Exam 2 Flashcards
(350 cards)
1
Q
(T/F) The majority of outbreaks in laboratory settings are related to known accidents.
A
False!
2
Q
Accidents are less likely to be the cause of lab facility outbreaks, whereas over 80% of cases are related to:
A
infectious aerosols
3
Q
Many lab facility outbreaks occur at ________, which take a major economic loss if this occurs, therefore biosafety measures are extensive.
A
universities
4
Q
What is the goal of biosafety?
A
prevent infections (inside & outside lab)
5
Q
(T/F) Biosafety levels 1-4 are from lowest hazard to increased hazard.
A
True
6
Q
(T/F) Biosecurity Level 1 agents cause disease in humans but with quick recovery or treatment available.
A
False (unknown to cause disease in healthy humans)L
7
Q
List the 3 main examples of pathogens present in a Biosecurity Level 1 facillity.
A
- Bacillus subtilis
- Saccharomyces cerevisiae
- E. coli (avirulent strains)
8
Q
(T/F) PPE is necessary in all levels of biosecurity.
A
False (not required in Level 1 & 2)
9
Q
Biosecurity Level 2 indicates moderate hazards, where _______ and _______ are available.
A
vaccination
antibiotics
10
Q
List 5 examples of Biosecurity Level 2 pathogens.
A
- Measles
- Salmonella enterica
- Staph
- Toxoplasma
- Hepatitis B
11
Q
_________ are not required in Level 2 facilities unless the lab produces highly concentrated or aerosolized pathogens.
A
biosafety cabinets
12
Q
What equipment is plexiglass with a vent that pulls air in via negative pressure to present contaminated aerosol spread in the lab?
A
biosafety cabinets
13
Q
(T/F) Autoclaves are not required in each Level 2 facility.
A
True (but require nearby access)
14
Q
Level 3 facilities deal with serious or potentially lethal diseases spread via:
A
inhalation
15
Q
(T/F) Level 3 facilities deal with serious and potentially lethal diseases which are not treatable or preventable.
A
False (serious/lethal but ARE treatable or preventable)
16
Q
Level (2/3) is more common than (2/3).
A
2, 3
17
Q
What is the “hallmark” of a Level 3 facility?
A
redundancy (ALWAYS having back-ups –> gloves, autoclaves, etc)
18
Q
List 4 potential pathogens in Level 3 biosafety facilities.
A
- Mycobacterium tuberculosis
- St. Louis Encephalitis Virus
- Coxiella burnetii
- Bacillus anthracis
19
Q
For Level 3 biosafety labs, there are a few additional facility requirements. List 4 of them.
A
- separate isolation zone (away from traffic)
- double-door entry
- directional inward airflow
- single-pass air (NO recirculation!)
20
Q
Room penetrations such as plugs need to be sealed in a Level ___ biosafety lab.
A
3
21
Q
Which biosafety level requires use of PPE? What does PPE stand for?
A
Level 3
Personal Protective Equipment
22
Q
BSL-3 Ag is a type of Level 3 biosafety that has a special concern for pathogen exposure to:
A
agriculture
23
Q
(T/F) All Level 3 biosafety facilities have hyperfiltered air prior to entrance.
A
False (ONLY BSL-3Ag)
24
Q
What special facility difference is present in BSL-3 Ag that is not used in regular BSL 3?
A
floor drains (collect liquid from animals in tanks which will be autoclaved)
25
What method is used for carcass disposal in BSL-3 Ag?
tissue digestor (liquefies & sterilizes tissues)
26
Biosecurity Level 4 includes serious and lethal diseases (with/without) available prevention and treatment.
without
27
All pathogens in Biosafety Level 4 facilities are:
viruses
28
The new method for BSL 4 uses conventional biosafety cabinets and _______ suits.
space (higher protection than PPE)
29
What must workers in BSL 4 do prior to exiting the lab?
chemical shower followed by conventional shower
30
List 3 examples of agents in a BSL 4 facility.
1. Ebola virus
2. Herpes B virus
3. Lassa fever virus
31
List 4 major routes of infection that occur in lab settings.
1. parenteral (needles)
2. spills (skin, mucous membranes)
3. ingestion / eyes
3. aerosols
32
The Antiterrorism & Effective Death Penalty Act in 1996 initially came about after concern when a member of the Aryan Nations acquired __________ from American Type Culture Collection by mail border.
Yersinia pestis (plague)
33
The Antiterrorism & Effective Death Penalty Act in 1996 lists agents with severe risk to public health & safety as well as procedures for:
transfer of agents
34
Select agents and toxins listed in the Antiterrorism & Effective Death Penalty Act are listed as possible bioterrorism potential. They require inspection by _______ or ______ and facilities of BSL ____ or ____.
CDC or USDA
BSL 3 or 4
35
3 corporations are responsible for determining select agents and toxins as possible bioterrorism threats. What are they? And what kind of pathogens are they concerned with?
