common worldwide public health concern do to vaccination controversy in association with Autism and decreased vaccination rates?

A

Measles

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14
Q

(T/F) Food-borne illnesses are a major issue in the US.

A

True (high economic costs)

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15
Q

When a food pathogen replicates in the GI tract and causes signs within 24-48 hours, this is called:

A

infection

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16
Q

When a bacterial toxin is ingested in food and signs develop within minutes to hours, this is called:

A

intoxication

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17
Q

What is the most common sign of food-borne illness?

A

diarrhea

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18
Q

What is the definition of diarrhea?

A

3+ liquid stools per day

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19
Q

Which pathogen is the most common cause of food-borne diarrhea?

A

E. coli

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20
Q

What are the 3 clinical types of diarrhea?

A
  1. acute watery
  2. acute bloody (dysentery)
  3. persistent (>14 days)
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21
Q

Which gram-negative, rod-shaped bacteria is part of the normal GI flora but some cause disease?

A

E. coli

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22
Q

Some E. coli can cause ________ or _______ illness.

A

diarrhea
respiratory

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23
Q

List the 6 pathotypes of Diarrheagenic E. coli.

A
  1. Shiga-toxin producing E. coli
  2. Enterotoxigenic E. coli
  3. Enteropathogenic E. coli
  4. Enteroaggregative E. coli
  5. Enteroinvasive E. coli
  6. Diffusely adherent E. coli
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24
Q

Shiga-Toxin Producing E. coli (STEC) is also referred to as ______ or _____.

A

EHEC
VTEC

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25
Q

Which two toxins does STEC use?

A

shiga toxin 1
shiga toxin 2

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26
Q

Which shiga toxin used by STEC tends to be more virulent?

A

shiga toxin 2

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27
Q

What is the most common STEC infection?

A

E. coli O157

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28
Q

4 sources of Shiga-Toxin Producing E. coli infection include:

A
  1. species contact (cattle, goat, sheep, deer)
  2. contaminated food (beef, milk)
  3. stool (calves)
  4. person-to-person (daycares)
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29
Q

Incubation period for STEC.

A

3-4 days

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30
Q

STEC causes what life-threatening syndrome in 5-10% of patients due to RBC destruction and kidney failure?

A

Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome

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31
Q

(T/F) Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome due to STEC should be treated promptly with antibiotics to stop progression.

A

False (no treatment)

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32
Q

(T/F) Prevention, not treatment is the only way to avoid Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome.

A

True

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33
Q

(T/F) Washing food removes all STEC from food and therefore is a method for prevention.

A

False (only removes some - lowers dose)

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34
Q

Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC) is the leading cause of:

A

Traveler’s Diarrhea

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35
Q

Which two toxins does Enterotoxigenic E. coli use?

A

heat-stable toxin (ST)
heat-labile toxin (LT)

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36
Q

How do heat stable toxin and heat labile toxins cause diarrhea in ETEC?

A

stimulate GI tract to secrete excess fluid

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37
Q

Incubation period of ETEC.

A

1-3 days

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38
Q

ETEC infection has a (good/poor) prognosis.

A

good

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39
Q

Children in developing countries can develop what long-lasting effects due to ETEC infection?

A

malnutrition, stunting, cognitive defects

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40
Q

Which country is most commonly associated with Traveler’s Diarrhea caused by ETEC?

A

Asia

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41
Q

How can ETEC be treated?

A

fluids
OTC meds prior to travel

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42
Q

Which pathotype of E. coli was the first strain found as a source of outbreaks in the 40s and 50s and is called “Summer Diarrhea” in infants of developed countries?

A

Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC)

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43
Q

(T/F) EPEC is a major problem in developed countries.

A

False

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44
Q

(T/F) Enteroaggregative E. coli only causes major infection in developing countries.

A

False (both developing + developed)

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45
Q

Enteroaggregative E. coli is the second most common cause of:

A

Traveler’s Diarrhea

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46
Q

Which E. coli pathotype is associated with a German outbreak in 2011 through sprouts?

A

Enteroaggregative E. coli (EAEC)

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47
Q

Which pathotype of E. coli is endemic in developing countries due to poor sanitation but rare in developed countries and is similar to STEC genetically?

