Exam 2 Flashcards

(345 cards)

0
Q

bitch-

A

intact female dog

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1
Q

dog/stud-

A

intact male dog

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2
Q

whelp-

A

pup; young dog

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3
Q

whelping-

A

giving birth to whelps

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4
Q

pack-

A

group of dogs

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5
Q

litter-

A

multiple off spring born during same labor

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6
Q

feline-

A

cats

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7
Q

tom-

A

intact male cat/turkey

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8
Q

queen-

A

intact female cat

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9
Q

kitten-

A

young cat

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10
Q

queening-

A

giving birth to kittens

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11
Q

lagomorph-

A

rabbits

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12
Q

buck-

A

intact male rabbit

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13
Q

doe-

A

intact female rabbit

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14
Q

kit-

A

young rabbit/ferret

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15
Q

hob-

A

intact male ferret

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16
Q

jill-

A

intact female ferret

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17
Q

gib-

A

neutered male ferret

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18
Q

sprite-

A

spayed female ferret

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19
Q

psittacine-

A

parrots

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20
Q

cock-

A

intact male parrot

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21
Q

hen-

A

intact female parrot

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22
Q

chick-

A

young parrot/chicken

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23
Q

murine-

A

mice and rats

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24
pup-
young mouse or rat
25
clutch-
group of eggs
26
rooster-
sexually mature male chicken (AKA: cock)
27
hen-
intact female chicken
28
pullet-
immature female chicken
29
poult-
young turkey/chicken
30
anserine-
geese/ducks
31
gander-
intact male goose
32
goose-
intact female goose
33
gosling-
young goose
34
drake-
intact male duck
35
duck-
intact female duck
36
duckling-
young duck
37
porcine-
pigs/swine
38
boar-
intact male pig
39
sow-
intact female pig
40
barrow-
male pig castrated when young
41
farrowing-
giving birth to pigs
42
equine-
horse/ponies/donkeys/mules
43
stalion-
intact male equine (4 y.o.)
44
colt-
intact male equine (4 y.o.)
45
filly-
intact female equine (4 y.o.)
46
gelding-
castrated male equine
47
mare-
intact female equine (4 y.o.)
48
foal-
young equine (male/female)
49
weanling-
young equine (1 y.o.)
50
yearling-
young equine between 1 and 2 y.o.
51
foaling-
giving birth to equine
52
pony-
equine between 8.2 ad 14.2 hands when mature (not young)
53
burro-
donkey
54
jack-
intact male donkey
55
jenny-
intact female donkey
56
ovine-
sheep
57
ram-
intact male doney
58
ewe-
intact female sheep
59
wether-
castrated male sheep
60
lamb-
young sheep
61
caprine-
goats
62
buck-
intact male goat
63
doe-
intact female goat
64
kid-
young goat
65
kidding-
giving birth to goats
66
camelid-
llamas/alpacas/guanocos
67
cria-
young llama
68
cavy-
guinea pigs
69
boar-
intact male guinea pig
70
sow-
intact female guinea pig
71
bovine-
cattle
72
bull-
intact male bovine
73
cow-
intact female bovine that has given birth
74
steer-
male bovine castrated when young
75
heifer-
young female bovine that has not given birth
76
calf-
young bovine
77
calving-
giving birth to cattle
78
freshening-
giving birth to dairy animals
79
springing heifer-
young female pregnant with first calf
80
definition of human-animal bond
a mutually beneficial and dynamic relationship between people and other animals that is influenced by behaviors that are essential to the well being of both
81
The Veterinary Professional’s Role in euthanasia
- Preparing the Client - Preparation can begin early in the pet’s life - Personal beliefs - The difficult task of timing - Explain the procedure
82
__________ is critical to a smooth euthanasia when the owners are present
Communication
83
Definition of Euthanasia
provide the animal with a quick and painless death, with minimal stress and anxiety
84
Death in Euthanasia is produced by
- Hypoxia | - Disruption of brain activity
85
Inhalation Euthanasia
- Completed with an enclosed chamber or induction mask used to deliver Inhalation anesthetics - induces a state of unconsciousness and a second method is used to cause death