1. Health & Human Services (human pathogens)
2. USDA (zoonotic)
3. Overlap (human to animal OR animal to human)
36
List the 5 biggest human pathogen bioterrorism threats listed by the Health & Human Services.
1. botulism toxins
2. Coxiella burnetii
3. Yersinia pestis
4. Francisella tularensis
5. Ebola virus
37
The select bioterrorism threats listed by the Health & Human Services are inspected by _______.
CDC
38
The USDA lists zoonotic select bioterrorism potential agents such as _______________.
Foot & Mouth Disease Virus
39
The USDA lists zoonotic bioterrorism select agents such as Foot and Mouth Disease virus and is inspected by __________.
USDA only
40
The select bioterrorism agents that include overlap, meaning can spread from humans to animals or animals to humans, include which two agents? And what corporation inspects them?
Bacillus anthracis
Burkholderia mallei
CDC
41
What broad, but still active Act was passed regarding restrictions on obtaining and shipping of select bioterrorism agents after 9/11?
USA Partiot Act (2001)
42
List 5 categories of people who are restricted from accessing select agents with bioterrorism potential.
1. individuals indicted (crime > 1 year prison)
2. fugitive
3. illegal alien
4. mental institution stay
5. dishonorable armed service discharge
43
List the 2 possible penalties for violating select agent use and restrictions.
1. civil money (fine)
2. criminal (prison)
44
Those that violate select agent use and restrictions can be fined up to $___________ and in prison for up to ________.
250,000
5 years
45
What is the "driving force" for Biosecurity Levels?
emerging disease threats
46
__________ has the purpose to keep agents WITHIN a facility while _________ has the purpose to keep pathogens from entering the facility in the first place.
biocontainment
biosecurity
47
Biosecurity is mostly related to which type of animals? Why?
food animals (reduce costs & protect food supply)
48
What are the 3 main biosecurity principles?
1. isolation / quarantine
2. resistance
3. santiation
49
Which biosecurity principle involves the following:
"keep animals healthy by good nutrition, environmental, and other practices so they are less likely to become infected"
resistance
50
List the 5 possible routes of transmission which determine biosecurity measures.
1. direct contact
2. fomites
3. aerosols
4. ingestion
5. vectors
51
List the 3 steps of cleaning & disinfection for biosecurity practices.
1. remove organic matter
2. wash & rinse
3. disinfection
52
(T/F) Using a concentration greater than labelled for disinfectants can increase its efficacy.
False (can be LESS effective)
53
In terms of vector control regarding biosecurity practices, ________ ________ prevents egg laying of arthropod vectors, such as minimizing long vegegation.
source reduction
54
Bacillus anthracis is a (aerobic/anerobic) _______-forming bacteria.
aerobic
endospore
55
List the 2 toxins used by Bacillus anthracis.
1. lethal toxin
2. edema toxin
56
Bacillus anthracis uses lethal toxin which is composed of ___________ + __________.
lethal factors + protective antigen
57
What allows for Bacillus anthracis to bind to cell receptors?
protective antigen
58
Edema toxin of Bacillus anthracis is composed of ___________ + __________.
edema factor + protective antigen
59
Both lethal and edema toxins for Bacillus anthracis are encoded on _______ plasmid.
pXO1
60
The capsule for Bacillus anthracis is encoded on ______ plasmid and has what function?
pXO2
anti-phagocytic
61
How is Bacillus anthracis transmitted?
ingestion of spores (soil/water)
62
Once Bacillus anthracis spores are ingested, how do they enter the tissues?
enter abrasion in GI tract
63
Bacillus anthracis replicates in ________ cells and goes to the lymph nodes before bacteremia and toxemia.
phagocytic
64
(T/F) Outbreaks of anthrax often occurs at the human level.
False (see cases but see animal outbreaks)
65
List the 4 disease forms of Anthrax.
1. cutaneous anthrax
2. gastrointestinal anthrax
3. pulmonary anthrax
4. injection anthrax
66
95% of Anthrax cases are what form?
Cutaneous Anthrax
67
In Cutaneous Anthrax, spores enter via:
abrasion/break in skin
68
(T/F) Cutaneous Anthrax often leads to bacteremia/toxemia and later death.
False (slow-developing, NOT usually leading to these)
69
Cutaneous Anthrax often causes a painful, malignant pustule lesion with a necrotic center called:
black eschar
70
(T/F) The black eschar caused by Cutaneous Anthrax is treatable.
True
71
Which form of Anthrax is RARE in the US?