A

Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC)

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48
Q

Any outbreak of foodborne illness is defined as:

A

2+ cases from single food item

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49
Q

The majority of food-borne illnesses are caused by ________ while fewer illnesses but more deaths are caused by ________.

A

produce
meat/poultry

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50
Q

_______ causes the most deaths due to Food-borne illness.

A

poultry

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51
Q

List 2 possible causes of poultry-related deaths.

A

Listeria
Salmonella

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52
Q

_______ _______ prevents diseased meat from reaching consumers.

A

meat inspection

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53
Q

(T/F) Meat inspection is required by law.

A

True

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54
Q

Meat Inspection uses 7 HACCP Principles. What does HACCP stand for?

A

Hazard Analysis & Critical Control Points

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55
Q

______ or _____ notify companies when there is a problem and evaluation for a recall.

A

USDA + FDA

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56
Q

(T/F) Recalls are part of fairly new food inspection procedures.

A

False (old - lacked authority)

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57
Q

Current regulations for food safety include the USDA for _______ and FDA for _______.

A

meat/poultry
other (seafood, juice, eggs)

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58
Q

Which Act is a current food regulation since 2011 that states the FDA can order food recalls instead of relying on industry cooperation?

A

FDA Food Safety Modernization Act

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59
Q

Regarding antemortem food inspection, match the class to its description:

  1. acceptable for slaughter
  2. may have disease
  3. does not go to slaughter
A
  1. passed
  2. suspect
  3. condemned
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60
Q

What are the 5 D’s which condemn an animal during antemortem inspection?

A

dead, dying, diseased, disabled, drugged

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61
Q

Condemned food products are disposed properly via _________, meaning they are cooked at high temperatures to destroy organisms and only used for inedible purposes.

A

tanking

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62
Q

(T/F) Meat is likely to be sterile after processing and when reaching the consumer.

A

False (not likely to be sterile)

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63
Q

Food Irradiation is the process of using ______ _________. A high level of radiant energy penetrates food to kill microorganisms.

A

cold pasteurization

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64
Q

(T/F) Food irradiation kills bacteria at high doses but DOES NOT completely sterilize food.

A

True

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65
Q

Canned pet foods must be processed with low ______ regulations so food is free of microorganisms.

A

acid

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66
Q

(T/F) Pet food must be pre-approved by the FDA.

A

False! (no requirement for pre-approval, just need safe ingredients)

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67
Q

Which corporation regulates pet food safety?

A

FDA

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68
Q

“A product intended for consumption for pets manufactured under FSIS voluntary reimbursable inspection services” is the definition of:

A

certified pet food

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69
Q

For certified pet food, ______ inspects, certifies, and identifies pet food. _____ regulates other pet food subject to FFDCA.

A

FSIS
FDA

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70
Q

What decree, revised in 2017, identifies quality standards for milk, regulating producers, creameries, and veterinarians and are enforced by State Milk Inspectors?

A

Pasteurized Milk Ordinance (PMO)

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71
Q

There are 3 classes of milk according to milk regulations. Match the class to the description:

  1. visible color, odor, or texture change
  2. unknown suitability before milking
  3. unfit for human consumption after veterinary treatment
A
  1. abnormal milk
  2. undesirable milk
  3. contaminated milk
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72
Q

What are the 2 overarching ways that pathogens enter milk?

A
  1. mastitis
  2. contamination
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73
Q

_______ pathogens can enter milk via mastitis, or inflammation of the mammary gland.

A

bacterial

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74
Q

Contamination can cause pathogens to enter milk via ________, _______, or _______.

A

fomites, poor handling, unclean cattle

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75
Q

What are some examples of milk adulterants due to cattle treatment?

A

biologics (vaccine), hormones, antibiotics

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76
Q

What is an example of an environmental adulterant that can be added to milk?

A

pesticides

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77
Q

Regarding milk storage, milk must be (frozen, chilled, heated) and water (added/not added).

A

chilled
not added

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78
Q

_______ _______ testing is used to detect bacterial growth inhibitors, somatic cell count, and bacteria count in milk.

A

bulk tank

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79
Q

Term for the heating of all milk particles to a specific temperature or for a specific timeframe without recontamination.

