Final Flashcards
(216 cards)
1
Q
most superficial layer of the skin
A
Epidermis
2
Q
middle layer that contains blood and lymph vessels, nerve fibers, and accessory organs of the skin
A
Dermis
3
Q
deepest layer of the skin that contains connective tissue
A
Subcutaneous layer
4
Q
rod like fibers made of dead protein cells filled with keratin
A
Hair
5
Q
pil/i, pil/o, and trich/o
A
hair
6
Q
thick areas of keratinized epithelium that provide cushioning and protection for the bones of the foot
A
Pads
7
Q
keratin plates in dogs and cats
A
Nails and claws
8
Q
onych/o
A
Nails and claws
9
Q
sensitive tissue of the nail
A
quick
10
Q
first digit of dogs and cats found on the inner side of the front legs
A
Dewclaws
11
Q
removal of tissue for examination using a microscope
A
Biopsy
12
Q
microscopic examination of skin for the presence of mites
A
Skin scrape
13
Q
localized collection of pus
A
Abscess
14
Q
skin inflammation caused by plugged sebaceous glands
A
Acne
15
Q
bacterial skin disease that is worsened by licking and scratching; also called hot spot
A
Acute moist dermatitis
16
Q
hair loss resulting in hairless patches or complete lack of hair
A
Alopecia
17
Q
malignant tumor of the skin
A
Carcinoma
18
Q
inflammation of the skin
A
Dermatitis
19
Q
autoimmune lesion of eosinophilic ulcer located on the lip of cats
A
Eosinophilic granuloma
20
Q
inflammation of the skin caused by an allergic reaction to flea saliva
A
Flea allergy dermatitis (FAD)
21
Q
live on the external surface of tissue
A
Ectoparasite
22
Q
mite on surface of skin that is highly contagious and causes intense itching
A
Sarcoptic Mange (Scabies)
23
Q
mite that lives deep in the skin, not contagious
A
Demodectic Mange (Demodex)
24
Q
infestation by mite larvae that result in severe pruritis
A
Chiggers
25
: wingless parasitic insect, plural is lice
Louse
26
insect larvae especially found in dead or decaying tissue
Maggots
27
accidental cut into the skin
Laceration
28
benign growth of fat cells; also called fatty tumor
Lipoma
29
change of tissue, used to describe abnormalities
Lesion
30
benign skin growth that is lobed
Papilloma
31
itching
Pruritis
32
small, pus-filled skin elevation
Pustule
33
skin disease containing pus
Pyoderma
34
closed sac of yellow, fatty material
Sebaceous cyst
35
skin condition characterized by overproduction of sebum (oil)
Seborrhea
36
small growths that hang from the body by stalks
Skin tag
37
destruction of tissue using electric current, heat, or chemicals
Cauterization
38
removal of tissue and foreign material to aid healing
Debridement
39
ID
Intradermal
40
SQ
Subcutaneous
41
FAD
Flea Allergic Dermatitis
42
composed of ductless glands that secrete chemical messengers called hormones into the bloodstream
endocrine system
43
enter the bloodstream and are carried throughout the body to affect a variety of tissues and organs
Hormones
44
the master gland attached to the base of the brain that has control over other endocrine glands
pituitary gland
45
Regulates metabolism and iodine uptake
thyroid
46
regulates electrolytes, metabolism, sexual functions, and the body’s response to injury
adrenal gland
47
maintains blood glucose levels
pancreas
48
hormone that transports blood glucose into cells or storage
Insulin
49
glands that produce gametes (sex cells)
gonads
50
The ovaries secrete_____________ & ___________
estrogen, progesterone
51
The testes secrete ____________
testosterone
52
disorder caused by deficient adrenal cortex function
Addison’s Disease (hypoadrenocorticism)
53
disorder caused by excessive adrenal cortex production
Cushing’s Disease (hyperadrenocorticism)
54
insufficient antidiuretic hormone production
Diabetes insipidus
55
metabolic disorder of inadequate secretion of insulin resulting in increased drinking, urination, and weight loss
Diabetes mellitus
56
high blood glucose
Hyperglycemia
57
low blood glucose
Hypoglycemia
58
condition of excess thyroid hormone
Hyperthyroidism
59
condition of thyroid hormone deficiency
Hypothyroidism
60
ACTH
adrenocorticotropic hormone
61
ADH
Antidiuretic hormone
62
TSH
Thyroid stimulating hormone
63
T3 and T4
Thyroid hormones commonly tested
64
The reproductive organs are called
genitals
65
or scrotal sac is the external pouch that encloses and supports the testes
scrotum
66
the male sex glands that produce sperm
testicles
67
a singular tube passing through the penis to the outside of the body that serves both reproductive and urinary systems
urethra
68
retractable fold of skin covering the penis
Prepuce
69
_________ have an os penis
Dogs
70
produce estrogen, progesterone, and ova (eggs)
ovaries
71
a thick-walled, hollow organ with muscular walls and a mucous membrane lining
uterus
72
prevents foreign substances from entering the uterus
cervix
73
the external genitalia
vulva
74
milk-producing glands in females
mammary glands
75
cycles repeat at the end of previous cycle
Polyestrus
76
cycles only once with a long break in between
Monoestrus
77
_________ are seasonal polyestrus
Cats
