Exam 1 Flashcards

(391 cards)

1
Q

what is vet tech?

A

the science and art of providing professional support service to professionals

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2
Q

AVMA accredited programs that educate vet techs are usually called _________

A

vet tech programs

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3
Q

when did vets hire and train employees?

A

1900’s

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4
Q

in what decade did colleges develop academic programs for vet techs?

A

1960’s

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5
Q

when and where was the first vet tech program?

A

Delhi, NY- 1961

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6
Q

vet techs are either ___,____, or ________ depending on the state.

A

certified, registered, or licensed

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7
Q

Ohio, vet techs are registered with the _____

A

OVMLB

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8
Q

vet techs must renew registration every _____

A

2 years

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9
Q

graduates must take the ______ to be licensed in the state of Ohio

A

VTNE

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10
Q

a doctor of veterinary medicine ; a graduate of a 4-year, AVMA Accredited program

A

vet

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11
Q

A graduate of an AVMA accredited program in veterinary technology; Must pass VTNE

A

vet technician

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12
Q

A graduate of a 4- year AVMA accredited program who holds a baccalaureate degree from veterinary technician study

A

vet technologist

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13
Q

person with training, knowledge, skills at the level of a clinical aide, but less than that required for a veterinary technician

A

vet aide/assistant

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14
Q

technicians responsibilities

A

anesthesia, clinical lab/pathology,dental care, hospitalized patients, surgery, radiology,patient services, office and hospital management, bio-medical research

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15
Q

vet techs cannot:

A

diagnose conditions, prescribe medication, perform surgery

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16
Q

Law in each state prescribing which persons may practice veterinary medicine and surgery in the state, and under which conditions

A

Veterinary Practice Act

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17
Q

Defines the practice of veterinary medicine, makes it illegal to practice without a license, states conditions under which a license can be revoked and penalties for violating the act

A

Veterinary Practice Act

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18
Q

_________ must be on the premises or reachable by telephone communication during and for a reasonable time after any veterinary procedure

A

a vet

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19
Q

Federal Agency; Existed only since the mid-1980’s; Concerned with hazards in the workplace

A

OSHA

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20
Q

diseases that are transmissible from animals to people

A

Zoonotic

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21
Q

Fatal viral disease that can affect any warm blooded animal, including people; Spread by contact with an infected animal’s saliva via bite wound or residue

A

rabies

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22
Q

Exposure to Pasteurella, E.coli, and Pseudomona; Commonly transferred by direct contact with the animal or its excretions; especially if you have cuts or open sores

A

Bacterial Infections

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23
Q

Ringworm; Superficial skin infection caused by the fungus Microsporum canis; Easily transmitted from animals to humans

A

Fungal infections

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24
Q

Roundworms and Hookworms can infect humans; Hookworms cause cutaneous larva migrans; affects children who play in areas where pets defecate.

