Exam 1 Flashcards
(226 cards)
1
Q
Traditional medicine focuses on ________ patient health while Public Health focuses on the effects of disease on _________.
A
individual
populations
2
Q
COVID-19 is a zoonosis which mutated and transferred to humans from:
A
horseshoe bats
3
Q
Flesh-Eating Bacteria etiology is _______ _______.
A
Vibrio vulnificus
4
Q
Flesh-Eating Bacterial infections are associated with increased:
A
water temperatures (climate change)
5
Q
How is Vibrio vulnificus transmitted?
A
contaminated seafood
6
Q
What disease uses humans and horses as a dead-end host and transmitted by mosquitos primarily in the Gulf Coast States?
A
Eastern Equine Encephalitis
7
Q
Sudden headache, fever, chills, and vomiting are signs of Eastern Equine Encephalitis. Severe infections cause ________, ________, and ________.
A
disorientation
seizures
coma
8
Q
Legionnaire’s Disease is caused by _________.
A
Legionella
9
Q
Legionella causes severe _________, especially in immunocompromised hosts.
A
pneumonia
10
Q
What outbreak location is Legionnaire’s Disease associated with?
A
Fletcher State Fair
11
Q
Which bacteria is normal in healthy dogs and cats but can cause necrotic wounds in humans via licking/biting?
A
Capnocytophaga canimorsus
12
Q
Which bacteria is associated with food-borne disease in weakened immune systems via an outbreak of contaminated milkshakes?
A
Listeria
13
Q
Which disease is a common worldwide public health concern do to vaccination controversy in association with Autism and decreased vaccination rates?
A
Measles
14
Q
(T/F) Food-borne illnesses are a major issue in the US.
A
True (high economic costs)
15
Q
When a food pathogen replicates in the GI tract and causes signs within 24-48 hours, this is called:
A
infection
16
Q
When a bacterial toxin is ingested in food and signs develop within minutes to hours, this is called:
A
intoxication
17
Q
What is the most common sign of food-borne illness?
A
diarrhea
18
Q
What is the definition of diarrhea?
A
3+ liquid stools per day
19
Q
Which pathogen is the most common cause of food-borne diarrhea?
A
E. coli
20
Q
What are the 3 clinical types of diarrhea?
A
- acute watery
- acute bloody (dysentery)
- persistent (>14 days)
21
Q
Which gram-negative, rod-shaped bacteria is part of the normal GI flora but some cause disease?
A
E. coli
22
Q
Some E. coli can cause ________ or _______ illness.
A
diarrhea
respiratory
23
Q
List the 6 pathotypes of Diarrheagenic E. coli.
A
- Shiga-toxin producing E. coli
- Enterotoxigenic E. coli
- Enteropathogenic E. coli
- Enteroaggregative E. coli
- Enteroinvasive E. coli
- Diffusely adherent E. coli
24
Q
Shiga-Toxin Producing E. coli (STEC) is also referred to as ______ or _____.
A
EHEC
VTEC
25
Which two toxins does STEC use?
shiga toxin 1
shiga toxin 2
26
Which shiga toxin used by STEC tends to be more virulent?
shiga toxin 2
27
What is the most common STEC infection?
E. coli O157
28
4 sources of Shiga-Toxin Producing E. coli infection include:
1. species contact (cattle, goat, sheep, deer)
2. contaminated food (beef, milk)
3. stool (calves)
4. person-to-person (daycares)
29
Incubation period for STEC.
3-4 days
30
STEC causes what life-threatening syndrome in 5-10% of patients due to RBC destruction and kidney failure?
Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome
31
(T/F) Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome due to STEC should be treated promptly with antibiotics to stop progression.
False (no treatment)
32
(T/F) Prevention, not treatment is the only way to avoid Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome.
True
33
(T/F) Washing food removes all STEC from food and therefore is a method for prevention.