78
_________ are nonseasonal monoestrus
Dogs
79
the female organ of mammals that develops during pregnancy and joins mother and offspring for exchange of nutrients, oxygen, and waste products
placenta
80
the structure that forms where the fetus communicates with the placenta
umbilical cord
81
the period of development of the fetus in the uterus from conception to birth and is the term more commonly used in animals
Gestation
82
The newborn is called a __________
neonate
83
The first stool of a newborn that consists of material collected in the intestine of the fetus
meconium
84
a thick fluid containing nutrients and antibodies needed by the neonate the mammary glands of the mother secrete
colostrum
85
the process of forming and secreting milk
Lactation
86
developmental defect in which one or both testicles fails to descend
Cryptorchidism
87
difficult birth
Dystocia
88
inflammation of the mammary gland
Mastitis
89
pus in the uterus
Pyometra
90
sexually altering of males
Neuter
91
an animal that is not neutered
Intact
92
surgical removal of the ovaries, uterus, and uterine tubes; also called a spay
Ovariohysterectomy (OHE)
93
AI
Artificial Insemination
94
OHE
Ovariohysterectomy
95
detects and processes internal and external information and formulates appropriate responses
nervous system
96
The basic unit of the nervous system
neuron
97
protective covering over some nerve cells including parts of the spinal cord
Myelin
98
made up of the brain and spinal cord
central nervous system
99
carries the tracts that influence the limbs and lower part of the body and is the pathway for impulses going to and from the brain
spinal cord
100
housed within vertebrae to protect it from injury
spinal cord
101
record of the spinal cord after injection of contrast material
Myelogram
102
response of pupil to bright light; used to assess neurological damage
Pupillary light reflex (PLR)
103
bright, alert, and responsive
BAR
104
deep state of unconsciousness
Coma
105
awake, aware
Conscious or alert
106
animal appears mentally confused
Disorientation
107
drowsiness
Lethargy
108
impaired consciousness
Stupor
109
without coordination, “stumbling”
Ataxia
110
inflammation of the brain
Encephalitis
111
instability or abnormal formation of the spinal cord at the base of the neck; causes ataxia
Wobbler’s Syndrome
112
neurologic defect in which the animal appears to not know where its limbs are
Conscious proprioceptive deficit (CP) deficit
113
collection of signs relating to injury of the nerve to the eye
Horner’s syndrome
114
most common type of seizure; animal experiences loss of consciousness and muscle contractions
Grand mal
115
period before a seizure
Pre-ictal
116
the attack or actual seizure
Ictus
117
the period after a seizure
Postictal
118
fainting
Syncope
119
neurologic disorder characterized by head tilt, circling, and falling
Vestibular disease
120
involuntary, rhythmic movement of the eye
Nystagmus
121
without pain
Analgesia
122
absence of sensation
Anesthesia
123
BAR
Bright, alert, and responsive
124
CNS
Central Nervous System
125
MRI
Magnetic resonance imaging
126
outer layer that maintains the shape of the eye
sclera
127
The transparent, anterior portion of the eye provides most of the focusing power of the eye
cornea
128
inner layer of the eye
retina
129
diagnostic test to detect corneal injury by placing dye onto the surface of the cornea
Fluorescein stain
130
diagnostic test in which the eye should blink in response to touch
Palpebral reflex
131
diagnostic test using graded paper strip to measure tear production
Schirmer tear test
132
procedure using an instrument to indirectly measure intraocular pressure
Tonometry
133
cloudiness or opacity of the lens
Cataract
134
inflammation of the conjunctiva
Conjunctivitis
135
mucous membrane that lines the underside of each eyelid
Conjunctiva
136
a double row of eyelashes
Distichia
137
group of disorders resulting from elevated intraocular pressure
Glaucoma
138
prolapse of gland of third eyelid in dogs
Cherry eye
139
turning outward of the eyelid
Ectropion
140
turning inward of the eyelid
Entropion
141
inflammation of the cornea and conjunctiva
Keratoconjunctivitis “dry eye”
142
drying out of the lens with age
Nuclear sclerosis
143
removal of the eyeball
Enucleation
144
external portion of ear that catches sound waves and transmits sound waves
Pinna
145
“Eardrum”;Tissue that separates the external ear from the middle ear
Tympanic membrane
146
part of ear that contains sensory receptors for hearing and balance
inner ear
147
procedure used to examine the ear for parasites, irritation, discharge, and the eardrum
Otoscopy
148
the instrument used for otoscopy
Otoscope
149
collection or mass of blood on the outer ear
Aural hematoma
150
inflammation of the ear
Otitis
151
inflammation of the outer ear
Otitis externa
152
inflammation of the middle ear
Otitis media
153
inflammation of the inner ear
Otitis interna
154
removal of a part of the ear
Ablation
