Exam 3 Flashcards
(324 cards)
1
Q
Rabies is characterized as a fatal, viral ____________.
A
encephalitis
2
Q
Rabies is a (positive/negative) (RNA/DNA) virus.
A
negative RNA
3
Q
Rabies primarily occurs in _______ reservoirs.
A
wildlife
4
Q
Rabies virus is a bigger problem in (developed/underdeveloped) countries.
A
underdeveloped
5
Q
Rabies in underdeveloped countries primarily occurs in ______, while developed countries it occurs in ______.
A
dogs
wildlife
6
Q
Rabies virus is shed in ______.
A
saliva
7
Q
(T/F) There is a wildlife vaccine for rabies.
A
True
8
Q
What kind of Rabies vaccine is available for use in raccoons and coyotes?
A
oral, live recombinant
9
Q
(T/F) The rabies vaccine for wildlife is a successful method to help eliminate rabies outbreaks in the US.
A
True
10
Q
Incubation period for human rabies.
A
1-3 months
11
Q
Rabies virus binds and replicates in _______, entering sensory & motor ______ to the CNS.
A
myocytes
axons
12
Q
A fancy word for onset is:
A
prodrome
13
Q
(T/F) The prodrome of rabies includes fever, chills, and malaise.
A
True
14
Q
In addition to fever, chills, and malaise, Rabies virus onset can cause vague ______, _______, or _______ signs.
A
respiratory
GI
neuro
15
Q
What are the 2 forms of Rabies?
A
- Furious Form
- Paralytic Form
16
Q
80% of Rabies cases are the (furious/paralytic) form.
A
furious
17
Q
Match the signs to the form of rabies:
- weakness, flaccid paralysis, ascending paralysis
- hallucinations, agitation, biting, running, hydrophobia
A
- paralytic form
- furious form
18
Q
List 4 clinical signs of Rabies that occur in both forms.
A
fever
nuchal rigidity
fasciculations
convulsion
19
Q
Eventually Rabies leads to _______ and death.
A
coma
20
Q
The best treatment of Rabies is:
A
vaccination of exposed
21
Q
(T/F) Getting the pre-exposure rabies vaccination eliminates the need for post-exposure prophylaxis after an exposure.
A
False!
22
Q
______ are necessary to get periodically after a pre-exposure rabies vaccination.
A
titers
23
Q
The first step of post-rabies exposure is:
A
immediate cleaning of wound with soap & water
24
Q
If you are NOT previously vaccinated against Rabies, list the 2 steps for post-exposure prophylaxis and appropriate timelines.
A
- human rabies immunoglobulin (day 0)
- vaccine x4 (day 0, 3, 7, 14)
25
What is the protocol for post-exposure prophylaxis if you have been previously vaccinated against rabies?
vaccine x2 (day 0, 3)
26
(T/F) Human Rabies Immunoglobulin is necessary for post-exposure prophylaxis for a previously rabies' vaccinated individual.
False
27
What two things constitute a rabies exposure?
1. infective virus present
2. contaminated material contact open wound or mucosal surface
28
Which 3 tissue types can be infective and exposure constitute a rabies exposure?
1. saliva
2. neural tissue
3. CSF
29
(T/F) Contact with blood, urine, or feces from a Rabies infected individual constitutes as a rabies exposure.
False
30
(T/F) Rabies is non-infectious in dried material.
True
31
List the 2 routes/types of Rabies exposure. Which is rare?
1. bite
2. non-bite (rare)
32
Post-exposure rabies prophylaxis should be considered if an individual is in close proximity to __________ and cannot exclude the possibility of a bite or scratch.
bats
33
Viruses such as Ebola, Marburg, Lassa Fever, and Dengue Fever are all ________ _______ viruses.
Hemorrhagic Fever
34
Hemorrhagic Fever viruses all cause _______ damage.
microvascular
35
Two ways Hemorrhagic Fever viruses are transmitted to humans.
1. infected animals
2. arthropod vectors
36
Incubation for Hemorrhagic Fever viruses.
2-21 days
37
All Hemorrhagic Fever viruses begin as _________ signs and petechiae.
non-specific (fever, myalgias, headache abdominal pain)
38
Hemorrhagic Fever viruses progress to _______, ________ hemorrhage, and multiorgan failure.
shock
mucous membrane
39
Which hemorrhagic fever virus had outbreaks in Germany amid pharmaceutical workers and veterinarians performing autopsies on sick vervet monkeys, and Uganda with cave tourists and miners?