A

pasteurization

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80
Q

Pasteurization of milk is used to kill pathogens and enhance shelf-life. Which important pathogen is killed via Pasteurization?

A

Coxiella burnetti (causes Q-fever)

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81
Q

List the 3 Pasteurization methods.

A
  1. Low-Temp-Long-Time (LTLT)
  2. High-Temp-Short-Time (HTST)
  3. Ultra-High Temp (UHT)
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82
Q

Ultrapasteurization of milk requires _____ degrees F for at least what amount of time?

A

138 F for 2 seconds

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83
Q

(T/F) Ultrapasteurized milk can be stored without refrigeration for months.

A

True

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84
Q

List 3 pathogens which are of concern in raw milk.

A
  1. campylobacter
  2. E. coli (STEC)
  3. salmonella
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85
Q

Which disease causes large volumes of watery diarrhea and significant morbidity AND mortality in poverty?

A

Cholera

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86
Q

Etiology of Cholera

A

Vibrio cholerae

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87
Q

(Children/Adults) are more susceptible to Cholera.

A

children

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88
Q

(T/F) Cholera is endemic to US.

A

False (not anymroe)

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89
Q

(T/F) The GI tract retains normal absorptive properties during Cholera infection.

A

True

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90
Q

How is Cholera transmitted?

A

fecal-oral (contaminated food/water)

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91
Q

Recent outbreaks of Cholera in 2017 and 2018 occurred in _______ and ______.

A

Haiti
Yemen

92
Q

What is the main treatment for Cholera?

A

oral fluids

93
Q

How is Cholera prevented?

A

vaccination (Vaxchora)
prevents severe disease prior to travel

94
Q

Who studied the cholera outbreak in London?

A

John Snow

95
Q

What was the source of the Cholera outbreak in London determined by John Snow?

A

broad street pump

96
Q

Gastroenteritis which increases infections during warmer months, is caused by Vibrio _________.

A

Vibrio parahaemolyticus

97
Q

How is Vibrio parahaemolyticus transmitted?

A

contaminated seafood

98
Q

Between 2011-2018, Vibrio parahaemolyticus outbreaks occurs in which two locations in the US due to contamined seafood?

A

Seattle
Texas
Washington DC

99
Q

Vibrio _________ is similar to V. parahaemolytica but is mainly an issue in immunocompromised individuals with chronic liver disease, causing septic shock, blistering, and 50% fatality?

A

Vibrio vulnificus

100
Q

(T/F) Vibrio vulnificus infection is rare but underreported.

A

True

101
Q

Which bacterial pathogen is zoonotic and causes diarrheal illness in the US, often with sporadic and isolated outbreaks?

A

Campylobacter

102
Q

The majority of those who develop diarrheal illness due to Campylobacter will recover without treatment, but some can develop severe disease and signs such as:

A

meningitis, UTI, septicemia, reactive arthritis
Guillain-Barre Syndrome

103
Q

Campylobacter is found in the normal flora of:

A

poultry

104
Q

Campylobacter has (high/low) morbidity and (high/low) mortality.

A

high
low

105
Q

(T/F) Campylobacter can be transmitted from pets to humans.

A

True (esp. small children)

106
Q

Yersiniosis is a food-borne gastrointestinal disease caused by Yersinia ________.

A

enterocolitica

107
Q

Yersinia enterocolitica causes fever, ________ abdominal pain, and often bloody diarrhea.

A

right-sided

108
Q

Yersiniosis is most common in:

A

young children

109
Q

Which species is the main animal host for Yersinia enterocolitica?

A

swine

110
Q

Which opportunistic gram-positive cocci causes skin infections?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

111
Q

List 4 diseases that can develop due to Staphylococcus aureus.

A
  1. impetigo
  2. scalded skin syndrome
  3. toxic shock syndrome
  4. food poisoning
112
Q

Impetigo is caused by a combination of staph and ______.

A

strep

113
Q

Scalded Skin Syndrome by S. aureus is identified by growth on _______ ______.