Gastrointestinal
72
How is GI anthrax transmitted?
ingested meat
73
The form of Anthrax also known as "Woolsorter's Disease" is:
Pulmonary Anthrax
74
Which form of Anthrax is a form of concern for biological weapons?
pulmonary anthrax
75
How is Pulmonary Anthrax transmitted?
inhalation of spores
76
What unique sign is seen in Pulmonary Anthrax?
bi-phasic (initial flu illness followed by acute phase of respiratory distress + toxemia)
77
Pulmonary Anthrax leads to respiratory distress and death within:
24 hours
78
What is injection anthrax related to?
heroin injection / addiction
79
Where did injection anthrax outbreak in 2009-2013?
germany, scotland, england
80
(T/F) Anthrax is a potential bioterrorism agent due to ability for secondary spread from human-to-human.
FALSE (NOT secondarily spread between people)
81
What is the best way to prevent Anthrax?
vaccination
82
In veterinary medicine, _______ _______ is a live spore vaccine which makes toxin but has no _________ for virulence.
Sterne Strain
capsule
83
Anthrax Vaccine Adsorbed (AVA) and British Anthrax Vaccine Precipitated (AVP) are both ________ vaccines.
human
84
(T/F) While the anthrax vaccine is effective, there are long-term effects associated.
False
85
(T/F) Systemic effects can occur due to Anthrax vaccination.
True (5-35%)
86
Anthrax vaccine requires ____ IM injections and an annual booster.
5
87
Plague is caused by:
Yersinia pestis
88
Yersinia pestis is a gram (positive/negative) _______-shaped bacteria.
negative
rod
89
What unique look does Yersinia pestis have when stained?
"safety pin"
90
How is Plague transmitted?
flea bite (or direct flea contact)
91
The most common flea in the US associated with Yersinia pestis transmission is:
Oropsylla montanus (California ground squirrel flea, Rock Squirrel flea)
92
How does a flea transmit plague?
bloodmeal from infected animal --> regurg into new host on next bloodmeal
93
The plague can be transmitted via _______ or _______ cycle.
sylvatic
urban
94
The plague sylvatic cycle is via which animal? Urban cycle?
Sylvatic: wild rodent
Urban: rat
95
List 2 reservoirs for plague.
deer mice
ground squirrels
96
(T/F) Cats are highly susceptible to plague, developing the same disease as humans.
True
97
(T/F) Cats cannot transmit plague to humans.
False (can)
98
(T/F) Although cats can transmit plague to humans, they are POOR vectors of it.
True
99
75% of Feline Bubonic Plague manifests as:
submandibular lymphadenitis
100
After fever, lethargy, and anorexia in cats affected with Feline Bubonic Plague, they develop what two signs prior to death?
DIC
multi-organ failure
101
Dogs are generally (sensitive/resistant) to plague infection.
resistant
102
Dogs that do develop plague develop:
general lymphadenopathy
103
List the 3 clinical syndromes of Plague.
1. bubonic
2. pneumonic
3. septicemic
104
80% of US cases are ________ plague.
bubonic
105
What is the mortality rate for Bubonic Plague?
50%
106
What is the primary sign seen in Bubonic plague?
lymphadenopathy
107
In addition to lymphadenopathy, ________ can be seen in Bubonic plague infection, indicated by a swelling at the inoculation site.
buboes
108
Bubonic plague can lead to secondary ________ plague.
pneumonic
109
________ plague is almost always fatal if not treated within 24 hours from sign onset.
Pneumonic
110
Pneumonic Plague leads to what syndrome characterized by shock and refractory pulmonary edema?
Adult Respiratory Disease Syndrome
111
_________ plague is a complication of the other two forms.
septicemic
112
(T/F) Septicemic Plague is fatal without treatment.
True
113
Septicemic Plague leads to ______, hypotension/shock, and death.
DIC
114
(T/F) Plague is ENDEMIC to the US.
True
115
Where are most cases of plague in the US?
southwest (AZ, CO, NM, UT)
116
Plague is found worldwide except which 2 continents?
Australia
Antarctica
117
Most cases of plague (95%) worldwide occur in:
Sub-Saharan Africa + Madagascar
118
What disease is also known as "Rabbit Fever"?
Tularemia
119
Etiology of Tularemia.
Francisella tularensis
120
Francisella tularensis is a gram (positive/negative) __________.
negative
coccobacillus
121
Francisella tularensis can persist for 3-4 months in what substances? What can it persist in for >3 years?
3-4 months: mud, water, dead animals
>3 years: frozen meat
122
Francisella tularensis is (resistant/sensitive) to disinfectants and heat.
sensitive
123
F. tularensis biovar ________ or MORE virulent than biovar _________.
tularensis (Type A)
holarctica (Type B)
124
Match the F. tularensis biovar to its location:
1. Eurasia and North America
2. only North America
1. F. tularensis holarctica
2. F. tularensis tularensis
125
Match which F. tularensis biovar goes with each reservoirs:
1. rabbits, squirrels, ticks
2. muskrats, voles, mice rats
1. tularensis (Type A)
2. holarctica (Type B)
126
List the 4 modes of F. tularensis transmission.