False (only removes some - lowers dose)
34
Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC) is the leading cause of:
Traveler's Diarrhea
35
Which two toxins does Enterotoxigenic E. coli use?
heat-stable toxin (ST)
heat-labile toxin (LT)
36
How do heat stable toxin and heat labile toxins cause diarrhea in ETEC?
stimulate GI tract to secrete excess fluid
37
Incubation period of ETEC.
1-3 days
38
ETEC infection has a (good/poor) prognosis.
good
39
Children in developing countries can develop what long-lasting effects due to ETEC infection?
malnutrition, stunting, cognitive defects
40
Which country is most commonly associated with Traveler's Diarrhea caused by ETEC?
Asia
41
How can ETEC be treated?
fluids
OTC meds prior to travel
42
Which pathotype of E. coli was the first strain found as a source of outbreaks in the 40s and 50s and is called "Summer Diarrhea" in infants of developed countries?
Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC)
43
(T/F) EPEC is a major problem in developed countries.
False
44
(T/F) Enteroaggregative E. coli only causes major infection in developing countries.
False (both developing + developed)
45
Enteroaggregative E. coli is the second most common cause of:
Traveler's Diarrhea
46
Which E. coli pathotype is associated with a German outbreak in 2011 through sprouts?
Enteroaggregative E. coli (EAEC)
47
Which pathotype of E. coli is endemic in developing countries due to poor sanitation but rare in developed countries and is similar to STEC genetically?
Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC)
48
Any outbreak of foodborne illness is defined as:
2+ cases from single food item
49
The majority of food-borne illnesses are caused by ________ while fewer illnesses but more deaths are caused by ________.
produce
meat/poultry
50
_______ causes the most deaths due to Food-borne illness.
poultry
51
List 2 possible causes of poultry-related deaths.
Listeria
Salmonella
52
_______ _______ prevents diseased meat from reaching consumers.
meat inspection
53
(T/F) Meat inspection is required by law.
True
54
Meat Inspection uses 7 HACCP Principles. What does HACCP stand for?
Hazard Analysis & Critical Control Points
55
______ or _____ notify companies when there is a problem and evaluation for a recall.
USDA + FDA
56
(T/F) Recalls are part of fairly new food inspection procedures.
False (old - lacked authority)
57
Current regulations for food safety include the USDA for _______ and FDA for _______.
meat/poultry
other (seafood, juice, eggs)
58
Which Act is a current food regulation since 2011 that states the FDA can order food recalls instead of relying on industry cooperation?
FDA Food Safety Modernization Act
59
Regarding antemortem food inspection, match the class to its description:
1. acceptable for slaughter
2. may have disease
3. does not go to slaughter
1. passed
2. suspect
3. condemned
60
What are the 5 D's which condemn an animal during antemortem inspection?
dead, dying, diseased, disabled, drugged
61
Condemned food products are disposed properly via _________, meaning they are cooked at high temperatures to destroy organisms and only used for inedible purposes.
tanking
62
(T/F) Meat is likely to be sterile after processing and when reaching the consumer.
False (not likely to be sterile)
63
Food Irradiation is the process of using ______ _________. A high level of radiant energy penetrates food to kill microorganisms.
cold pasteurization
64
(T/F) Food irradiation kills bacteria at high doses but DOES NOT completely sterilize food.
True
65
Canned pet foods must be processed with low ______ regulations so food is free of microorganisms.
acid
66
(T/F) Pet food must be pre-approved by the FDA.
False! (no requirement for pre-approval, just need safe ingredients)
67
Which corporation regulates pet food safety?
FDA
68
"A product intended for consumption for pets manufactured under FSIS voluntary reimbursable inspection services" is the definition of:
certified pet food
69
For certified pet food, ______ inspects, certifies, and identifies pet food. _____ regulates other pet food subject to FFDCA.
FSIS
FDA
70
What decree, revised in 2017, identifies quality standards for milk, regulating producers, creameries, and veterinarians and are enforced by State Milk Inspectors?