86
Intravenous injection Euthanasia
Most rapid and reliable, and a very desirable method for performing euthanasia; takes 3-5 minutes for death to occur
87
Intracardiac Injection Euthanasia
- Over dose of an anesthetic agent injected into the thoracic cavity - Most painful method if not administered correctly - Takes 3-5 seconds for death to occur
88
Captive Bolt, Gunshot Euthanasia
- Placement is between the eyes | - Used on large animals
89
Electrocution/Stunning Euthanasia
- Use of electricity to render the animal unconscious | - Used on large animals
90
Exsanguination Euthanasia
- Release of blood from the entire body, caused by cutting the jugular vein - Used on large animals
91
Cervical dislocation Euthanasia
- Separation of the axis and atlas - Animal is usually rendered unconscious by inhalation before separation - Used on small birds, immature rats and rabbits, and mice
92
Pithing Euthanasia
- Injection of a sharp object into the brain stem - Not commonly used - Used on frogs
93
Decapitation Euthanasia
- Removal of the head with a guillotine | - Used for tissue on immature rats, mice, and rabbits
94
Verification of death methods:
- Check for eye reflex - Vitals:Pulse,Respiration - Cardiac stand still
95
Disposal of Euthanized
cremation, burial
96
Stages of Grief:
- Denial - Bargaining - Anger - Guilt - Sorrow - Resolution - Loneliness - Replacement
97
Behavioral Problems seen in Dogs
- Jumping - Obsessive behavior - Aggression - Separation anxiety - Fear, nervousness - Excessive barking - Excitability - House soiling, marking - Spinning/tail chasing - Fear of thunder - Chewing
98
Behavioral Problems seen in Cats
- Fear - Aggression - Repetitive behavior - Spraying/elimination problems - Destructive behavior
99
Behavioral problems seen in birds
- Screaming - Aggression - Feather plucking - Self-mutilation
100
What is behavior and where does it come from
- For any behavior to occur there must be a stimulus, some external or internal change that exceeds a threshold, causing stimulation of the nervous and/or endocrine systems - This stimulation requires chemical messengers in the animal’s body - Some problem behaviors are due to increased or decreased amounts of chemicals
101
Animal behaviors result from a combination of _______ _________ and what the animal learns as it develops
genetic inheritance
102
Diseases also play a role in animal behavior problems, such as ____________ in dogs, __________ in cats, and _____________ ______________ in older animals
hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, cognitive dysfunction
103
Basic Learning Theory
- Positive reinforcement - Rewarding stimulus immediately following a “good behavior” - Must occur within 3-5 seconds - Clicker Training
104
Negative reinforcement
- Often confused with punishment | - Traditional dog training method: Pulling up on a leash, Sitting
105
Punishment
- Most overused and misused behavior modification - Punishment “after the fact” is not effective - Can only teach an animal what not to do; cannot teach appropriate behavior
106
Systematic desensitization
-Process of exposing animal to a stimuli that causes a problem -Provokes: Anxiety/fear, Dominance aggression
107
_________ is the most common problem for which owners seek guidance
Aggression
108
Separation anxiety
animal becomes anxious and distressed when separated from owner
109
D.A.P. (Dog Appeasing Pheromone)
Electric diffuser helps calm and reassure your dog. Stops or prevents fear and stress in puppies and adult dogs
110
Obsessive Compulsive Disorders (OCD)
Normal behavior for the species, that is repetitive or constant, even to the point of being damaging to the animal
111
examples of OCD
Lick Granuloma, Flank or Tail Sucking, Tail Chasing, Shadow Chasing, Fly Snapping
112
Cognitive Dysfunction
A clinical state seen in older pets where their cognitive function declines
113
Causes of House soiling:
Territorial marking, Not house broken
114
_______ is the most important and first behaviors that young pets are expected to learn
Housetraining
115
____________ requires that the dog be taken out frequently, especially when it wakes up, after it eats, and whenever it appears to be sniffing around the house
Housebreaking
116
The puppy or dog’s confinement must not exceed the time the animal can control...
its bladder and bowels
117
Cats can be readily trained to use a _______
litter box
118
The litter box should offer some ______
privacy
119
Cats may avoid litter that is consistently _____, _____. or ______.
dirty, too deep, or scented
120
Common behavior problems in the Cat
House soiling, Spraying, Aggression
121
Aggression is behavior that is
intended to harm another individual
122
#1 public health concern in children
Aggression
123