1. direct contact (rabbits/mammals)
2. ingestion (undercooked meat, water)
3. vector-borne (arthropods)
4. aerosols (dust)
127
(T/F) F. tularensis can be transmitted from person to person.
False (unless pneumonic form)
128
Which vectors can transmit F. tularensis?
Ticks (transovarial)
Mosquitos/flies (infrequent in Europe)
129
What species serve as reservoirs for F. tularensis.
MANY mammals (rabbits, beaver, muskrats)
ticks
some birds
130
F. tularensis requires a (small/large) infectious dose for inoculation and inhalation and a (small/large) infectious dose for oral transmission.
small
large
131
_________ transfer of F. tularensis is possible, seen in a case in 2017 with positive rabbits near a patient's household.
transplantation
132
Where did cottontail rabbits cause the first human case of F. tularensis and later clusters of pneumonic cases related to mowing from 1930-2003?
Martha's Vineyard
133
List a few initial signs of F. tularensis infection in humans.
sudden fever
chills
headache
myalgia
134
6 clinical syndromes can occur due to F. tularensis infection. List them.
1. ulceroglandular
2. glandular
3. oculoglandular
4. oropharyngeal
5. typhoidal
6. pulmonary
135
Which clinical syndrome of F. tularensis is most common?
ulceroglandular
136
The Ulceroglandular form of F. tularensis uses ulcers as an entry site and causes ____________ in humans.
regional lymphadenopathy
137
(T/F) The Glandular form of F. tularensis causes ulceration and regional lymphadenopathy.
False (NO ulceration)
138
List 2 manifestations of Oculoglandular Syndrome of F. tularensis.
1. conjunctivitis
2. regional lymphadenopathy
139
Which F. tularensis syndrome is the SECOND most common?
glandular
140
Oropharyngeal Form of F. tularensis is transmitted via:
ingestion
141
Oropharyngeal Form of F. tularensis is associated with _________ signs and pharyngitis.
gastrointestinal
142
_________ Syndrome of F. tularensis can be acute or septicemic.
typhoidal
143
Pulmonary Syndrome of F. tularensis is inhaled and spreads via:
bloodstream
144
(T/F) Animals infected with F. tularensis are often seen with ulcerative lesions prior to death.
False (often found dead)
145
What unique signs can be seen with rabbits infected with F. tularensis?
abnormal behaviors (rubbing nose/feet, muscle twitching)
146
List 3 ways to prevent F. tularensis infection.
1. prevent ticks
2. protection when handling wildlife
3. cook wild game thoroughly
147
F. tularensis is a BSL ___ and those working in the lab should undergo antibiotic prophylaxis.
3
148
What etiologic agent is responsible for Leptospirosis as a public health concern?
Leptospira interrogans
149
Leptospira interrogans is a zoonotic ________.
spirochete
150
What is the most common route of transmission for Leptospirosis?
urine contact (water, soil, vegetation)
151
_______ are incidental hosts for Leptospirosis, therefore it occurs rarely.
humans
152
A human's _________ or being in a (developed/developing) country increases the risk of leptospirosis.
occupation
developing
153
What serves as a reservoir for Leptospirosis? Ans which species is the most important?
wild mammals
rats
154
_______ are carriers for Leptospirosis.
dogs
155
(T/F) Leptospirosis is currently re-emerging worldwide.
True
156
50% of human cases in the US are in which state?
Hawaii
157
List the 2 forms of Leptospirosis.
1. non-icteric
2. icteric
158
What 2 major signs are seen with NON-icteric Leptospirosis?
1. flu-like (headache, myalgia, fever, chills)
2. progression to menginitis
159
Icteric Leptospirosis is also known as:
Weil's Disease
160
In addition to jaundice, fever, conjunctivitis, rash, hepatomegaly, and meningitis, what eventually to Leptospirosis fatality?
renal & hepatic failure
161
Leptospirosis is identified by seeing spirochetes in:
proximal renal tubules
162
What 3 tissues can be cultured to diagnose Leptospirosis?
body fluids
CSF
urine
163
What test can detect rising antibody titers for Leptospirosis?
Microscopic Agglutination Test (MAT)
164
(T/F) Human vaccination is the best way to prevent Leptospirosis.
False! (only dogs vaccinated)
165
(T/F) Dogs vaccinated for Leptospirosis can still become infected and shed it in their urine, therefore, spreading it to humans.
True
166
Which pathogen is a potential REVERSE zoonosis where humans appear to be primarily affected and spread to animals?
Helicobacter
167
Helicobacter pylori is a gram (negative/positive) _______-shaped bacteria.
negative
rod
168
What is Helicobacter pylori's oxygen requirement?
microaerophilic
169
Helicobacter pylori is (motile/non-motile) with multiple ________ flagella.
motile
polar
170
Where is Helicobacter located in the body? What kind of pH does it survive in?
stomach
low pH
171
Which two researchers won the Nobel Prize by ingesting Helicobacter pylori themselves?