Marburg Virus Disease
40
Which animal is an asymptomatic reservoir host for Marburg Virus Disease?
african fruit bat
41
Which hemorrhagic fever virus is a Filovirus with an enveloped RNA genome?
Ebola Virus Disease
42
What is the reservoir host for Ebola Virus Disease?
bats
43
There are a variety of "Ebola viruses" which infect humans, non-human primates, and pigs. List the 4 viruses which cause human infections.
1. Zaire
2. Sudan
3. Tai Forest
4. Bundibugyo
44
Recent Ebola Virus outbreaks have occurred in ________ with a (low/high) mortality rate.
Africa
high
45
In general, how is Ebola Virus transmitted and in which species?
macaque monkey reproductive organs
46
How can Ebola virus be transmitted in humans?
sexual activity
47
When Ebola virus is transmitted to humans via sexual activity, there is 100% ______ death rate and 80% _______ death rate.
fetal
maternal
48
(T/F) The results of 4 Ebola treatments in the Congo showed promising efficacy for Ebola virus treatment.
False (inconclusive)
49
(T/F) There are NO approved vaccines for Ebola viruses.
True
50
Which hemorrhagic fever virus is an enveloped dsDNA alpha-herpesvirus?
Macacine Herpes Virus (MHV-1)
51
Which species is the natural host for Macacine Herpes Virus 1? Which country is it from?
Macaques (esp. rhesus or cynomolgus)
Asia
52
(T/F) Macaques develop severe infections due to Macacine Herpes Virus 1.
False (mild or asymptomatic)
53
There are high MHV-1 antibody levels in (captive/wild) macaca populations.
captive
54
Likelihood of MHV-1 infection (increases/decreases) with age.
increases
55
(Vertical/horizontal) transmission but not the other occurs with MHV-1 in macaques.
horizontal
56
What are the 2 most common lesions seen in macaques with MHV-1?
1. cold sore-like lesions on lips
2. intranuclear inclusion bodies in vesicle cells
57
List a few routes which transmit MHV-1 to humans.
monkey bites/scratches
direct saliva (pre-existing wound)
cultured cells
needlestick
fluid in eyes
58
It is usually difficult to determine the exact transmission route of MHV-1 in humans because cases usually have regular ________ exposure.
monkey
59
2/3 of MHV-1 incidence has occurred in:
US
60
MHV-1 disease in humans causes (chronic/acute), (mild/fatal) _________.
acute, fatal encephalomyelitis
61
Human infections with MHV-1 have a ______% fatality.
70%
62
Incubation period for MHV-1.
2-30 days
63
Match the clinical signs for humans with MHV-1 by whether they occur initially, intermediately, or late in the disease:
1. pain, pruritis, vesicles/ulcers, local lymphadenopathy
2. persistent headache, altered mental status, focal neuro complaints
3. fever, malaise, nausea, myalgia, headache, numbness
1. initial
2. late
3. intermediate
64
(T/F) Progression of MHV-1 infection in humans can be modified by early therapy.
True
65
MHV-1 causes rare or non-existent ________ infection in humans.
asymptomatic
66
Wound decontamination with MHV-1 is incredibly important as the virus is likely to enter the host cell within _________.
5 minutes
67
Which drugs are used for antiviral therapy with MHV-1 infection?
Valacyclovir
Acyclovir
68
When is antiviral therapy recommended for MHV-1?
high risk source, laceration, deep bite, needlestick
69
When is antiviral therapy for MHV-1 not recommended?
skin intact exposure, non-macaque exposure
70
(T/F) All macaques should be considered MHV-1 positive.
True
71
(T/F) There are currently no federal regulations enforcing safe practices with macaques in the US regarding spread of MHV-1.
False
72
Which disease is a zoonotic, rodent-borne arenavirus?
Lymphocytic Choriomeningitis
73
What type of rodent is the primary host for Lymphocytic Choriomeninigitis?
common house mouse (Mus musculus)
74
____% of mice in the US are carriers for Lymphocytic Choriomeningitis.
5%
75
(T/F) Other rodents such as hamsters and guinea pigs are not natural reservoirs but can become infected with Lymphocytic Choriomeningitis.
True
76
Apart from rodents, what 4 other species are susceptible to Lymphocytic Choriomeningitis?
swine
dogs
non-human primates
humans
77
Lymphocytic Choriomeningitis is often transmitted to humans via (house mice / pet rodents).
house mice (rarely pet rodents!)
78
(T/F) Laboratory rodents are a common source of Lymphocytic Choriomeningitis.