A

umbilical stump

114
Q

_________ toxin causes septicemia in Scalded Skin Syndrome.

A

exfoliative

115
Q

Which disease caused by S. aureus is wound or tampon-associated classified by sudden fever, chills, vomiting, diarrhea, and is fatal in 5% cases?

A

toxic shock syndrome

116
Q

What is the source of food poisoning caused by Staph aureus?

A

food handler (NOT usually animal isolates)

117
Q

Food Poisoning due to Staph aureus causes disease via (infection/intoxication).

A

intoxication

118
Q

What is the primary sign of Food Poisoning due to Staph aureus?

A

vomiting (rapid onset)

119
Q

___________ staph aureus is associated with emerging strains in hospitals and veterinary clinic strains.

A

Methicillin-Resistant (MRSA)

120
Q

What effect can cause MRSA to be spread back and forth between humans and pets?

A

ping-pong effect

121
Q

_________ Staph aureus is the dominant livestock-associated MRSA strain, especially in which species?

A

ST398
swine

122
Q

(T/F) ST398 Staph. aureus causes serious disease in humans.

A

True

123
Q

Which food-borne pathogen is a gram-positive rod with peritrichous flagella that grows at refrigeration temperatures?

A

Listeria monocytogenes

124
Q

Listeria monocytogenes from the soil or GI tract sources often contaminate _______ while feces contaminate ______.

A

deli meat
lettuce

125
Q

There was a recent Listeria monocytogenes outbreak (2018) in:

A

South Africa

126
Q

Listeriosis causes serious food poisoning in:

A

infants, elderly, immunocompromised

127
Q

3 manifestations of adult Listeriosis.

A

meningitis
septicemia
endocarditis

128
Q

Neonatal Disease or Granulomatous infantiseptica caused by Listeria can be transmitted _______ or during _______.

A

in-utero
vaginal delivery

129
Q

Listeria uses _____ _____ to travel from cell to cell.

A

actin tails

130
Q

Clostridium botulism causes Botulism which is an (infection/intoxication).

A

intoxication

131
Q

The most potent toxin, ________, is produced by Clostridium botulinum.

A

neurotoxins

132
Q

Major sign of Botulism.

A

flaccid paralysis

133
Q

3 human disease forms of Botulism.

A
  1. foodborne
  2. wound
  3. infant
134
Q

Botulism has what percent mortality rate?

A

100% (all forms)

135
Q

Botulism neurotoxin is heat (resistant/sensitive).

A

sensitive (destroyed by boiling)

136
Q

In 2015, Ohio was associated with a Botulism outbreak due to what source?

A

home-canned potato salad

137
Q

Adult Botulism causes (infection/intoxication) and Infant Botulism causes (infection/intoxication).

A

intoxication
infection

138
Q

Infant Botulism is associated with:

A

SIDS (sudden infant death syndrome)

139
Q

Wound Botulism develops under (aerobic/anaerobic) conditions.

A

anaerobic

140
Q

Wound Botulism is associated with:

A

black-tar heroin addicts

141
Q

Botulism can be used as _______ since it can be aerosolized, easy for production, and lethal.

A

bioweapon

142
Q

Botox from Botulism toxin is used two what two other treatments?

A

cerebral palsy
migraines

143
Q

Clostridium perfringens causes which 2 diseases?

A
  1. food poisoning
  2. Enteritis necroticans (pigbel)
144
Q

Enteritis necroticans is characterized by a hemorrhagic, inflammatory, or ischemic necrosis of the jejunum. It is specifically caused by which type of C. perfringens?

A

Type C

145
Q

(T/F) Enteritis necroticans is often fatal.

A

True

146
Q

(T/F) Enteritis necroticans is not uncommon in developing countries.

A

False (rare, occurs in developing)

147
Q

How is Enteritis necroticans usually transmitted?

A

high protein meals (usually pork)

148
Q

Bacillus _______ causes nausea, vomiting, and mild diarrhea.

A

Bacillus cereus

149
Q

Bacillus cereus uses _______ toxin to cause vomiting while _______ is a pore-forming toxin which causes cramps and diarrhea.

A

emetic
enterotoxin

150
Q

How is Bacillus cereus primarily transmitted?

A

rice dishes

151
Q

(T/F) Shigella is a zoonotic bacteiral pathogen.