Pasteurized Milk Ordinance (PMO)
71
There are 3 classes of milk according to milk regulations. Match the class to the description:
1. visible color, odor, or texture change
2. unknown suitability before milking
3. unfit for human consumption after veterinary treatment
1. abnormal milk
2. undesirable milk
3. contaminated milk
72
What are the 2 overarching ways that pathogens enter milk?
1. mastitis
2. contamination
73
_______ pathogens can enter milk via mastitis, or inflammation of the mammary gland.
bacterial
74
Contamination can cause pathogens to enter milk via ________, _______, or _______.
fomites, poor handling, unclean cattle
75
What are some examples of milk adulterants due to cattle treatment?
biologics (vaccine), hormones, antibiotics
76
What is an example of an environmental adulterant that can be added to milk?
pesticides
77
Regarding milk storage, milk must be (frozen, chilled, heated) and water (added/not added).
chilled
not added
78
_______ _______ testing is used to detect bacterial growth inhibitors, somatic cell count, and bacteria count in milk.
bulk tank
79
Term for the heating of all milk particles to a specific temperature or for a specific timeframe without recontamination.
pasteurization
80
Pasteurization of milk is used to kill pathogens and enhance shelf-life. Which important pathogen is killed via Pasteurization?
Coxiella burnetti (causes Q-fever)
81
List the 3 Pasteurization methods.
1. Low-Temp-Long-Time (LTLT)
2. High-Temp-Short-Time (HTST)
3. Ultra-High Temp (UHT)
82
Ultrapasteurization of milk requires _____ degrees F for at least what amount of time?
138 F for 2 seconds
83
(T/F) Ultrapasteurized milk can be stored without refrigeration for months.
True
84
List 3 pathogens which are of concern in raw milk.
1. campylobacter
2. E. coli (STEC)
3. salmonella
85
Which disease causes large volumes of watery diarrhea and significant morbidity AND mortality in poverty?
Cholera
86
Etiology of Cholera
Vibrio cholerae
87
(Children/Adults) are more susceptible to Cholera.
children
88
(T/F) Cholera is endemic to US.
False (not anymroe)
89
(T/F) The GI tract retains normal absorptive properties during Cholera infection.
True
90
How is Cholera transmitted?
fecal-oral (contaminated food/water)
91
Recent outbreaks of Cholera in 2017 and 2018 occurred in _______ and ______.
Haiti
Yemen
92
What is the main treatment for Cholera?
oral fluids
93
How is Cholera prevented?
vaccination (Vaxchora)
prevents severe disease prior to travel
94
Who studied the cholera outbreak in London?
John Snow
95
What was the source of the Cholera outbreak in London determined by John Snow?
broad street pump
96
Gastroenteritis which increases infections during warmer months, is caused by Vibrio _________.
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
97
How is Vibrio parahaemolyticus transmitted?
contaminated seafood
98
Between 2011-2018, Vibrio parahaemolyticus outbreaks occurs in which two locations in the US due to contamined seafood?
Seattle
Texas
Washington DC
99
Vibrio _________ is similar to V. parahaemolytica but is mainly an issue in immunocompromised individuals with chronic liver disease, causing septic shock, blistering, and 50% fatality?
Vibrio vulnificus
100
(T/F) Vibrio vulnificus infection is rare but underreported.
True
101
Which bacterial pathogen is zoonotic and causes diarrheal illness in the US, often with sporadic and isolated outbreaks?
Campylobacter
102
The majority of those who develop diarrheal illness due to Campylobacter will recover without treatment, but some can develop severe disease and signs such as:
meningitis, UTI, septicemia, reactive arthritis
Guillain-Barre Syndrome
103
Campylobacter is found in the normal flora of:
poultry
104
Campylobacter has (high/low) morbidity and (high/low) mortality.
high
low
105
(T/F) Campylobacter can be transmitted from pets to humans.