False (but contaminated tumor & cell lines)
79
Rodents shed Lymphocytic Choriomeningitis virus throughout their live via ______, ______, and ______.
saliva, urine, feces
80
Rodents with LCMV are (symptomatic/asymptomatic).
asymptomatic
81
List 3 routes of LCMV transmission to humans.
1. exposure to fresh excreta, saliva, nests
2. directly in broken skin / mucous membranes
3. organ transplant
82
(T/F) Human-to-human transmission of LCMV can occur.
False (except in-utero)
83
List the 3 clinical signs that can occur with human LCMV.
1. aseptic meningitis
2. encephalitis
3. meningoencephalitis
84
(T/F) 70% of humans with LCMV develop severe disease.
False (70% mild or asymptomatic)
85
(T/F) Most patients completely recover from Lymphocytic Choriomeningitis.
True
86
(T/F) Lymphocytic Choriomeningitis is fatal in those that develop clinical signs.
False (<1% mortality)
87
There (is/is not) a vaccination for LCMV.
is not
88
The multimammate rat of the genus Mastomys from West Africa is the reservoir host for what zoonotic disease?
Lassa Fever
89
Majority of Lassa Fever cases are (mild/severe).
mild
90
Incubation for Lassa Fever.
1-3 weeks
91
Lassa Fever can cause a variety of signs such as fever, sore throat, back pain, cough, vomiting, diarrhea, conjunctivitis, facial swelling, and neuro problems. What 3 major complications can occur?
1. deafness
2. maternal mortality
3. spontaneous abortion
92
What disease is caused by a large DNA Orthopoxvirus, mainly in the rainforests in Central and West Africa?
Monkey Pox
93
African _______ and ______ are the most common hosts for Monkey Pox.
rodents & squirrels
94
In the US in 2003, there was an outbreak of human cases of Monkey Pox due to transmission from pet _________.
prairie dogs
95
Monkey Pox in humans causes similar signs as ________, which is often milder.
smallpox
96
Incubation for Monkey Pox.
12 days
97
1-3 days after fever and swollen lymph nodes develop with Monkey Pox infection, _________ develops and goes through several stages before crusting and falling off.
papular rash
98
Fatality rates of Monkey Pox are between 1-10% but is more severe in:
children
99
(T/F) Non-human primates can be infected with Monkey Pox, showing mild to severe signs.
True
100
What is the main mode for Monkey Pox transmission in humans?
sexual activity (with at least one monkeypox lesion on skin or mucosa)
101
Apart from sexual activity, list 4 possible ways Monkey Pox can be transmitted to humans.
1. direct animal contact
2. human-to-human
3. fomites
4. contaminated piercing/tattoo equipment
102
The CDC and FDA still have an order in place which restricts importing ________ to the US to help prevent Monkey Pox.
African rodents
103
"Sheep Pox" is also known as _______ Disease.
Orf
104
List the 2 typical hosts for Orf Disease.
sheep & goats
105
(Young/adult) small ruminants are more commonly infected with Orf Disease.
young
106
Orf Disease is most severe with ________ animals, as they die of starvation.
nursing
107
(T/F) Humans cases of Orf Disease are usually self-limiting.
True
108
Humans with Orf Disease have (solitary/multiple) tender lesion(s) on the fingers, hands, or forearms.
solitary
109
Orf Disease in humans goes through ____ clinical stages of infection, each lasting up to ________.
6
1 week
110
List the 6 clinical stages of infection in human Orf Disease.
1. maculopapular
2. targetoid
3. acute
4. regenerative
5. papillomatous
6. regressive
111
(T/F) Mortality for humans with Orf Disease is low.
False (NO mortality - spontaneous recovery after 3-6 weeks)
112
Orf Disease survives long-term in _______.
scabs
113
Orf Disease is commonly introduced by replacing _______ animals and (direct/indirect) contact with contaminated materials.
breeding
direct
114
(T/F) Humans can transmit Orf Disease to cattle and other humans.
False (neither)
115
The best way to prevent Orf Disease is through animal ________.
vaccination
116
The order Bunyaviruses include which 3 emerging viral diseases?
1. hantavirus
2. west nile virus
3. coronavirus
117
Hantavirus is the only Bunyavirus infecting humans that has _______ as the vector.
rodents
118
List the 2 clinical syndromes that can occur with Hantavirus.
1. Hemorrhagic Fever w Renal Syndrome (HFRS)
2. Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome (HPS)
119
Hemorrhagic Fever with Renal Syndrome caused by Hantavirus is primarily seen in (Europe/US) while Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome is primarily seen in (Europe/US).