A

Parasitism

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25
Vials containing vaccines and bacterins, usually not hazardous unless agent can infect humans
Biologics
26
________ has been linked to genetic, skin, glandular and other disorders
radiation
27
Long-term exposure to __________ is linked to congenital abnormalities in children, spontaneous abortion, liver and kidney damage
waste anesthetic gas
28
Detailed information about each chemical product
Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
29
Every chemical bottle is identified with a label containing:
Directions on use, Warnings, Ingredients
30
word part found at the beginning of a word
prefix
31
word part that gives the essential meaning of the word
root
32
word part found at the end of a word
suffix
33
a single vowel, usually an “o,” that is added to the end of a root to make the word easier to pronounce
Combining vowel
34
the combination of the root and the combining vowel
Combining form
35
nas/o
nose
36
rhin/o
nose
37
ren/o
kidney
38
nephr/o
kidney
39
oste/o
bone
40
a-,an-
without or no
41
ab-
away from
42
ad-
toward
43
anti-
against
44
dys-
difficult, painful, bad
45
ecto-
outside of
46
endo-
within, inside
47
epi-
upper, above, upon
48
eu-
good, easy, normal
49
ex-, exo-
out of, outside, or away from
50
extra-
outside of or beyond
51
hyper-
excessive, above, beyond
52
hypo-
deficient, decreased, below
53
infra-
below, beneath
54
inter-
between
55
intra-
within
56
meta-
change, after, beyond
57
oligo-
scant or little
58
pan-
all, entire
59
per-
throughout
60
peri-
around
61
poly-
many, excessive
62
post-
after, behind
63
pre-
before
64
sub-
below, under
65
super-, supra-
above, beyond, excessive
66
trans-
across, through
67
ultra-
beyond, excess, above
68
-ac
pertaining to
69
-al
pertaining to
70
-an
pertaining to
71
-ar
pertaining to
72
-eal
pertaining to
73
-ic
pertaining to
74
-ine
pertaining to
75
-ous
pertaining to
76
-tic
pertaining to
77
-algia
pain
78
-centesis
surgical puncture to remove fluid or gas
79
-dynia
pain
80
-ectomy
surgical removal
81
-emia
blood condition
82
-gram
record of
83
-graph
instrument that records
84
-graphy
procedure that records
85
-itis
inflammation
86
-lysis
seperation or breakdown
87
-malacia
abnormal softening
88
-megaly
enlargement
89
-osis
abnormal condition
90
-pathy
disease or condition
91
-penia
deficiency or lack of
92
-pexy
suture to stabilize; fixation
93
-plasty
surgical repair
94
-rrhage
bursting forth
95
-rrhaphy
to suture in place
96
-rrhea
flow, discharge
97
-rrhexis
rupture
98
-scope
instrument to examine
99
-scopy
Procedure to visually examine
100
-therapy
treatment
101
-tomy
cutting into
102
-um
part of
103
toward midline
medial
104
away from midline
lateral
105
toward the head
cranial
106
toward the tail
caudal
107
toward theabdomen
ventral
108
toward the back
dorsal
109
within the head and toward the muzzle
rostral
110
pertaining to the head
cephalic
111
nearest the midline or closer to the body
proximal
112
farthest from midline or from the body
distal
113
caudal surface of front paw
palmar
114
caudal surface of rear paw
plantar
115
front of the body
anterior
116
rear of the body
posterior
117
above, toward the head
superior
118
below, or toward the tail
inferior
119
near the surface
duperficial
120
below the surface
deep
121
divides the body into equal right and left halves
Midsagittal (Medial) plane
122
divides the body into right and left unequal parts
Sagittal plane
123
divides the body into dorsal (back) and ventral (belly) parts
Dorsal plane
124
divides the body into cranial and caudal parts
Transverse plane
125
study of body structure
anatomy
126
study of body function
physiology
127
study of the nature, causes, and development of abnormal conditions
pathology
128
study of disease
etiology
129
the arrangement of teeth
dental arcade
130
faces the tongue
Lingual surface
131
faces the cheek
Buccal surface
132
facing the lips
Labial surface
133
contains the brain in the skull
Cranial cavity
134
contains the spinal cord within the spinal column
Spinal cavity
135
contains the heart and lungs
Thoracic cavity/chest cavity
136
contains the reproductive and some excretory organs
Pelvic cavity
137
contains the major organs of digestion ; also known as the “peritoneal cavity”
Abdominal cavity
138
lying on the back
Dorsal recumbency
139
lying on the abdomen
Ventral recumbency
140