True (esp. small children)
106
Yersiniosis is a food-borne gastrointestinal disease caused by Yersinia ________.
enterocolitica
107
Yersinia enterocolitica causes fever, ________ abdominal pain, and often bloody diarrhea.
right-sided
108
Yersiniosis is most common in:
young children
109
Which species is the main animal host for Yersinia enterocolitica?
swine
110
Which opportunistic gram-positive cocci causes skin infections?
Staphylococcus aureus
111
List 4 diseases that can develop due to Staphylococcus aureus.
1. impetigo
2. scalded skin syndrome
3. toxic shock syndrome
4. food poisoning
112
Impetigo is caused by a combination of staph and ______.
strep
113
Scalded Skin Syndrome by S. aureus is identified by growth on _______ ______.
umbilical stump
114
_________ toxin causes septicemia in Scalded Skin Syndrome.
exfoliative
115
Which disease caused by S. aureus is wound or tampon-associated classified by sudden fever, chills, vomiting, diarrhea, and is fatal in 5% cases?
toxic shock syndrome
116
What is the source of food poisoning caused by Staph aureus?
food handler (NOT usually animal isolates)
117
Food Poisoning due to Staph aureus causes disease via (infection/intoxication).
intoxication
118
What is the primary sign of Food Poisoning due to Staph aureus?
vomiting (rapid onset)
119
___________ staph aureus is associated with emerging strains in hospitals and veterinary clinic strains.
Methicillin-Resistant (MRSA)
120
What effect can cause MRSA to be spread back and forth between humans and pets?
ping-pong effect
121
_________ Staph aureus is the dominant livestock-associated MRSA strain, especially in which species?
ST398
swine
122
(T/F) ST398 Staph. aureus causes serious disease in humans.
True
123
Which food-borne pathogen is a gram-positive rod with peritrichous flagella that grows at refrigeration temperatures?
Listeria monocytogenes
124
Listeria monocytogenes from the soil or GI tract sources often contaminate _______ while feces contaminate ______.
deli meat
lettuce
125
There was a recent Listeria monocytogenes outbreak (2018) in:
South Africa
126
Listeriosis causes serious food poisoning in:
infants, elderly, immunocompromised
127
3 manifestations of adult Listeriosis.
meningitis
septicemia
endocarditis
128
Neonatal Disease or Granulomatous infantiseptica caused by Listeria can be transmitted _______ or during _______.
in-utero
vaginal delivery
129
Listeria uses _____ _____ to travel from cell to cell.
actin tails
130
Clostridium botulism causes Botulism which is an (infection/intoxication).
intoxication
131
The most potent toxin, ________, is produced by Clostridium botulinum.
neurotoxins
132
Major sign of Botulism.
flaccid paralysis
133
3 human disease forms of Botulism.
1. foodborne
2. wound
3. infant
134
Botulism has what percent mortality rate?
100% (all forms)
135
Botulism neurotoxin is heat (resistant/sensitive).
sensitive (destroyed by boiling)
136
In 2015, Ohio was associated with a Botulism outbreak due to what source?
home-canned potato salad
137
Adult Botulism causes (infection/intoxication) and Infant Botulism causes (infection/intoxication).
intoxication
infection
138
Infant Botulism is associated with:
SIDS (sudden infant death syndrome)
139
Wound Botulism develops under (aerobic/anaerobic) conditions.
anaerobic
140
Wound Botulism is associated with:
black-tar heroin addicts
141
Botulism can be used as _______ since it can be aerosolized, easy for production, and lethal.
bioweapon
142
Botox from Botulism toxin is used two what two other treatments?
cerebral palsy
migraines
143
Clostridium perfringens causes which 2 diseases?
1. food poisoning
2. Enteritis necroticans (pigbel)
144
Enteritis necroticans is characterized by a hemorrhagic, inflammatory, or ischemic necrosis of the jejunum. It is specifically caused by which type of C. perfringens?
Type C
145
(T/F) Enteritis necroticans is often fatal.
True
146
(T/F) Enteritis necroticans is not uncommon in developing countries.