Europe
US
120
Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome caused by Hantavirus shows 3 radiograph findings:
1. Bilateral ________ infiltrates
2. Bilateral ________ infiltrates
3. Pleural _________.
interstitial
alveolar
effusion
121
(T/F) Hantavirus causes diffuse viral signs, neutrophils, and debris upon lung histology.
False (MINIMAL signs of these!)
122
List 3 ways to diagnose Hantavirus.
1. serology (IgM, IgG)
2. IHC
3. RT-PCR (reverse transcription)
123
Humans with Hantavirus infection have fever, myalgia, and headache which can develop into _________ and ________ failure.
cardiac
respiratory
124
How is Hantavirus transmitted to humans?
inhalation of aerosolized excreta
125
List the 2 different types of Hantaviruses in North America.
Sin Nombre
Seoul Virus
126
The hantavirus Sin Nombre causes (HPS/HFRS) and Seoul Virus causes (HPS/HRFS).
HPS
HFRS
127
(T/F) Human hantavirus vaccination is an important form of prevention.
False
128
West Nile Virus is primarily transmitted via _________, but can also occur by blood transfusion, organ donation, or breast feeding.
mosquitos
129
Mosquitos are the vector for West Nile Virus but the natural reservoir host is _______.
birds
130
Horses are _______ hosts for West Nile Virus.
dead-end
131
20% of human West Nile cases are (asymptomatic/symptomatic).
symptomatic (80% asymptomatic)
132
Mild signs such as fever, headache, myalgia, arthralgia, and anorexia are common signs of:
West Nile Virus
133
The majority of mortality from WNV is in people () 50 years old.
> 50
134
While there is current investigation for a human WNV vaccine, there is ________ vaccine available.
equine
135
Dermatophytosis is a highly contagious fungal infection of __________ tissue.
keratinized (skin, hair, claws)
136
(T/F) Humans and domestic animals can be affected with Dermatophytosis.
True
137
_________ ________ is usually associated with Dermatophytosis in cats and dogs, and less commonly zoonotic from dogs than cats.
Microsporum canis
138
Give the 2 genera of organisms that can cause zoonotic Dermatophytosis.
Microsporum
Trichophyton
139
Which genus causing Dermatophytosis ONLY causes human disease? What is the human disease called?
Epidermophyton
Tinea
140
Organisms which cause Dermatophytosis can be characterized in 3 ways. Match each term to the definition.
1. soil inhabitations
2. host-adapted to humans
3. most important animal pathogens
1. geophilic
2. anthropophilic
3. zoophilic
141
Microsporum canis is zoophilic, and can be transmitted from domestic _______ to humans.
cats
142
Trichophyton verrucosum is zoophilic and can be transmitted from ______ or _____ to humans.
cattle or lambs
143
The majority of zoonotic ringworm (Dermatophytosis) infections caused by ________ ________ are spread from cats.
Microsporum canis
144
Commonly long-haired _______ cats are asymptomatic carriers, transmitting Dermatophytosis to humans.
persian
145
(T/F) Dermatophytosis can be widespread starting in keratinized tissue and moving throughout the body.
False (inflammation + immunity usually stops from developing further)
146
(T/F) Dermatophytosis is considered a self-limiting disease in healthy adults.
True
147
Dermatophytosis causes a "classic" ringworm appearance with an inflammatory response killing the fungus in the (periphery/center) of the lesion and the living fungus present in the (periphery/center).
center, periphery
148
Humans Dermatophytosis is commonly called:
Tinea
149
What should you always ask if a client brings in an animal with dermatophytosis-like lesions?
ask if anyone else in the house has similar lesions (and refer to doctor)
150
(T/F) All ringworm in humans is zoonotic.
False
151
The most accurate way to diagnose Dermatophytosis is:
fungal culture
152
________ _______ is a screening exam for dogs and cats with Dermatophytosis.
wood's lamp
153
Which fungal zoonosis causes nodular lesions of cutaneous and subcutaneous tissues and nearby lymphatics?
Sporotrichosis
154
(T/F) Sporotrichosis can spread secondarily to articular surfaces, CNS, urogenital, or lungs.
True
155
(T/F) The clinical signs of Sporotrichosis in humans differ based on the route of transmission.
False (all the same)
156
Majority of Sporotrichosis infections are limited to the:
skin
157
_________ is the genus which causes Sporotrichosis.
Spororthrix
158
Which Sporothrix species is the most virulent but not present in North America, therefore not many cases are seen in the US?