Robin Warren + Barry Marshall
172
What disease does Helicobacter pylori cause in humans?
gastritis + gastric ulcers
173
Chronic Gastritis caused by H. pylori leads to Gastric _________ and Gastric __________.
Lymphoma
Adenocarcinoma
174
In addition to humans, dogs, cats, ferrets, monkeys, and rabbits can all become infected with Helicobacter. Give the species that infects them.
dogs: H. canis
cats & dogs: H. felis
Ferrets: H. mustelae
Dogs, cats, monkeys, rabbits, humans: H, heilmannii
175
(T/F) Helicobacter is present worldwide, but higher incidence in developing countries.
True
176
Avian Chlamydiosis, Parrot Fever, and Ornithosis are all other disease names for:
Psittacosis
177
Give the etiology of Psittacosis.
Chlamydia psittaci
178
Chlamydia psittaci is (facultative/obligate) (intracellular/extracellular) bacteria.
obligate intracellular
179
Psittacosis exists in 2 forms:
1. elementary body
2. reticulate body
180
Regarding the forms of Chlamydia psittaci, _________ body is non-infectious and replicating while ________ body is infectious and NON-replicating.
reticulate
elementary
181
List 3 routes of transmission of Chlamydia psittaci to humans.
1. inhalation (droppings, feather secretions)
2. direct contact (plumage, tissue handling)
3. person-to-person (rare)
182
Psittacosis in humans varies from inapparent to system infections with __________.
pneumonia
183
(T/F) Psittacosis in humans appears with an abrupt onset of fever, chills, headache, cough, splenomegaly, and rash.
True
184
Psittacine birds such as _________ and ________, in addition to turkeys, ducks, and rarely chickens become infected with Psittacosis.
parakeets
cockatiels
185
List a few signs of Psittacosis seen in animals.
anorexia, weight loss, diarrhea, yellow droppings, sinusitis, nervous signs
186
(Young/Old) bird carriers for Psittacosis undergo intermittent shedding which is activated by stress.
young
187
(T/F) With treatment, Psittacosis is NOT highly fatal.
True (1-5%)
188
(T/F) Without treatment, Psittacosis has nearly 100% mortality.
False (may resolve on its own, 10-40% mortality)
189
(T/F) There is NO vaccination for Chlamydia psittaci.
True
190
Looking at the history of Psittacosis outbreaks in the US, the majority of cases are with known source of exposure to _________ birds.
caged
191
Give the etiology for Catch Scratch Disease.
Bartonella henselae
192
Bartonella henselae is a gram (positive/negative) (obligate/facultative) intracellular _________.
negative
facultative
coccobacillus
193
Bartonella henselae is __________ or silver staining.
argyrophilic
194
Catch Scratch Disease is a _______-_______ illness.
self-limiting
195
Cats with Cat Scratch Disease are:
asymptomatic
196
There is a higher incidence of (domestic/feral) cats with Cat Scratch Disease.
feral
197
(T/F) Cat Scratch Disease incidence is higher in cats with FeLV or FIV.
False
198
Catch Scratch Disease often infects children and adults that are younger than ____.
21
199
Cat Scratch Disease is the most common cause of _________ in children.
chronic lymph node swelling
200
(T/F) Lymphadenopathy or lymph node swelling due to Cat Scratch Disease can spontaneously regress.
True
201
List the 3 criteria for "Classical" Cat Scratch Disease.
1. cat contact history
2. positive skin test
3. negative lab investigation
202
6% of humans that develop Cat Scratch Disease develop _________ _________ Syndrome, characterized by conjunctivitis, preauricular adenopathy, and granulomatous lesion in conjunctiva.
Parinaud Oculoglandular Syndrome
203
1-2% of humans with atypical Cat Scratch Disease develop:
Idiopathic Stellate Neuroretinitis
204
Idiopathic Stellate Neuroretinitis caused by Cat Scratch Disease is characterized by a loss of visual acuity with lipid exudates called:
macular star
205
Immunocompromised humans infected with CSD develop __________-like lesions in the skin & bone or liver & spleen.
hemangioma
206
How is CSD transmitted to humans?
bite/scratch from cat
207
(T/F) Bartonella henselae can penetrate intact skin.
False
208
What is the vector for CSD?
Ctenocephalides felis (cat flea)
209
The exact route of spread of Cat Scratch Disease between ______ is unknown.
cats
210
Cats transmit CSD to humans by contact with infected ________ ________.
flea feces
211
Are the majority of CSD cases without treatment fatal or resolve?
resolve (1-6 months)
212
2 ways to prevent CSD.
1. cat flea control
2. avoid adopting kittens of unknown origin (immunocompromised individuals)
213
Rat Bite Fever is caused by:
Streptobacillus moniliformis
214
Streptobacillus moniliformis is a gram (positive/negative) (motile/non-motile) ________.
negative
non-motile
rod
215
What is the oxygen requirement for Streptobacillus moniliformis?
microaerophilic
216
While Streptobacillus moniliformis causes Streptobacillary Rat Bite Fever, this another organism, _______ ________, which cause Spirillary Rat Bite Fever in Africa & Asia.