lying on the left side
Left lateral recumbency
141
lying on the right side
Right lateral recumbency
142
the basic structural units of the body
cells
143
the study of cells
Cytology
144
any disease or condition caused by defective genes
Genetic disorder
145
denotes something that is present at birth
Congenital
146
a deviation from what is regarded as normal
Anomaly
147
a group of specialized cells that join together to perform a certain function
tissue
148
the study of tissues
Histology
149
covers internal and external body surfaces
Epithelial
150
holds organs in place and binds body parts together
connective
151
ability to contract and relax
Muscle
152
react to stimuli and conduct electrical impulses
Nervous
153
-plasia
describes formation, development, and growth of tissue and cell numbers
154
-trophy
describes formation, development, and increased size of tissue and cells
155
aplasia
no development of an organ, tissue, or cell
156
Hypoplasia
less than normal development of an organ , tissue, or cell
157
Hyperplasia
increase in the number of normal cells
158
Dysplasia
abnormal growth or development of an organ, tissue, or cell
159
Anaplasia
change in the structure of cells
160
Neoplasia
any abnormal growth of tissue in which multiplication of cells is uncontrolled, more rapid than normal, and progressive
161
a distinct mass of tissue
tumor
162
Benign
not recurring
163
Malignant
tending to spread and become life-threatening
164
-oma
means tumor
165
groups of specialized cells that secrete material used elsewhere in the body
glands
166
aden/o
means gland
167
glands that secrete material into ducts
Exocrine glands
168
exo-
means out
169
-crine
means secrete
170
glands that secrete chemicals into the bloodstream for transportation to organs and other structures throughout the body
Endocrine glands
171
endo-
means within
172
a part of the body that performs a special function or functions
organ
173
the science of preventing disease in animals
Veterinary preventative medicine
174
Room temp. at ________ degrees for small animals
65-84
175
Light sufficient for _________ is adequate for most animals
humans
176
All species do better when there is a definite difference between _____________.
day and night
177
Animals should never be kept in ____________ without access to shade.
direct sunlight
178
Inadequate_______________ in an enclosure increases urine odors, ammonia levels, and airborne bacteria and viruses
air exchange
179
an enclosure should be minimum of times the body size of the animal
10
180
Do not buy feed that shows large amounts of ________ by the bag or box
oil uptake
181
consists of two systems that work together to support the body and allow for movement of the animal
musculoskeletal system
182
branch of surgery dealing with preservation and restoration of bones
Orthopedic
183
- form the framework that supports and protects -the body - aid in body movement - function to form blood cells - store and release minerals like calcium
bones
184
protects the ends of bones where they contact each other; connective tissue that is more elastic than bone
Cartilage
185
______ is one of the hardest tissues in the body.
bone
186
The formation of bone from fibrous tissue
ossification
187
a type of cartilage that covers the joint surfaces of bone
Articular cartilage
188
a curved fibrous cartilage found in some joints
meniscus
189
chondr/o
means cartilage
190
connections between bones; aid in movement of the body
joints
191
are also known as articulations
joints
192
arthr/o
means joints
193
bands of fibrous connective tissue that connect one bone to another
Ligaments
194
ligament/o
means Ligaments
195
destabilizes the stifle joint causing destruction to the cartilage
Anterior cruciate ligament rupture (ACL)
196
bands of fibrous connective tissue that connect muscle to bone
Tendons
197
ten/o, tend/o, and tendin/o
means tendon
198
oste/o, oss/e, and oss/i
mean bone
199
protects the major organs of the nervous, respiratory, and circulatory systems
axial skeleton
200
the framework that consists of the extremities, shoulder, and pelvic girdle
appendicular skeleton
201
The skeleton is divided into two parts:
axial skeleton and appendicular skeleton
202
supports the head and body and provides protection for the spinal cord
vertebral column
203
The vertebral column is comprised of individual bones called
vertebra
204
spondyl/o and vertebr/o