S. brasiliensis
159
Cats are very (sensitive/resistant) to Sporotrichosis and have a (high/low) mortality.
sensitive, high
160
Sporotrichosis begins as a small, painful _______ and progresses to __________.
bump
ulceration
161
What is the primary route of transmission for Sporotrichosis?
trauma (thorn/splinter) --> fungal entry
162
(T/F) Zoonotic transmission of Sporotrichosis is possible but less likely.
True
163
List 2 treatment of Sporotrichosis.
Potassium iodide
Itracronazole
164
PrP indicates a prion and stands for ________ ________.
proteinaceous particle
165
What is the shorthand for the normal prion? Abnormal?
Normal: PrPc
Abnormal: PrPsc
166
PrPsc is (more/less) soluble and (more/less) resistant to degradation than the normal prion protein.
less
more
167
What is the function of a normal prion?
cell surface glycoprotein
168
In knock-out mice studies with prion proteins, when the prion protein was "knocked out" of the mice, this determined the prion to be (essential/non-essential) to survival.
non-essential
169
What prion diseases are caused by an abnormal prion protein that creates vacuoles in brain tissue?
Transmissible Spongiform Encephalopathies
170
List 4 parts of the brain that are affected by Transmissible Spongiform Encephalopathies (TSE).
1. cerebral cortex
2. thalamus
3. cerebellum
4. brainstem
171
Match the part of the brain affected by TSE with its clinical signs:
1. insomnia
2. loss of motor control
3. memory loss, visual impairment
4. integrative functions, alertness, consciousness
1. thalamus
2. cerebellum
3. cerebral cortex
4. brainstem
172
Which specific TSE typically affects the cerebral cortex?
Creutzfeld-Jacob Disease
173
Which TSE typically affects the thalamus, called "Laughing Disease"?
Kuru
174
Which TSE typically affects the brainstem?
Mad Cow Disease
175
Which 5 TSE are in humans?
Creutzfeldt Jacob Disease
Variant Creutzfeldt Jacob Disease
Kuru
Fatal Familial Insomnia
Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker Syndrome
176
Which TSE affect cattle?
Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy
177
Which TSE is in sheep?
Scrapie
178
Which TSE is in deer & elk?
Chronic Wasting Disease
179
Which TSE is in mink?
Transmissible Mink Encephalopathy
180
TSE has a (short/long) incubation period and a (short/long) pre-clinical period.
long
long
181
(T/F) TSE is always fatal.
True
182
Which 4 disinfectants reduce but DO NOT eliminate TSE?
1. phenol
2. NaOH
3. 50% bleach
4. autoclaving
183
________ is an ineffective TSE disinfectant.
formalin
184
You cannot kill TSE, only _________ it.
inactivate
185
Abnormal prions can be detected via assay. They have the SAME amino acid sequence but DIFFERENT ________ structure.
tertiary
186
In addition to detecting the tertiary structure, abnormal prions can be detected by looking at ________ sensitivity.
protease
187
PrPc is (sensitive/resistant) to proteinase K digestion and PrPsc is (sensitive/resistant) to proteinase K.
sensitive
resistant
188
Protease sensitivity for abnormal prions is used as a _________ tool and a negative reaction could still be abnormal.
surveillance
189
Abnormal prions cause other prions to misfold. This process as each abnormal prion allows doubling of misfolded prions is called:
pathological chaperone
190
There are 3 ways that abnormal prions arise:
1. horizontal transmission
2. inherited form
3. spontaneous
191
Abnormal prions can be horizontally transmitted via ________.
ingestion
192
Abnormal prions are inherited via ________ transmission from parent to offspring.
vertical
193
Sheep with both Scrapie and _________ can transmit prions via milk.
mastitis
194
__________ causes mastitis in sheep and enhances transmission of prions.
Lentivirus
195
"Mad Cow Disease" is also known as:
Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy
196
BSE likely originated from what other TSE?
Scrapie (sheep)
197
________ has the most stringent BSE control programs, excluding all animals over 30 months of age from the human food supply and animal feed.
UK
198
Match the OIE Risk Categories for BSE by its description:
1. Proof of effective assessment & surveillance. No BSE cases within 11 years.
2. Indigenous BSE cases. Need reporting program & feed ban.
3. Need to identify, track, and prevent known BSE-infected animals from entering food and for export.
4. Cannot determine requirements of another category.
1. negligible BSE risk
2. controlled BSE risk
3. both negligible + controlled risk
4. undetermined BSE risk
199
Which OIE Risk Category is the US?
controlled BSE risk
200
In 2009, _______ established a BSE-related feed ban which prohibits use of high-risk cattle tissues in ALL animal feed.