Spirillum minus
217
(T/F) Spirillum minus is a short, thick, motile spirochete.
True
218
(T/F) Both Spirillum minus and Streptobacillus moniliformis are in NORMAL rat gastrointestinal flora.
False (normal RESPIRATORY flora)
219
How is Rat Bite Fever transmitted?
rat contact with humans (scratch, handling)
220
In addition to rat contact, Rat Bite Fever (Streptobacillary) can potentially be transmitted via:
contaminated milk
221
(T/F) There has been NO reported human-to-human contact spread of Streptobacillary Rat Bite Fever.
True
222
Rat Bite Fever outbreak in Massachusetts and England in 1983 due to raw milk contamination was termed:
Haverhill Fever
223
In 2013, a child died from Rat Bite Fever after adopting a rat from ________.
Petco
224
Majority of Rat Bite Fever cases in the US occur in (urban/rural) areas.
urban
225
Initially RBF causes non-specific signs including ________ pain.
joint
226
Untreated Rat Bite Fever causes a variety of systemic sequelae and mortality in ___ to ___%.
7-10
227
What are 2 main differences of Spirillary RBF compared to Streptobacillary RBF?
Spirillary is more generalized with NO joint signs
228
(T/F) Streptobacillus moniliformis DOES NOT grow on artificial media.
False (Spirillum minus doesn't)
229
(T/F) Antimicrobials are ineffective at reducing disease severity of RBF.
False (shorten and decrease severity)
230
(T/F) There are serious, possible fatal complications if Streptobacillary RBF is NOT treated.
True
231
Brucella is a gram (positive/negative) (obligate/facultative) intracellular bacteria.
negative
facultative
232
Brucella causes ________, ________, or ________ Fever in humans.
Undulant, Malta, Gibraltar
233
Brucella is primarily known for causing ________ in cattle.
abortion
234
Human Brucellosis causes what kind of signs for <8 weeks?
flu-like
235
After <1 year of Brucellosis, humans develop undulant fever, arthritis, and __________.
orchiepidimyitis
236
3 ways to diagnose Brucellosis in humans.
1. culture
2. agglutination titer (4x increase)
3. immunofluorescence
237
3 route of Brucella transmission in humans.
1. ingestion (unpasteurized milk/dairy)
2. inhalation (aerosols)
3. wound contamination
238
Which route of transmission for Brucella in humans is most common?
ingestion
239
Which route of Human Brucellosis transmission has bioterrorism potential?
inhalation
240
(T/F) Brucellosis is nearly eradicated in the US.
True
241
The majority of US cases of Brucellosis are caused by Brucella __________, associated with imported _______.
melitensis
cheese
242
Raw milk in Texas in 2017 and raw milk at a Biodiversity Farm in PA in 2019 were both associated with Brucella outbreaks related to:
vaccine strain (RB51)
243
________ vaccine for brucella was licensed in 2003.
RB51
244
RB51 vaccine for Brucellosis (does/does not) induce a measurable antibody response.
does not (NO O-antigens)
245
Mycobacterium tuberculosis infects ONLY _______ animals.
captive
246
Which 3 captive species can transmit Mycobacterium tuberculosis to humans?
1. non-human primates
2. Asian elephants
3. Psittacine birds
246
Match the Mycobacterium tuberculosis antibiotic treatment its mechanism:
1. inhibits lipid & nucleic acid synthesis
2. inhibits RNA synthesis (x2)
3. inhibits transfer of mycolic acids into cell wall
4. may inhibit fatty acid synthesis
1. Isoniazid
2. Rifampin, Rifapentine
3. Ethambutol
4. Pyrazinamide
247
Multidrug Resistant TB is resistant to ________ and ________.
isoniazid
rifampin
248
Extensively Drug-Resistant TB is resistant to ________, in addition to rifampin and isoniazid (at least 1/3 of injectable second-line anti-TB drugs).
fluoroquinolone
249
How is Mycobacterium tuberculosis transmitted to humans?
pet transfer
250
Bison, black bears, bobcats, coyotes, racoons, red foxes, and deer are all _________ hosts of Mycobacterium bovis.
maintenance
251
Recent Mycobacterium bovis outbreaks in the US have been associated with _______ and _______.
deer hunters
tattoos
252
Worldwide cases of Mycobacterium bovis continue to rise in developing countries due to what source?
milk
253
What clinical sign is seen with Mycobacterium bovis?
caseous necrosis (lymph nodes)
254
There are several syndromes caused by Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) in humans caused by Mycobacterium _________ or __________.
avium
intracellulare
255
Mycobacterium avium complex causes _________ infections that are more mild than tuberculosis and disseminated infections associated with _______.
pulmonary
HIV
256
Which species of Mycobacterium prefers colder temperatures and does not invade well into tissues?