_____ ________ animals are typically fearful of people or may attach strongly to one or two individuals but are unable to generalize this acceptance to unfamiliar individuals
Poorly socialized
124
The digestive system is referred to as the:
- digestive system (or tract) - alimentary system - GI system (or tract)
125
The digestive system is basically a long, muscular tube that begins at the _____ and ends at the ______
mouth, anus
126
Functions of the digestive system: (3)
- intake and digestion of food and water - absorption of nutrients - elimination of solid wastes
127
Boundaries of the mouth are the ____ and _____
maxilla, mandible
128
forms the roof of the mouth
palate
129
movable muscular organ
Tongue
130
gloss/o and lingu/o
Tongue
131
front, cutting tooth
Incisor
132
long, pointed bonelike tooth for grasping and tearing
Canine
133
cheek tooth that grinds food
Premolar
134
caudal cheek tooth that grinds food
Molar
135
abnormal mineralized deposit that forms on teeth; AKA: tartar
Dental Calculus
136
inflammation of the tissue surrounding and supporting the teeth
Periodontitis or Periodontal disease
137
surgical removal of a tooth
Extraction
138
the mucous membrane that surrounds the teeth
Gingiva
139
inflammation of the gums
Gingivitis
140
groups of cells that secrete saliva
Salivary glands
141
sialaden/o and sial/o
Salivary glands
142
the cavity in the caudal oral cavity that joins the respiratory and gastrointestinal systems; AKA: throat
pharynx
143
a collapsible, muscular tube that leads from the oral cavity to the stomach; AKA: gullet
esophagus
144
abnormally large esophagus
Megaesophagus
145
Also known as the peritoneal or abdominal cavity
abdomen
146
the membrane lining that covers the abdominal and pelvic cavity and some of the organs in this area
peritoneum
147
a saclike organ that aides in digestion of food
stomach
148
gastr/o
stomach
149
inflammation of the stomach
Gastritis
150
inflammation of the stomach and the small intestine
Gastroenteritis
151
animals have one true, glandular stomach
Monogastric
152
have one true, glandular stomach plus three forestomachs
Ruminants
153
largest part of ruminant stomach that serves as a fermentation vat
Rumen
154
most cranial portion of the ruminant stomach
Reticulum
155
third part of the ruminant stomach that squeezes fluid out of the food bolus
Omasum
156
fourth part of the ruminant stomach that is the true glandular stomach
Abomasum
157
Small intestine extends from the ________ to the _______________ _______________
pylorus, large intestine
158
Enter/o
small intestine
159
inflammation of the small intestine
Enteritis
160
proximal part of the small intestine
duodenum
161
middle part of the small intestine
jejunum
162
distal part of the small intestine
ileum
163
Four segments of the large intestine:
Cecum, Colon, Rectum, Anus
164
inflammation of the colon
Colitis
165
abnormally large colon
Megacolon
166
located caudal to the diaphragm
Liver
167
hepat/o
Liver
168
degenerative disease that affects the structure and function of the liver
Cirrhosis
169
Inflammation of the liver
Hepatitis
170
located on the undersurface of the liver; stores bile
Gallbladder
171
inflammation of the gallbladder
Cholecystitis
172
organ that secretes digestive enzymes and hormones
Pancreas
173
metabolic disease in which the pancreas does not secrete adequate amounts of digestive enzymes
Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency (EPI)
174
inflammation of the pancreas
Pancreatitis
175
the process of breaking down foods into nutrients that the body can use
Digestion
176
the processes involved in the body’s use of nutrients
Metabolism
177
the process of taking digested nutrients into the circulatory system; AKA: assimilation
Absorption
178
Absorption occurs in the ________ ________
small intestine
179
contrast material used for radiographic studies
Barium
180
introduction of fluid into the rectum
Enema
181
removal of tissue to examine
Biopsy
182
_______ ________ can be used to detect some diseases of the GI tract
Blood tests
183
visual examination of the interior of any cavity of the body
Endoscopy
184
can be used to detect parasitic diseases of animals
Fecal examinations
185
imaging of internal body structures by recording echoes of sound waves
Ultrasound
186
lack or loss of appetite
Anorexia
187
abnormal accumulation of fluid in the abdomen
Ascites
188
severe abdominal pain
Colic
189
condition of prolonged GI transit time, making the stool hard, dry, and difficult to pass
Constipation
190
ingestion of fecal material
Coprophagia
191
condition of excessive loss of body water or fluid
Dehydration
192
abnormal frequency and liquidity of fecal material
Diarrhea
193
disease of ruminants in which the 4th stomach becomes trapped under the rumen
Displaced abomasum (DA)
194