FDA
201
Which TSE is a rare and fatal form, likely caused by a UK BSE cattle oubtreak?
vCJD (variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease)
202
Regarding differences between vCJD and CJD...
vCJD affects (younger/older) patients and has a (shorter/longer) duration than CJD.
younger
longer
203
vCJD is commonly located where in the cerebral cortex?
florid prion protein plaques
204
Abnormal prions due to vCJD can be detected in __________ tissues.
lymphoid
205
There has been evidence of CJD found in what tissue of diseased patients?
eyes
206
Instruments used for necropsy regarding CJD and patient eyes (are/are not) decontaminated via autoclave.
ARE NOT!!!
207
How are misfolded prions from vCJD detected?
RT-QuIC (real-time quaking-induced protein conversion)
208
(T/F) There is currently strong evidence to support the spread of Chronic Wasting Disease to humans.
False
209
List the current regulation in place regarding Chronic Wasting Disease in MO.
MO Mandatory CWD Sampling
210
(T/F) A study found that macaque monkeys DID NOT become infected with exposure to CWD, but squirrel monkeys were susceptible.
True
211
A study showed ______ in length treatment with ____% diluted bleach is effective to inactivate CWD seeding in steel and brain homogenates, but NOT in solid tissues.
5 minutes
40%
212
The most common infections acquired by immunocompromised persons from pets are ________ infections, especially caused by _______ and _______ species.
enteric
Salmonella
Campylobacter
213
Immunocompromised people should avoid adopting a (young/old) pet, especially those with ________.
young
diarrhea
214
Pet birds pose a (low/high) risk to immunocompromised people.
low
215
(T/F) Humans with HIV should avoid pet birds due to infections with Cryptococcus and Mycobacterium.
False
216
Which is more likely to spread Salmonella & Campylobacter to humans: wild birds or pet birds?
wild birds
217
(T/F) Most cases of cerebral toxoplasmosis occurs due to acute infections transmitted by pet cats compared to a previously latent infection.
False (more commonly a latent infection, less commonly acute)
218
What is the best way to prevent transmission of toxoplasmosis from cats?
litter box hygiene
219
(T/F) Direct contact with cats can transmit toxoplasmosis to immunocompromised people.
False (unlikely)
220
Cats only harbor _______ _______ for a limited period of time but can still cause bacillary angiomatosis in people.
Bartonella henselae
221
________ control is important in reducing the spread of Bartonella henselae from cats to immunocompromised people.
flea
222
(Dogs/cats) are more likely to transmit enteric diseases such as Salmonella and Campylobacter to immunocompromised people due to higher shedding rates.
dogs
223
(T/F) Bordetella bronchiseptica infections have been reported in immunocompromised people from dogs.
True
224
Immunocompromised people should NOT own ________ because of the high rates of being carriers and shedding Salmonella.
reptiles
225
What organism has been transmitted to immunocompromised people via aquarium pet fish?
Mycobacterium marinum
226
Immunocompromised people should avoid contact with young ________ since they can act as a reservoir for Cryptosporidium spp.
farm animals
227
Swine contact should be avoided with immunocompromised people since they are a known source of ___________ __________.
Bordetella bronchiseptica
228
(T/F) Immunocompromised people with exposure to horses have an increased risk of contracting Rhodococcus equi infections.
False
229
List the 4 principal zoonotic concerns for pregnant clients.
1. toxoplasmosis
2. listeriosis
3. LCMV
4. brucella spp.
230
To prevent LCMV, pregnant clients should avoid exposure to:
mice
231
What is one of the most common routes diseases are transmitted from animals to people in public settings?
direct physical contact with animal
232
________ bacteria and parasites pose the highest risk for human disease from animals in public settings.
enteric
233
Many enteric diseases contracted from public settings have a (low/high) infectious dose.
low
234
In 2014, Minnesota officials traced a petting zoo to human infections with:
E. coli 0157:H7
235
(T/F) Removing ill animals is necessary but not sufficient to protect animal and human health in public settings.
True
236
Salmonellosis outbreaks in MN & MA have occurred due to dissection of ______ ______.
owl pellets
237
Toxoplasma gondii is a(n) (facultative/obligate) intracellular parasite.
obligate
237
Definitive host for Toxoplasmosis.
felids
238
List 3 ways felids can become infected with Toxoplasma gondii.
1. congenital (vertical)
2. ingest sporulated oocysts (feces)
3. ingest tissue cysts (intermediate host)
239
Fish, amphibians, reptiles, birds, and mammals can all act as ________ hosts for Toxoplasmosis.
intermediate
240
(T/F) Humans can become infected with Toxoplasmosis from oocysts in fresh feces from poorly sanitized litter boxes.