Mycobacterium marinum
257
M. marinum causes what disease?
Swimming Pool Granuloma
258
(T/F) Mycobacterium marinum usually resolves spontaneously but is worse for immunocompromised individuals.
True
259
Mycobacterium marinum has developed some antibiotic resistance to __________ and ________.
isoniazid
pyrazinamide
260
Which pathogen causes Leprosy?
Mycobacterium leprae
261
Leprosy is also known as:
Hansen's Disease
262
Leprosy is a chronic infection of ________ and _________.
skin & peripheral nerves
263
(T/F) Leprosy is highly contagious.
False (contagious but not high)
264
How is Mycobacterium leprae transmitted?
nasal secretions
265
(T/F) Mycobacterium leprae cannot be cultured.
True
266
(T/F) Mycobacterium leprae is common worldwide, even in the US.
False (not in US)
267
In the US, what animal serves as a host for Mycobacterium leprae?
nine-banded armadillo
268
Which Mycobacterium species has primary multidrug-resistance and therefore needs long-term treatment with multiple antibiotics?
Mycobacterium leprae
269
In addition to armadillos in the US, what new reservoir for Mycobacterium leprae is appearing in Ireland and Britain?
Eurasian Red Squirrels
270
(T/F) Non-human primates can become infected with a variety of Mycobacterium species.
True
271
The MOST susceptible non-human primate to Mycobacterium are (young/old) ___________, also known as the "old world monkey".
young macaques
272
The LEAST susceptible non-human primates to Mycobacterium infection are the "new world monkeys" such as ________ or ________.
squirrel monkey
owl monkey
273
Influenza virus is part of ___________ family.
Orthomyxoviridae
274
List the 4 main types of Influenza Virus.
Type A
Type B
Type C
Type D
275
Match which influenza virus types infect which species:
1. humans & swine (x2)
2. cattle & swine
3. multiple species
Type B & C: humans + swine
Type D: cattle + swine
Type A: multiple species
276
Which influenza type is the most virulent?
Type A
277
Birds and mammals can be infected by Influenza A viruses. ________ and _______ are reservoirs.
waterfowl
shorebirds
278
Influenza B viruses are (more/less) severe than A.
less
279
Influenza B viruses mostly infect:
humans
280
Which influenza virus results in seasonal epidemics and pandemics in humans?
Influenza A
281
Which influenza virus causes mild to no symptoms in humans and swine, often infants and younger kids?
Influenza C
282
Most humans have _______ for influenza C virus at 15 years old.
antibodies
283
Influenza C & D viruses all have a ____ gene segmented genome but differ by what protein?
7
hemagglutinin-esterase fusion protein
284
(T/F) Influenza D viruses infect cattle, swine, and humans.
False (NOT known to cause disease in humans)
285
Which influenza virus type contributes to respiratory disease complex?
Influenza D
286
Which 2 surface antigens and proteins make influenza viruses unique?
hemagglutinin (HA)
neuraminidase (NA)
287
What is the function of Hemagglutinin in influenza viruses?
attachment sites, penetration of host cells
288
What is the function of Neuraminidase?
remove neuraminic acid from mucin for viral release from cells
289
Match the influenza protein to its function:
1. viral genome assembly
2. replication (x3)
3. assembly
4. penetration
5. RNA transport, replication
1. NS2 (NEP)
2. PB1, PB2, PA
3. M1
4. M2
5. NP (nucleocapsid)
290
The human seasonal flu vaccine uses 2 strains of Type _____ and 1 or 2 strains of Type ____.
A
B
291
Why are influenza outbreaks and pandemics difficult to predict?
affect multiple amino acids in multiple genes
292
Match the influenza evolutionary mechanism to its description:
1. large mutations of virus surface proteins lead to emergence of new subtypes
2. gradual alteration of surface proteins
1. antigenic shift
2. antigenic drift
293
Antigenic ________ causes pandemics of Type A influenza virus where there is little to no immunity yet.
shift
294
Type A influenza pandemics cause a higher mortality in (old/young) adults.
young
295
List 3 specific influenza pandemics that occurred within the last decade due to antigenic shift.
1. Asian Flu
2. Hong Kong Flu
3. Swine Flu
296
Antigenic drift causes ________ mutations in HA & NA genes, which is why vaccines are updated yearly.
point
297
______ classifies pandemic strains of influenza in phases 1-6.
WHO (world health organization)
298
An influenza virus classifies as WHO Status Phase ___ if there is human-to-human spread in 2+ countries and there is a strong signal that pandemic is imminent.
5
299
WHO Status Phase ___ is the pandemic phase where outbreaks have occurred in at least 1 more country than Phase 5 and a global pandemic is occurring.
6
300
Which two vaccine types are available for influenza virus?