mean vertebra
205
skull has air or fluid filled spaces called
sinuses
206
dogs with short, wide heads
Brachycephalic
207
dogs that have long, narrow heads
Doliocephalic
208
Digits are extremities made up of _________.
phalanges
209
Digit 1 of dogs is commonly called _________.
dewclaw
210
mammal with hooves
Ungulate
211
one bone of the digit
Phalanx
212
onych/o
means claw or nail
213
In cats a surgical procedure to remove the claws is commonly called _________.
declaw
214
the medical term for declaw
onychectomy
215
the surgical puncture of a joint to remove fluid for analysis
Arthrocentesis
216
visual exam of the joint using a fiber optic scope
Arthroscopy
217
study of internal structures used to detect fractures and diseases of bones
Radiology
218
abnormal development of the pelvis causing improper alignment; most commonly seen in large breed dogs
Hip dysplasia
219
rupture or protrusion of cushioning disc found between vertebrae that results in pressure on the spinal cord
Intervertebral Disc Disease; IVDD
220
dislocation or displacement of a bone from its joint
Luxation
221
degenerative joint disease commonly associated with aging or wear and tear on the joints
Osteoarthritis
222
disorder of cartilage maturation creating a flap on the surface of the cartilage
Osteochondrosis dissecans (OCD)
223
inflammation/infection of the bone or bone marrow
Osteomyelitis
224
abnormal loss of bone density
Osteoporosis
225
malignant bone cancer in dogs and cats
Osteosarcoma
226
inflammation of every part of a bone in young, large breed dogs
Panosteitis
227
inflammation of the spinal column vertebrae
Spondylosis
228
broken bone
Fracture
229
crackling sensation that is felt and heard when broken bones move together
Crepitation
230
attempted realignment of the bone involved in a fracture or dislocation
Manipulation/reduction
231
the act of holding, suturing, or fastening a bone in a fixed position, usually with a bandage or cast
Immobilization
232
deposit around the area of bone fracture that may eventually become bone
Callus
233
broken bone in which there is no open wound in the skin
Closed fracture
234
also known as a simple fracture
Closed fracture
235
broken bone in which there is an open wound in the skin
Open fracture
236
also known as: compound fracture
Open fracture
237
broken bone is splintered or crushed into multiple pieces
Comminuted fracture
238
bone that is broken only on one side and the other side is bent
Greenstick fracture
239
also called: incomplete fracture
Greenstick fracture
240
the removal of all or part of a body part
Amputation
241
surgical procedure where the head of the femur is removed.
Femoral Head Ostectomy (FHO)
242
organs that contract to produce movement
Muscles
243
made up of long, slender cells called muscle fibers
Muscles
244
my/o
means muscle
245
fibr/o and fibros/o
means fibrous tissue
246
is a sheet of fibrous connective tissue that covers, supports, and separates muscles
fascia
247
fasci/o and fasc/i
means fascia
248
fibrous connective tissues that connect muscle to bone
tendons
249
tend/o, tendin/o, and ten/o
means tedon
250
band of fibers that hold structures together in an abnormal fashion
Adhesion
251
inability to voluntarily control muscle movement
Ataxia
252
tumor made of connective tissue
Fibroma
253
protrusion of a body part through tissues that normally contain it
hernia
254
looseness
Laxity
255
abnormal condition or disease of muscle
Myopathy
256
inflammation of the tendons
Tendonitis
257
muscle spasms or twitching
Tetany
258
surgical removal of muscle or part of a muscle
Myectomy
259
surgical incision into a muscle
Myotomy
260
The digestive system is referred to as the
digestive system (or tract), alimentary system, and GI system (or tract)
261
a long, muscular tube that begins at the mouth and ends at the anus
digestive system
262
Functions of the digestive system:
intake and digestion of food and water, absorption of nutrients, and elimination of solid wastes
263
Contains the lips, cheeks, palates (hard and soft), salivary glands, tongue, and teeth
mouth or oral cavity
264
Boundaries of the mouth are the ________ and________.
maxilla and mandible
265
forms the roof of the mouth
palate
266
palat/o
means palate
267
a movable muscular organ
Tongue
268
gloss/o and lingu/o
means tongue
269
front, cutting tooth
Incisor
270
long, pointed bonelike tooth for grasping and tearing