A

False (human pathogen only)

152
Q

Shigella causes Shigellosis or _______ ________.

A

Bacillary Dysentery

153
Q

How is Shigella transmitted?

A

fecal-oral (daycare, retirement homes)

154
Q

The main cases of Shigella in the US are from S. ________ while in the developing world they are S. ________.

A

S. sonnei
S. flexneri

155
Q

(T/F) Salmonella is a zoonotic pathogen.

A

True

156
Q

What is the second most common cause of bacterial food-borne illness in the US?

A

Salmonella

157
Q

_______ are a major source of Salmonella infection.

A

eggs

158
Q

While it is possible to transmit Salmonella from dogs, cats, birds, horses, or livestock, it is commonly transmitted to humans via:

A

reptiles, chicks, ducklings

159
Q

Which 3 diseases does Salmonella cause in humans?

A
  1. Gastroenteritis
  2. Typhoid Fever
  3. Paratyphoid Fever
160
Q

Gastroenteritis caused by Salmonella is caused by (infection/intoxication).

A

infection (NO free-form toxin)

161
Q

Salmonella Gastroenteritis only affects individuals with a specific:

A

MHC molecule

162
Q

The largest bioterrorist attack in the US (Oregon, 1984) was caused by:

A

Salmonella (causing Gastroenteritis)

163
Q

Typhoid Fever is caused by:

A

Salmonella enterica typhi

164
Q

(T/F) Typhoid Fever ONLY infects humans.

A

True

165
Q

(T/F) Typhoid Fever initially causes fever, malaise, and diarrhea.

A

FALSE (no diarrhea initially)

166
Q

In NYC in 1906 and later in 1915, a major Typhoid Fever outbreak was caused by a cook named:

A

Typhoid Mary (Mary Mallon)

167
Q

How is Typhoid Fever prevented?

A

live oral vaccine (but not 100% effective)

168
Q

Paratyphoid Fever presents similarly to Typhoid Fever but with different Salmonella serotype and more (mild/severe) disease.

A

mild

169
Q

Multi-drug resistance is a huge problem with which specific Salmonella serotype? Which species is it associated with?

A

DT104
cattle

170
Q

(T/F) Animals are the source of Salmonella drug-resistance.

A

False

171
Q

Salmonella _______ is recently emerging in Pakistan and resistant to 5 classes of antibiotics.

A

typhi

172
Q

Which food & water pathogen causes sudden fever, malaise, nausea, jaundice, dark urine, and joint pain?

A

Hepatitis A Virus

173
Q

How is Hepatitis A Virus transmitted?

A

fecal-oral (contaminated food/water)

174
Q

List the 3 main sources of Hepatitis A transmission.

A

water, shellfish, salads

175
Q

Where do Hepatitis A outbreaks usually occur?

A

crowded housing (prisons, military)

176
Q

Recent outbreaks of Hepatitis A in the US include states ________ and ________.

A

California
Missouri

177
Q

Children with Hepatitis A Virus often develop _________ disease.

A

subclinical

178
Q

Which age group is most susceptible to fatality by Hepatitis A?

A

elderly

179
Q

(T/F) Hepatitis A is a vaccine-preventable disease.

A

True

180
Q

Signs of Hepatitis E Virus are similar to A but also have what other symptom?

A

clay-colored stool

181
Q

Which group of people are especially susceptible to fatality by Hepatitis E Virus?

A

pregnant women

182
Q

(T/F) Hepatitis E usually resolves without treatment.

A

True

183
Q

An outbreak of Hepatitis E Virus in Singapore involved transmission via:

A

raw pig guts

184
Q

Which food & water pathogen is highly contagious and causes Acute Gastroenteritis within 24-48 hours and is very common on cruise ships?

A

Norovirus

185
Q

How is Norovirus transmitted?

A

fecal-oral

186
Q

Which food and water pathogen is a common cause of worldwide, severe gastroenteritis in children? (Leading cause of severe diarrhea prior to US vaccine development)

A

Rotavirus

187
Q

Most Rotavirus infections occur during:

A

winter

188
Q

How is Rotavirus transmitted?

A

fecal-oral

189
Q

Rotavirus vaccination caused a lower incidence of ________.