marked wasting or excessive lameness
Emaciation
195
forcible vomiting
Emesis
196
condition usually seen in deep chested dogs in which the stomach fills with air and expands
Gastric dilatation volvulus (GDV)
197
elevated blood glucose
Hyperglycemia
198
low blood glucose
Hypoglycemia
199
stoppage of intestinal movement
Ileus
200
obstruction of an area, usually when the feed is too dry
Impaction
201
protrusion of bowel through the inguinal canal; protrusion seen in the groin
Inguinal hernia
202
telescoping of one part of the intestine into an adjacent part
Intussusception
203
yellow discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes caused by elevated bilirubin levels; AKA: icterus
Jaundice
204
condition of drowsiness
Lethargy
205
impaired uptake of nutrients from the intestine
Malabsorption
206
black tarry stools containing digested blood
Melena
207
stomach upset or sensation of the urge to vomit
Nausea
208
complete stoppage or impairment to passage
Intestinal Obstruction
209
small growth on the mucous membrane
Polyp
210
protrusion of viscera (organ)
Prolapse
211
inflammation of the mouth
Stomatitis
212
erosion of tissue
Ulcer
213
surgical puncture to remove fluid from the abdomen
Abdominocentesis
214
substance that prevents frequent and liquid stool
Antidiarrheal
215
rounded mass of food or large pharmaceutical preparation or to give something rapidly
Bolus
216
produces vomiting
Emetic
217
prevents vomiting
Antiemetic
218
abnormal passage from an internal organ to the body surface or between two internal organs
Fistula
219
surgical incision into the abdomen
Laparotomy
220
placement of a tube through the nose into the stomach
Nasogastric intubation
221
passage of a tube from the mouth to the stomach
Orogastric intubation
222
_________ system removes wastes from the body
urinary
223
system that maintains homeostasis or a constant internal environment within the body
urinary
224
waste product filtered by the kidney
Urea
225
Urin/o and ur/o
urinary system
226
Urine is formed in the ______
kidneys
227
inflammation of the kidneys
Nephritis
228
a pair of narrow tubes that carry urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder
Ureters
229
Ureter/o
ureter
230
a singular hollow muscular organ that holds urine
urinary bladder
231
Cyst/o
urinary bladder
232
a tube extending from the urinary bladder to the outside of the body
urethra
233
Urethr/o
urethra
234
The process of urine production
uropoiesis
235
-poiesis
formation
236
means cloudy
Turbid
237
the surgical puncture of the urinary bladder, usually to collect urine. A cystocentesis is performed with a needle and syringe
Cystocentesis
238
examination of urine components; abbreviated UA
Urinalysis
239
insertion of a tube through the urethra and into the urinary bladder.
Urinary catheterization
240
the hollow tube that is inserted into a body cavity to inject or remove fluid.
catheter
241
abnormal mineral deposit
Calculus
242
fibrous or protein materials found in the urine with renal disease or other abnormalities
Casts
243
naturally produced angular solid of definitive form
Crystals
244
inflammation of the urinary bladder
Cystitis
245
most common cause of cystitis in cats
Feline lower urinary tract disease (FLUTD)
246
eliminating urine at the wrong time or in the wrong place
Inappropriate urination
247
inability to control urine.
Incontinence
248
inability of the kidneys to function
Renal failure
249
is the sudden onset of the inability of the kidneys to function
Acute
250
the progressive onset of the inability of the kidneys to function
Chronic
251
increased urine production
Polyuria
252
increased thirst
Polydipsia
253
elevated excretion of urine
Diuresis
254
drugs that increase urine production
Diuretics
255
waste products in the blood. Uremia is seen with many types of kidney disease
Uremia
256
inability to completely empty the urinary bladder
Urinary retention
257
invasion of microorganisms into the urinary system; abbreviated UTI
Urinary tract infection
258
urinary bladder stone
Urolith
259
surgical incision into the urinary bladder
Cystotomy
260
surgical removal of a kidney
Nephrectomy
261
the surgical creation of a permanent opening between the urethra and the skin between the anus and scrotum
Perineal urethrostomy (PU)
262
pertaining to the heart and blood vessels
Cardiovascular
263
The heart is located inside the ________ or _______ _________
thoracic, chest cavity
264
a double-walled membrane that surrounds the heart
pericardium
265
Peri-
around
266
The upper chambers of the heart are known as _______
atria
267
The lower chambers of the heart are known as ________
ventricles
268
a membranous fold in the heart
valve
269
valv/o and valvul/o
valve
270
The rate and regularity of the heart rhythm
heartbeat
271
volume of blood pumped by the heart per unit time
Cardiac output