False (rare, occurs in developing)
147
How is Enteritis necroticans usually transmitted?
high protein meals (usually pork)
148
Bacillus _______ causes nausea, vomiting, and mild diarrhea.
Bacillus cereus
149
Bacillus cereus uses _______ toxin to cause vomiting while _______ is a pore-forming toxin which causes cramps and diarrhea.
emetic
enterotoxin
150
How is Bacillus cereus primarily transmitted?
rice dishes
151
(T/F) Shigella is a zoonotic bacteiral pathogen.
False (human pathogen only)
152
Shigella causes Shigellosis or _______ ________.
Bacillary Dysentery
153
How is Shigella transmitted?
fecal-oral (daycare, retirement homes)
154
The main cases of Shigella in the US are from S. ________ while in the developing world they are S. ________.
S. sonnei
S. flexneri
155
(T/F) Salmonella is a zoonotic pathogen.
True
156
What is the second most common cause of bacterial food-borne illness in the US?
Salmonella
157
_______ are a major source of Salmonella infection.
eggs
158
While it is possible to transmit Salmonella from dogs, cats, birds, horses, or livestock, it is commonly transmitted to humans via:
reptiles, chicks, ducklings
159
Which 3 diseases does Salmonella cause in humans?
1. Gastroenteritis
2. Typhoid Fever
3. Paratyphoid Fever
160
Gastroenteritis caused by Salmonella is caused by (infection/intoxication).
infection (NO free-form toxin)
161
Salmonella Gastroenteritis only affects individuals with a specific:
MHC molecule
162
The largest bioterrorist attack in the US (Oregon, 1984) was caused by:
Salmonella (causing Gastroenteritis)
163
Typhoid Fever is caused by:
Salmonella enterica typhi
164
(T/F) Typhoid Fever ONLY infects humans.
True
165
(T/F) Typhoid Fever initially causes fever, malaise, and diarrhea.
FALSE (no diarrhea initially)
166
In NYC in 1906 and later in 1915, a major Typhoid Fever outbreak was caused by a cook named:
Typhoid Mary (Mary Mallon)
167
How is Typhoid Fever prevented?
live oral vaccine (but not 100% effective)
168
Paratyphoid Fever presents similarly to Typhoid Fever but with different Salmonella serotype and more (mild/severe) disease.
mild
169
Multi-drug resistance is a huge problem with which specific Salmonella serotype? Which species is it associated with?
DT104
cattle
170
(T/F) Animals are the source of Salmonella drug-resistance.
False
171
Salmonella _______ is recently emerging in Pakistan and resistant to 5 classes of antibiotics.
typhi
172
Which food & water pathogen causes sudden fever, malaise, nausea, jaundice, dark urine, and joint pain?
Hepatitis A Virus
173
How is Hepatitis A Virus transmitted?
fecal-oral (contaminated food/water)
174
List the 3 main sources of Hepatitis A transmission.
water, shellfish, salads
175
Where do Hepatitis A outbreaks usually occur?
crowded housing (prisons, military)
176
Recent outbreaks of Hepatitis A in the US include states ________ and ________.
California
Missouri
177
Children with Hepatitis A Virus often develop _________ disease.
subclinical
178
Which age group is most susceptible to fatality by Hepatitis A?
elderly
179
(T/F) Hepatitis A is a vaccine-preventable disease.
True
180
Signs of Hepatitis E Virus are similar to A but also have what other symptom?
clay-colored stool
181
Which group of people are especially susceptible to fatality by Hepatitis E Virus?
pregnant women
182
(T/F) Hepatitis E usually resolves without treatment.
True
183
An outbreak of Hepatitis E Virus in Singapore involved transmission via:
raw pig guts
184
Which food & water pathogen is highly contagious and causes Acute Gastroenteritis within 24-48 hours and is very common on cruise ships?