A

Type I Diabetes (virus accelerated Beta cells)

190
Q

Which obligate intracellular protozoan parasite infects only felids as the definitive host and is the 3rd leading cause of food-borne illness death in the US?

A

Toxoplasma gondii

191
Q

What kind of signs develop due to food-borne Toxoplasmosis?

A

flu-like symptoms

192
Q

Toxoplasmosis in humans is transmitted by which 3 routes?

A
  1. foodborne
  2. zoonotic
  3. congenital
193
Q

How is foodborne Toxoplasmosis transmitted?

A

ingest sporulated oocysts or tissue cysts

194
Q

Which parasite of the GI tract causes short-term, mild watery diarrhea and is immediately infective upon excretion?

A

Cryptosporidium

195
Q

Which two species of Cryptosporidium cause human disease?

A

C. parvum
C. hominis

196
Q

Where did the Cryptosporidium outbreak occur in 1994 due to polluted public water supply (and inadequate chlorination)?

A

Milwaukee

197
Q

What is the most frequent cause of non-bacterial/viral diarrhea in North America?

A

Giardia (Giardiasis)

198
Q

Which 3 species of Giardia cause disease in humans?

A

G. duodenalis
G. lamblia
G. intestinalis

199
Q

How is Giardia transmitted?

A

contaminated water (fecal-oral)

200
Q

(T/F) Giardia cysts ARE NOT immediately infectious as they are passed in feces.

A

False

201
Q

(T/F) Pets can commonly spread Giardia to humans and vice versa.

A

False (little risk - different species)

202
Q

Etiology of Amoebic Dysentery.

A

Entamoeba histolytica

203
Q

Amoebic Dysentery is more common in what locations?

A

tropics / subtropics

204
Q

How is Entamoeba histolytica transmitted?

A

fecal-oral (cyst ingestion)

205
Q

What is the major sign of Amoebic Dysentery?

A

bloody, mucousy diarrhea

206
Q

Which two forms of diarrhea can occur with Amoebic Dysentery?

A
  1. gradual onset colitis
  2. severe acute (trophozoites present in stool)
207
Q

What drug is used to treat Amoebic Dysentery?

A

Metronidazole (Flagyl)

208
Q

How does Entamoeba histolytica cause disease and eventually death?

A

“nibbling” away of outer cell membrane

209
Q

(T/F) Cyclosporiasis causes watery diarrhea and is endemic to tropical & subtropical countries.

A

Trie

210
Q

Etiology of human-specific Cyclosporiasis.

A

Cyclospora cayetanensis

211
Q

Cyclosporiasis is a fecal-orally transmitted disease linked to imported _______.

A

produce

212
Q

(T/F) Cyclospora cysts in fresh feces are immediately infectious.

A

False

213
Q

Which food-borne parasitic pathogen is nationally reportable?

A

Trichinellosis

214
Q

The main etiology associated with Trichinellosis in humans is Trichinella ________, while other species are associated with wildlife.

A

T. spiralis

215
Q

What type of animal meat is responsible for Trichinella spiralis transmission to humans?

A

pork (swine)

216
Q

Which old fart discovered the life cycle of the Trichinella worm and determined that cooking killed the organism?

A

Rudolph Virchow

217
Q

The most common source for Trichinellosis outbreaks is:

A

wild game

218
Q

(T/F) Symptoms of Trichinellosis infection are very broad.

A

True

219
Q

What is the only fungal food-borne disease discussed?

A

Aflatoxicosis

220
Q

Aflatoxins are toxic compounds produced by _________ flavus & __________ parasiticus.

A

Aspergillus

221
Q

_________ is a potent carcinogen produced by Aspergillus fungi.

A

Aflatoxin B1

222
Q

The primary target for Aflatoxin B1 is:

A

liver

223
Q

What are some food sources of Aflatoxin in the US?

A

corn, peanuts, cottonseed, milk, tree nuts

224
Q

What Aflatoxicosis outbreak occurred in 2018?

A

PepsiCo peanuts

225
Q

Aflatoxicosis causes cerebral edema and acute necrosis or carcinoma of the _________.

A

liver

226
Q
A