Canine
271
cheek tooth that grinds food
Premolar
272
caudal cheek tooth that grinds food
Molar
273
abnormal mineralized deposit that forms on teeth
Dental Calculus
274
Also called Tartar
Dental Calculus
275
inflammation of the tissue surrounding and supporting the teeth
Periodontitis or Periodontal disease
276
surgical removal of a tooth
Extraction
277
mucous membrane that surrounds the teeth
Gingiva
278
inflammation of the gums
Gingivitis
279
are groups of cells that secrete saliva
Salivary glands
280
sialaden/o and sial/o
means Salivary glands
281
the cavity in the caudal oral cavity that joins the respiratory and gastrointestinal systems
pharynx
282
Also known as the throat
pharynx
283
a collapsible, muscular tube that leads from the oral cavity to the stomach
esophagus
284
Also known as the gullet
esophagus
285
esophag/o
means esophagus
286
abnormally large esophagus
Megaesophagus
287
Also known as the peritoneal or abdominal cavity
abdomen
288
the membrane lining that covers the abdominal and pelvic cavity and some of the organs in this area
peritoneum
289
a saclike organ that aides in digestion of food
stomach
290
gastr/o
means stomach
291
inflammation of the stomach
Gastritis
292
nflammation of the stomach and the small intestine
Gastroenteritis
293
animals have one true, glandular stomach
Monogastric
294
have one true, glandular stomach plus three forestomachs
Ruminants
295
largest part that serves as a fermentation vat
Rumen
296
most cranial portion
Reticulum
297
third part that squeezes fluid out of the food bolus
Omasum
298
fourth part that is the true glandular stomach
Abomasum
299
Small intestine extends from the _____ to the _______
pylorus, large intestine
300
Enter/o
means small intestine
301
inflammation of the small intestine
Enteritis
302
proximal part of small intestine
duodenum
303
middle part of small intestine
jejunum
304
distal part of small intestine
ileum
305
Four segments of the large intestine are:
Cecum, Colon, Rectum, Anus
306
inflammation of the colon
Colitis
307
abnormally large colon
Megacolon
308
located caudal to the diaphragm
Liver
309
hepat/o
means liver
310
degenerative disease that affects the structure and function of the liver
Cirrhosis
311
Inflammation of the liver
Hepatitis
312
located on the undersurface of the liver; stores bile
Gallbladder
313
nflammation of the gallbladder
Cholecystitis
314
organ that secretes digestive enzymes and hormones
Pancreas
315
metabolic disease in which the pancreas does not secrete adequate amounts of digestive enzymes
Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency (EPI)
316
inflammation of the pancreas
Pancreatitis
317
is the process of breaking down foods into nutrients that the body can use
Digestion
318
is the processes involved in the body’s use of nutrients
Metabolism
319
the process of taking digested nutrients into the circulatory system
Absorption
320
also called assimilation
Absorption
321
contrast material used for radiographic studies
Barium
322
introduction of fluid into the rectum
Enema
323
removal of tissue to examine
Biopsy
324
can be used to detect some diseases of the GI tract
Blood tests
325
visual examination of the interior of any cavity of the body
Endoscopy
326
can be used to detect parasitic diseases of animals
Fecal examinations
327
imaging of internal body structures by recording echoes of sound waves
Ultrasound
328
lack or loss of appetite
Anorexia
329
abnormal accumulation of fluid in the abdomen
Ascites
330
severe abdominal pain
Colic
331
condition of prolonged GI transit time, making the stool hard, dry, and difficult to pass
Constipation
332
ingestion of fecal material
Coprophagia
333
condition of excessive loss of body water or fluid
Dehydration
334
abnormal frequency and liquidity of fecal material
Diarrhea
335
disease of ruminants in which the 4th stomach becomes trapped under the rumen
Displaced abomasum (DA)
336
marked wasting or excessive lameness
Emaciation
337
forcible vomiting
Emesis
338
condition usually seen in deep chested dogs in which the stomach fills with air and expands
Gastric dilatation volvulus (GDV)
339
elevated blood glucose
Hyperglycemia
340
low blood glucose
Hypoglycemia
341
stoppage of intestinal movement
Ileus
342
obstruction of an area, usually when the feed is too dry
Impaction
343
protrusion of bowel through the inguinal canal; protrusion seen in the groin
Inguinal hernia