Norovirus
185
How is Norovirus transmitted?
fecal-oral
186
Which food and water pathogen is a common cause of worldwide, severe gastroenteritis in children? (Leading cause of severe diarrhea prior to US vaccine development)
Rotavirus
187
Most Rotavirus infections occur during:
winter
188
How is Rotavirus transmitted?
fecal-oral
189
Rotavirus vaccination caused a lower incidence of ________.
Type I Diabetes (virus accelerated Beta cells)
190
Which obligate intracellular protozoan parasite infects only felids as the definitive host and is the 3rd leading cause of food-borne illness death in the US?
Toxoplasma gondii
191
What kind of signs develop due to food-borne Toxoplasmosis?
flu-like symptoms
192
Toxoplasmosis in humans is transmitted by which 3 routes?
1. foodborne
2. zoonotic
3. congenital
193
How is foodborne Toxoplasmosis transmitted?
ingest sporulated oocysts or tissue cysts
194
Which parasite of the GI tract causes short-term, mild watery diarrhea and is immediately infective upon excretion?
Cryptosporidium
195
Which two species of Cryptosporidium cause human disease?
C. parvum
C. hominis
196
Where did the Cryptosporidium outbreak occur in 1994 due to polluted public water supply (and inadequate chlorination)?
Milwaukee
197
What is the most frequent cause of non-bacterial/viral diarrhea in North America?
Giardia (Giardiasis)
198
Which 3 species of Giardia cause disease in humans?
G. duodenalis
G. lamblia
G. intestinalis
199
How is Giardia transmitted?
contaminated water (fecal-oral)
200
(T/F) Giardia cysts ARE NOT immediately infectious as they are passed in feces.
False
201
(T/F) Pets can commonly spread Giardia to humans and vice versa.
False (little risk - different species)
202
Etiology of Amoebic Dysentery.
Entamoeba histolytica
203
Amoebic Dysentery is more common in what locations?
tropics / subtropics
204
How is Entamoeba histolytica transmitted?
fecal-oral (cyst ingestion)
205
What is the major sign of Amoebic Dysentery?
bloody, mucousy diarrhea
206
Which two forms of diarrhea can occur with Amoebic Dysentery?
1. gradual onset colitis
2. severe acute (trophozoites present in stool)
207
What drug is used to treat Amoebic Dysentery?
Metronidazole (Flagyl)
208
How does Entamoeba histolytica cause disease and eventually death?
"nibbling" away of outer cell membrane
209
(T/F) Cyclosporiasis causes watery diarrhea and is endemic to tropical & subtropical countries.
Trie
210
Etiology of human-specific Cyclosporiasis.
Cyclospora cayetanensis
211
Cyclosporiasis is a fecal-orally transmitted disease linked to imported _______.
produce
212
(T/F) Cyclospora cysts in fresh feces are immediately infectious.
False
213
Which food-borne parasitic pathogen is nationally reportable?
Trichinellosis
214
The main etiology associated with Trichinellosis in humans is Trichinella ________, while other species are associated with wildlife.
T. spiralis
215
What type of animal meat is responsible for Trichinella spiralis transmission to humans?
pork (swine)
216
Which old fart discovered the life cycle of the Trichinella worm and determined that cooking killed the organism?
Rudolph Virchow
217
The most common source for Trichinellosis outbreaks is:
wild game
218
(T/F) Symptoms of Trichinellosis infection are very broad.
True
219
What is the only fungal food-borne disease discussed?
Aflatoxicosis
220
Aflatoxins are toxic compounds produced by _________ flavus & __________ parasiticus.
Aspergillus
221
_________ is a potent carcinogen produced by Aspergillus fungi.
Aflatoxin B1
222
The primary target for Aflatoxin B1 is:
liver
223
What are some food sources of Aflatoxin in the US?
corn, peanuts, cottonseed, milk, tree nuts
224
What Aflatoxicosis outbreak occurred in 2018?
PepsiCo peanuts
225
Aflatoxicosis causes cerebral edema and acute necrosis or carcinoma of the _________.
liver
226