False (fresh feces NOT infective)
241
Toxoplasma gondii oocysts in feces take how long to sporulate?
1-5 days
242
Toxoplasma gondii is most commonly transmitted to humans via contaminated _______ or _______.
soil
water
243
(T/F) Cats themselves are rarely sources of infection for human toxoplasmosis.
True
244
(T/F) Humans infected with Toxoplasma gondii postnatally are usually asymptomatic.
True
245
Congenital Toxoplasmosis is (more/less) severe than acquired.
more
246
List a few clinical signs from Congenital Toxoplasmosis.
ocular infection / blindness
hepatosplenomegaly
hydrocephalus
jaundice
cerebral palsy
seizures
miscarriage
247
Toxoplasmosis can be prevented in humans by cleaning the litter box daily and by not feeding cats __________.
undercooked meats
248
(T/F) Microwaving infected meat will kill Toxoplasma gondii cysts.
False (doesn't penetrate evenly)
249
One way to avoid Toxoplasmosis is to NOT adopt or handle stray cats while ________.
pregnant
250
Leishmaniasis is transmitted via:
sand flies
251
List 2 forms of Leishmaniasis.
1. cutaneous
2. visceral
252
What clinical sign is seen in humans with Visceral Leishmaniasis?
splenomegaly
253
In the US such as TX & OK, there are usually (cutaneous/visceral) cases of Leishmaniasis.
cutaneous
254
Canine Leishmaniasis infection is caused by Leishmania _________.
infantum
255
(T/F) Dogs have severe clinical signs due to Leishmania infantum infection.
True
256
The primarily route for transmission of Canine Leishmaniasis is (vertical/horizontal).
vertical
257
(T/F) Canine Leishmaniasis is transmitted by sand flies in the US.
False
258
Canine Leishmaniasis has been reported in ________ in the US.
foxhounds
259
Chaga's Disease is caused by ________ _______.
Trypanosoma cruzi
260
How is Chaga's Disease transmitted?
kissing bugs (feces in bite)
261
List 3 animal reservoirs for Chaga's Disease.
dogs, cats, rodents
262
In addition to flu-like signs, hepatosplenomegaly, and swollen lymph nodes, two characteristic signs are seen in humans with Chaga's Disease:
Chagoma
Romanas sign
263
________ is the swelling of the eyelid that occurs with Human Leishmaniasis.
Romanas sign
264
________ is a local swelling where Trypanosoma cruzi enters the human body.
chagoma
265
If left untreated, Chaga's Disease can progress to enlarged _______, ______, or ______.
heart, colon, esophagus
266
In warmer climates, _________ larvae from the soil with contaminated feces can cause a "creeping eruption" or Cutaneous Larva Migrans in humans.
hookworm
267
List 3 hookworm species which can cause Cutaneous Larva Migrans in humans.
1. Ancyclostoma caninum
2. Ancyclostoma braziliense
3. Uncinaria stenocephala
268
(Children/adults) are most greatly affected by Cutaneous Larval Migrans.
children
269
(T/F) Cutaneous Larval Migrans in humans due to hookworm larvae is usually self-limiting.
True
270
(T/F) Cutaneous Larval Migrans can progress to Atypical human hookworm infections.
False (different types of infections!)
271
What rare, atypical infection can occur with hookworms in humans?
Human Eosinophilic Enterocolitis
272
List the 3 parasites that can cause Visceral and/or Ocular Larval Migrans in humans.
1. Toxocara canis
2. Toxocara cati
3. Baylisascaris procyonis
273
Roundworms which cause Visceral Larval Migrans (often/rarely) cause death in humans.
rarely
274
Term for a white mass in the pupillary region which occurs in Ocular Larval Migrans in humans.
leukocoria
275
Visceral & Ocular Larval Migrans is associated with what other human disorder that may cause infection?
pica
276
Baylisascaris ________ is the raccoon roundworm.
procyonis
277
Humans are a(n) _________ host for Baylisascaris.
accidental
278
_________ are asymptomatic or subclinical when infected with Baylisascaris.
raccoons
279
Young children playing in dirt can ingest embryonated Baylisascaris eggs from infected raccoon feces. The larvae then penetrate the GI wall and can migrate several places, causing ________, _______, or ________ Larva Migrans.
visceral
ocular
cerebrospinal
280
(T/F) Baylisascaris infection in humans is likely underdiagnosed.
True
281
(Toxocara/Baylisascaris) infections in humans are more severe.