155
AD
right ear
156
AS
left ear
157
AU
both ears
158
OD
right eye
159
OS
left eye
160
OU
both eyes
161
parameters taken from the animal to assess its health
Vital signs
162
the medical term for fever
Febrile; Pyrexia
163
means without a fever
Afebrile
164
instrument used to enlarge the opening of a canal or cavity
Speculum
165
instrument used to measure the concentration of serum, urine, and other body fluids
Refractometer
166
a machine that spins samples very rapidly to separate elements
Centrifuge
167
ratio of diseased animals to well animals in a population
Morbidity
168
ratio of diseased animals that die to diseased animals
Mortality
169
means prevention
Prophylaxis
170
disease that can be transmitted between animals and humans
Zoonosis
171
the determined cause of the disease
Diagnosis
172
the prediction of the outcome of disease
Prognosis
173
a characteristic of disease that can be observed by others
Sign
174
characteristic of disease that can be sensed only by the patient
Symptom
175
set of signs that occur together
Syndrome
176
ongoing presence of disease in a group
Endemic
177
the sudden and widespread outbreak of disease in a group
Epidemic
178
occurring over a large geographic area
Pandemic
179
visual examination of the interior of any cavity of the body by means of an endoscope
Endoscopy
180
pairs of pouches that store an oily, foul-smelling fluid secreted by the anal glands
Anal sacs
181
secretory tissues that are stored in the anal sacs
Anal glands
182
large, shearing cheek tooth
Carnassial tooth
183
physical makeup of an animal
Constitution
184
ingestion of feces
Coprophagia
185
device placed around neck and head of dogs to prevent them from traumatizing an area
Elizabethan collar
186
more than the normal amount of digits
Polydactyly
187
color of nose (mask), ears, tail, and feet of an animal
Points
188
tame and easygoing
Docile
189
describes behavior that is more lethargic than normal
Dull
190
wild, not domesticated
Feral
191
the way an animal moves
Gait
192
white paws
Gloves
193
shine
Luster
194
excessive fat accumulation in the body
Obesity
195
isolation of animals to determine whether they have or carry a disease
Quarantine
196
Upper respiratory infection caused by the bacterium Bordetella bronchiseptica that produces a severe hacking cough; also called kennel cough
Bordetella
197
Adenovirus infection in canines that causes signs of upper respiratory disease; abbreviated CAV-2
Hepatitis/Canine adenovirus 2
198
Highly contagious paramyxovirus infection in canines that is associated with respiratory, digestive, muscular, and neurologic signs, abbreviated CDV
Canine distemper
199
infection in canines that primarily affects newborn puppies and is associated with listlessness, nasal discharge, rash, neurologic signs, and death; abbreviated CHV
Canine herpesvirus
200
Paramyxovirus infection of canines that contribute to upper respiratory infections ans causes bronchitis
Canine parainfluenza
201
Highly contagious parvoviral infection in canines that is associated with severe diarrhea, vomiting, and dehydration
Canine parvovirus
202
Infection in felines that is associated with upper respiratory and ocular infections
Feline calicivirus
203
Bacterial infection in felines that is associated with upper respiratory infections and ocular infections
Feline chlamydia
204
Infection in felines that initially presents with fever that over a long period of time progresses to a wider range of clinical signs such as anemia, lethargy, weight loss, and secondary infections, abbreviated FIV
Feline immunodeficiency virus
205
Feline retrovirus that may produce elevated levels of abnormal leukocytes, immune suppression, cancer, and illness associated with immune suppression; abbreviated FeLV
Feline leukemia
206
Parvovirus infection of felines that is associated with fever, vomiting, diarrhea, and a decrease in all types of white blood cells; abbreviated FPV; commonly called feline distemper
Feline panleukopenia
207
Herpesvirus infection in felines that is associated with upper respiratory and ocular infections
Feline rhinotracheitis
208
Bacterial disease; signs include renal failure, jaundice, fever, and abortion
Leptospirosis
209
Bacterial disease caused by a tick; associated with fever, anorexia, joint disorders, and occasionally neurologic signs
Lyme disease
210
Fatal zoonotic infection of all warm blooded animals that causes neurologic signs; transmitted by a bite or infection of body fluid; abbreviated RV; is required by public health agencies for licensure of dogs
Rabies
211
group that regulates what can go on pet food labels
AAFCO
212
AAFCO doesn't regulate___________ or ___________
brochures; commercials
213
To say beef, chicken, or lamb food must have ___%
95
214
to say dinner, formula, entree, platter, or stew, food must have ___% of ingredient following it
25
215
to say with, food must have ___% ingredient after
3
216
to say flavor, food must have ___________ of flavor
a trace