344
telescoping of one part of the intestine into an adjacent part
Intussusception
345
yellow discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes caused by elevated bilirubin levels
Jaundice
346
Also called icterus
Jaundice
347
condition of drowsiness
Lethargy
348
impaired uptake of nutrients from the intestine
Malabsorption
349
black tarry stools containing digested blood
Melena
350
stomach upset or sensation of the urge to vomit
Nausea
351
complete stoppage or impairment to passage
Intestinal Obstruction
352
small growth on the mucous membrane
Polyp
353
protrusion of viscera (organ)
Prolapse
354
inflammation of the mouth
Stomatitis
355
erosion of tissue
Ulcer
356
surgical puncture to remove fluid from the abdomen
Abdominocentesis
357
substance that prevents frequent and liquid stool
Antidiarrheal
358
rounded mass of food or large pharmaceutical preparation or to give something rapidly
Bolus
359
producing vomiting
Emetic
360
prevents vomiting
Antiemetic
361
abnormal passage from an internal organ to the body surface or between two internal organs
Fistula
362
surgical incision into the abdomen
Laparotomy
363
placement of a tube through the nose into the stomach
Nasogastric intubation
364
passage of a tube from the mouth to the stomach
Orogastric intubation
365
____________ nutrients have a hydrocarbon structure that produces energy through digestion, metabolism, or transformation
Energy-producing
366
Dietary protein is used _______________
to build body tissues
367
Composed of fatty acids; Contain more energy per unit of weight than any other nutrient
fats
368
2 kinds of carbohydrates
soluble or insoluble
369
Non-energy producing nutrients play an important role throughout the body system often called ______________
the “gatekeepers of metabolism”
370
______ balance affects the ability to excrete waste into the urine by the kidneys
water
371
Organic molecules required only in minute amounts
vitamins
372
Usually distributed in ionized form as a cation or anion electrolyte; Involved with acid/base balance, clotting factors, nerve conditioning, muscle contractions
minerals
373
Feeding methods
Portion control, Free choice, and Time control
374
Feeding geriatric dogs
Dietary protein should be of high value, Dietary fats must be sufficiently digestible, Phosphorus should be limited
375
Kittens that are orphaned or born to queens unable to nurse must be _______________
hand fed
376
Adult cats typically eat _________ meals
several small
377
Feeding cats with lower urinary tract disease
more often in obese, sedentary cats; Dietary management help prevent future episodes; manipulation of dietary mineral, fiber, and water intake; Special diets are available
378
Feeding geriatric cats
It may be necessary to enhance the aroma and taste of foods to improve their palatability
379
Feeding the gestating and lactating cat
Allow the queen free access to food during the last 30 days of gestation; Assess weight gain and body condition; Free food should be available
380
The patient is a candidate for nutritional support if:
- The patient loses more than 10% of body weight - The patient has a decreased appetite or anorexia - The patient loses body condition from vomiting, diarrhea, trauma, or wounds - The patient has increased needs due to fever, sepsis, wounds, surgery, organ dysfunction, or chronic disease
381
Pet rodents can be fed ____________________
commercial rodent chow or pellets (90% of diet)
382
Guinea pigs require a dietary source of _________
vitamin C
383
Rabbits should be fed mainly free-choice ________
hay
384
Ferrets can be fed ______________________
specially formulated ferret diets, or commercial kitten or cat food
385
Iguanas are _________
herbivores
386
Most species of snakes are ________ and eat _________
carnivores, whole prey
387
ox turtles eat a large amount of __________ and _________
plant material, animal proteins
388
Forages are made up of most or all of the ________
plant
389
concentrates are _____ in fiber, and ______ in energy and/or protein
Low, high
390
Residues of the feed processing industry, including sugar beet pulp, bakery waste, blood, meat, fish, and bone meal, brewer’s grains, tallow, and whey
By-product
391
Buffers, hormones, binders, and medications; Used to stimulate animal performance, improve feed efficiency, and improve animal health or metabolic status
Non-nutritive Additives