Baylisascaris
282
________ ________ is the most common tapeworm of dogs & cats in the US.
Dipylidium caninum
283
Humans with Dipylidium caninum infection serve as a(n) __________ host.
definitive!!! (rather than intermediate or dead-end)
284
Intermediate host for Dipylidium caninum.
flea
285
Dipylidium caninum can be diagnosed by seeing ________ in feces or proglottids around the perineum.
egg packets
286
Fill-in the blanks for the life-cycle of Dipylidium caninum:
A flea ingests eggs --> ________ develops --> penetrates intestinal wall --> becomes _______ which is infective to definitive hosts.
oncosphere
cysticercoid
287
Echinococcus causes _________ Disease.
Hydatid
288
Echinococcus granulosum uses _______ as their definitive hosts and most mammals as intermediate hosts.
canids
289
Humans serve as ________ hosts for Echinococcus granulosum.
intermediate
290
(T/F) Echinococcus granulosum eggs are immediately infectious after becomes hydatid cysts or bladder worms.
True
291
Echinococcus multilocularis uses _________ as definitive host and _________ as intermediate hosts.
foxes
rodents
292
There are 2 biotypes of Hydatid Disease in North America.
__________ form is northern and seen in wolves, bison, and cervids.
__________ form is southern European and seen in domestic ungulates and dogs.
Sylvatic
Pastoral / Domestic
293
Hydatid Disease in humans is mostly seen in (rural/urban) areas.
rural
294
Which 2 locations are hydatid cysts in humans primarily located?
liver
lungs
295
Hydatid cysts can appear as slow-growing tumors. However, what diagnostic finding would indicate this over a neoplastic disease?
eosinophilia
296
Hydatid Disease can be disinfected via (chemicals/heat).
heat (NOT chemicals)
297
Hymenolepiasis is caused by two ________.
cestodes
298
Hymenolepsis _______ is known as the dwarf tapeworm.
nana
299
Hymenolepsis _________ is known as the rat tapeworm.
diminuta
300
Which species of Hymenolepsis has a direct AND indirect life cycle?
H. nana
301
For Hymenolepiasis:
Definitive host?
Intermediate host?
DH: rodents
IH: cockroach, beetle, flea
302
(T/F) H. nana eggs are immediately infective in fresh stool.
True
303
(T/F) Most humans with Hymenolepiasis are asymptomatic.
True
304
Which parasite is known as a canine and feline roundworm and thought to be an EMERGING disease in the US?
Onchocera lupi
305
For Onchocerciasis:
Definitive host?
Vector?
DH: dogs
Vector: blackflies
306
Onchocerca _________ causes River Blindness in tropical climates and not currently seen in the US.
volvulus
307
Reverse zoonoses are from _______ to _______.
human to animal
308
Which 2 animal species are particularly susceptible to Reverse Zoonoses?
swine
ferrets
309
White Pox Disease in _______ _______ is an example of reverse zoonoses.
coral reefs
310
List the 3 main diseases discussed which can be considered Reverse Zoonoses.
1. influenza
2. measles
3. tuberculosis
311
Measles is a morbillivirus which commonly affects _________, usually from human contact via respiratory droplets.
nonhuman primates
312
Measles in humans causes a viremia which leads to _________ immunity which causes a ________ to develop due to hypersensitivity reaction.
T cell
rash
313
List 3 complications that Measles in humans can progress to.
1. pneumonia
2. encephalitis
3. death
314
Which group of animals can develop a skin rash or respiratory, GI, or neurologic signs due to Measles contracted from human transmission?
non-human primates
315
Recent Measles cases in the US are likely due to __________ people and those that travel to countries with outbreaks.
unvaccinated
316
Which species is highly susceptible to reverse zoonoses Tubcerculosis infection?
elephants
317
Tuberculosis is more common in (captive/wild) elephants.
captive
318
(T/F) Mycobacterium tuberculosis is often the cause of death in elephants with the disease.
False (incidental)
319
________ Disease in humans is potentially associated with Mycobacterium avium subsp. paratuberculosis.
Crohn's
320
Crohn's Disease is a chronic inflammatory __________ disease.
bowel
321
(T/F) No connection between M. avium subsp. paratuberculosis and Johne's Disease has been established.
True
322
Crohn's Disease is characterized by a thickened small intestine due to __________ infiltrate.
macrophage
323
There are 5 presentations of Crohn's Disease based on the location and clinical signs. List them.
1. ileocolitis
2. ileitis
3. gastroduodenal
4. jejunoileitis
5. granulomatous colitis