1. inactivated vaccine (killed)
2. quadrivalent vaccines
301
In Avian Influenza, _________ determines disease severity in poultry.
pathogenicity
302
Low pathogenic (LPAI) Avian Influenza includes _____ or _____ subtypes.
H1 or H16
303
Highly Pathogenic Avian Influenza (HPAI) includes some ____ or ____ subtypes.
H5 or H7
304
(T/F) LPAI H5 or H7 subtypes can mutate to HPAI.
True
305
(T/F) The human flu vaccine also protects against Avian Influenza.
False
306
What animals are asymptomatic carriers of HPAI (Highly Pathogenic Avian Influenza)?
waterfowl
307
Waterfowl can transmit HPAI to ______ and ______ which develop disease.
chickens & turkeys
308
In the US in 2022-2023, there was an Avian Influenza outbreak detected in _______.
mammals (fox, skunk, raccoon)
309
Human cases of Avian Influenza are associated with _______ farms and live bird markets.
poultry
310
(T/F) Avian Influenza is rarely transmitted from human to human.
True
311
Possible subtypes of Avian Influenza which infect humans include ________ and ________.
H5N1
H7N9
312
Match the Avian Influenza subtype which can infect to humans to its description:
1. high viral loads, intense inflammation, high mortality, LOW poultry-to-human or human-to-human transmission
2. 615 Chinese deaths, NO evidence of human-human transmission, closure of live poultry markets and began poultry vaccine campaign
1. H5N1
2. H7N9
313
(T/F) Foot and Mouth Disease is a virus which causes blister-like eruptions in the mouth and a skin rash in infants & children.
FALSE (Hand, Foot, and Mouth Disease)
314
_________ is a Coxsackievirus, an enterovirus in the Picornaviridae family.
Hand, Foot, and Mouth Disease
315
Foot & Mouth Disease is in the ___________ family, more specifically, an _________.
Picornaviridae
Aphthovirus
316
There are _____ serotypes of Foot & Mouth Disease.
7
317
(T/F) Antibodies of FMD between serotypes are NOT cross-protective.
True
318
Which animals are affected by Foot & Mouth Disease?
cloven-hoofed animals
319
FMD is (resistant/sensitive) to the environment.
resistant
320
FMD has a (low/high) infectious dose.
low
321
FMD survives in ________, _______, and _______.
milk
bone marrow
lymph nodes
322
FMD survives longer in the environment when protected by:
mucous/feces
323
FMD can be spread great distances by:
wind
324
Sheep and goats are __________ hosts of FMD and carry the virus in their pharyngeal tissues for 4-6 months.
maintenance
325
(T/F) Pigs are carriers for FMD.
False
326
Pigs are __________ of FMD.
amplifiers
327
Cattle are ________ of FMD, where the virus is present in pharyngeal tissues for 6-24 months.
indicators
328
Give 2 routes of transmission of FMD.
1. direct contact (ingestion, fomites, artificial insemination)
2. respiratory
329
The lase US case of FMD was in what year?
1929
330
What are 2 impacts of FMD (not health related)?
1. economic
2. tourism
331
332
FMD disease in animals has _____% morbidity and 1-5% mortality in (young/adults) or 20% in (young/adults).
100%
adults
young
333
(T/F) Humans rarely develop disease due to FMD or only develope mild signs.
True
334
How do humans get infected with FMD?
ingestion of unprocessed milk/dairy
335
Foot & Mouth Disease is a zoonosis OR _______ zoonosis.
reverse
336
FMD can be a reverse zoonosis via _________ tract or contaminated __________.
respiratory
clothing
337
_______ _______ has strict regulations on import of livestock from countries affected with FMD and biosecurity regulations for livestock facilities.
USDA APHIS
338
What 2 clinical signs are seen in animals with FMD?
1. fever
2. vesicles --> erosions (feet, mouth, nares, teats)
339
(T/F) FMD can cause abortion and death in young animals.
True
340
Most animals recover from FMD within ________ without secondary infections.
2 weeks
341
List 3 lesions of cattle with FMD.
1. oral vesicles
2. decreased milk
3. lameness
342
In swine with FMD, oral vesicles are less common, but instead they have lesions on their ______ and vesicles on the _______.
hoof
snout
343
_______ & _______ have mild or asymptomatic signs from FMD.
sheep & goats
344
(T/F) Despite being asymptomatic or having mild signs from FMD, sheep & goats shed the virus but it is difficult to diagnose and prevent the disease in them.
True
345
(T/F) You cannot clinically differentiate between FMD and other vesicular diseases.
True
346
If you suspect FMD, you need to contact the state __________ and __________.
veterinarian
quarantine
347
(T/F) There is NO treatment or vaccination for FMD.
False (NO treatment, but vaccination helps control outbreak)
348
(T/F) There is NO need to vaccinate for FMD in the US since it is eradicated.
True
349