272
abnormal heart rhythm (also known as dysrhythmia)
Arrhythmia
273
abnormally slow heartbeat
Bradycardia
274
abnormally fast heartbeat
Tachycardia
275
(ECG or EKG) is the record of the electrical activity of the myocardium
Electrocardiogram
276
is listening to body sounds with a stethoscope
Auscultation
277
abnormal sound associated with turbulent blood flow
murmur
278
are blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart
Arteries
279
angi/o and vas/o
vessel
280
single-cell thick vessels that connect the arterial and venous systems
Capillaries
281
blood vessels that carry blood toward the heart
Veins
282
drawing blood from a vein using a needle and syringe
Venipuncture
283
the tension exerted by blood on the arterial walls
Blood pressure
284
the rhythmic expansion and contraction of an artery produced by pressure
pulse
285
evaluating heart structures using sound waves
Echocardiography
286
constricting band applied to a limb to control bleeding or to assist in drawing blood.
Tourniquet
287
heart enlargement
Cardiomegaly
288
disease of heart muscle
Cardiomyopathy
289
insufficient cardiac output to meet the body’s needs; abbreviated CHF
Congestive heart failure
290
accumulation of fluid in heart
Congestion
291
accumulation of fluid in intercellular spaces in heart
Edema
292
substances that increase urine excretion
Diuretics
293
heartworm infection found in dogs, cats, and ferrets
Dirofilariasis
294
larvae
Microfilariae
295
obstruction of blood flow caused by heavy heartworm infestation
Caval syndrome
296
prevention
Prophylaxis
297
inflammation of the heart
Endocarditis
298
below-normal levels of oxygen
Hypoxia
299
inadequate tissue perfusion that can occur after cardiac arrest or cessation of heartbeat.
Shock
300
treatment of shock, which may include fluid administration, cardiac massage, and artificial respiration
Resuscitation
301
use of electrical shock to restore the normal heart rhythm
Defibrillation
302
introduction of whole blood or blood components into the bloodstream of the recipient
Transfusion
303
blood flow through tissues
Perfusion
304
the body system that brings oxygen from the air into the body for delivery via the blood to the cells
respiratory system
305
the exchange of gases (oxygen and carbon dioxide) between the atmosphere and the body cells
Respiration
306
Air enters and exits the body through the _____
nose
307
nas/o and rhin/o
nose
308
the area from the back of the nasal cavity and mouth to the larynx; AKA: throat
pharynx
309
the area between the pharynx and the trachea; AKA: voice box
larynx
310
extends from the neck to the chest and passes air from the larynx to the thoracic cavity
trachea
311
The trachea divides into two branches to form ___________
bronchi
312
main organ of respiration
lung
313
the inhalation and exhalation of air
Breathing
314
the drawing in of a breath
Inspiration
315
the release of a breath
Expiration
316
absence of breathing
Apnea
317
difficult or labored breathing
Dyspnea
318
respirations near death or extreme suffering
Agonal breathing
319
inadequate supply of oxygen to tissue
Hypoxia
320
act of listening
Auscultation
321
number of respirations per minute
Respiratory rate
322
instrument used to visually examine the voice box
Laryngoscope
323
thick mucous
Phlegm
324
puncture of chest with a needle to obtain fluid
Thoracocentesis
325
sterile collection of fluid from the trachea via a catheter
Transtracheal wash
326
inhalation of a foreign substance into the upper respiratory system
Aspiration
327
chronic allergic disorder
Asthma
328
inflammation of the bronchi; can be acute or chronic
Bronchitis
329
abnormal condition of blue discoloration
Cyanosis
330
localized protective response to destroy, dilute, or wall off injury
Inflammation
331
inflammation of the voice box
Laryngitis
332
abnormal accumulation of fluid in the pleural space
Pleural effusion
333
abnormal condition of the lung that usually involves inflammation and congestion
Pneumonia
334
abnormal accumulation of air or gas in the chest cavity
Pneumothorax
335
accumulation of fluid in the lung tissue
Pulmonary edema
336
inflammation of the nasal mucous membranes
Rhinitis
337
inflammation of a sinus
Sinusitis
338
common term for upper respiratory disease of rabbits
Snuffles
339
inflammation of the wind pipe or trachea
Tracheitis
340
invasion of nose, mouth, pharynx, epiglottis, larynx, or trachea by pathogenic organisms
Upper respiratory infection (URI)
341
a sudden noisy expulsion of air from the lungs
Cough
342
hollow device inserted into the thoracic cavity to remove fluid or gas
Chest Tube
343
passage of a tube through the oral cavity, pharynx, and larynx into the trachea; provides patent airway for anesthetics, oxygen
Endotracheal intubation
344
surgical incision into the windpipe
Tracheostomy