Exam 1 Flashcards

(71 cards)

1
Q

During embryological development, six hillocks of tissue form around both sides of the first brachial groove. What do these hillocks eventually become?

A

The pinna of the external ear

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2
Q

During embryological development of the central nervous system, which secondary vesicle of the neural tube becomes the pons, cerebellum, and a portion of the fourth ventricle?

A

Metencephalon

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2
Q

What is the anterolateral (spinothalamic) pathway?

A

It is a sensory pathway for pain, temperature, and crude touch. It enters through the dorsal roots as Lissauer’s tract and with axons ascending in the anterior-lateral white matter of the spinal cord

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3
Q

What is CN II

A

Optic - special sensory nerve for vision

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4
Q

What is CN V

A

Trigeminal - sensory information from the face and motor innervation for mastication and the tensor tympani

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5
Q

What is CN VI

A

Abducens - motor control of the lateral rectus eye muscle

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6
Q

What is CN VII

A

Facial - sensory information from tongue through the chorda tympani and motor control for facial expressions and stapedius muscle

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7
Q

What is CN XI

A

Accessory - Spinal accessory motor control of sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscle

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8
Q

What is CN XII

A

Hypoglossal - motor for intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue

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9
Q

What is meant by the term branchiometric nerves?

A

Cranial nerves that innervate brachial arch musculature such as CN V, VII, IX, X and XI

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10
Q

Which branchial arches play a major role in development of ear (audiovestibular system) structures?

A

Branchial arches 1 and 2

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11
Q

The cerebellum is connected to the main body of the pons by 3 pairs of fiber tracts known as the what?

A

cerebellar peduncles

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12
Q

The outer 2-4 mm of the cerebral cortex is made up of gray matter that has been divided into horizontal layers based on the cells and functions. How many layers are there?

A

Six layers with layer 1 as the most superficial and layer 6 the deepest layer

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13
Q

What is the purpose of the Circle of Willis and what arteries create the “circle”?

A

Since the CNS is supplied by the vertebrobasilar and internal carotid vasculature and the posterior communicating arteries and single anterior communicating artery form the “circle” of Willis, there is a safety valve for blood supply. When there is a slow occlusion of an artery like one of the carotids, the communicating arteries which normally do not carry much blood can compensate for the low blood supply on one side by shunting blood from the good side to the side of the brainstem and brain that is not getting enough blood. This will not work for a rapid occlusion but can be very effective for a slow occlusion.

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14
Q

Which type of degeneration involves the distal portion of the axon that has been severed from the cell body and leaves Schwann tubes that may aid in regeneration?

A

Orthograde degeneration

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15
Q

Which of the following pathways projects primarily from the primary motor cortex, decussating in the pyramids of the medulla, travelling to the lateral white columns in the spinal cord to the ventral gray horn and then innervating muscles to provide the main control of voluntary skilled movement?

A

Corticospinal tract

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16
Q

Which of the following pathways projects from the medial and lateral vestibular nuclei to the spinal cord to act upon interneurons and motor neurons to control antigravity muscles for postural control?

A

Vestibulospinal tract

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17
Q

What is contained in the dorsal root ganglia?

A

Cell bodies for the pseudounipolar sensory axons of the spinal nerves

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18
Q

Which answer best describes the fasciculus gracilis?

A

The FG carries somatosensory information including touch and proprioception from the lower extremities to the medulla as a part of the dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathway

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19
Q

Intensity of a stimulus is represented by frequency modulation (rate of firing) for what type of potential?

A

Action potential

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20
Q

Embryologically, the central nervous system, sense organs such as the cochlear and vestibular hair cells, and the skin are derived from which of the germ layers?

A

Ectoderm

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20
Q

What is the generic term that describes defects of the spinal cord, during embryological development when the caudal neuropore does not properly close?

A

Spina bifida

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21
Q

With respect to neuroembryology, the term gastrulation refers to what?

A

Formation of the three primary germ layers

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22
Q

During embryologic development, which germ layer gives rise to the skeletal structures, circulation structures, meninges, and cartilage (including the ossicles and temporal bone)?

A

Mesoderm

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23
Embryologically, development of the inner ear begins with formation of what?
The otic placodes which are thickening of the ectoderm
24
Embryologically, what structures are derived from the neural tube and its tissue?
Ventral nervous system structures including structures such as the cerebrum, brainstem, cerebellum, ventricles and spinal cord
25
Which classification of the nerve fibers have the slowest conduction velocity and are unmyelinated?
Group IV
26
The binding of a neurotransmitter to a receptor site on a neuron and depolarization of the post-synaptic cell membrane due to changes in the membrane permeability is an example of which of the following?
Activation of ligand-gated ion channels and excitation of the post-synaptic cell
27
The two vertebral arteries merge near the pontomedullary junction to form what artery?
The basilar artery
27
Describe Parkinson's disease
Damage/abnormal function in the substantia nigra resulting in movement dysfunction, resting tremor, rigidity, and cognitive changes
27
Which motor pathway carries information from the reticular formation of the pons and medulla to all levels of the spinal cord to influence muscle tone in the lower extremities?
Reticulospinal tract
27
Where is Rexed's lamina I in the spinal cord located?
In the initial portion of the dorsal gray horns (the most dorsal layer)
27
What is Scarpa's ganglia?
The cell bodies of the bipolar afferent vestibular CN VIII fibers located in the internal auditory canal
27
Be able to label the Dorsal Column-Medial Lemniscus Pathway from a photo of the pathway. Describe the DC-ML pathway.
Carries ascending/afferent sensory information regarding touch and proprioception from the body to he cortex
27
Some vestibular information being carried by CN VIII and coming from the vestibular nuclei is carried to the cerebellum. Which statement best describes the route and location in the cerebellum where vestibular information is processed?
Nerve fibers carrying vestibular information reach the cerebellum via the juxtarestiform body of the inferior cerebellar peduncle and the information is processed primarily in the flocculonodular lobe.
28
A reduction in blood flow can be caused by a local, attached clot in a blood vessel by an atherosclerotic plaque. What is this vascular abnormality called?
Thrombus
29
Which artery supplies blood to the area of the superior temporal gyrus and lateral fissure, including the area of the primary cortex?
Middle cerebral artery
29
Why are hereditary metabolic defects such as Tay-Sachs disease and Niemann-Pick Disease so devastating and difficulty to treat?
The diseases involve enzyme deficiencies at the cellular level and it is difficult to treat or repair defects in cells so the diseases tend to be progressive and life-threatening over time (shortening lifespan).
29
During embryological development, what does the tubotympanic recess eventually become?
The middle ear cavity and the eustachian tube
30
Which reflex refers to the response when an infant is startled and then throws out their arms and legs and begins to cry?
Moro reflex
31
Describe the location of the primary auditory cortex (A1)
A1 is located on the transverse gyri of the superior temporal gyrus of the temporal lobe, inside the lateral fissure.
32
In the embryo, which flexure of the developing neural tube marks the location where the future brainstem meets the future spinal cord, and this bend straightens out over time during development?
Cervical flexure
33
List functions or expected actions from infants that can be used as indicators of possible abnormalities if the infant is not performing these functions
Sucking, rooting, regulating temperature, swallowing, muscle tone and movement, sleeping, peeing and pooping regularly
34
Be able to describe the path of the medial lemniscus in the sensory pathway given an image.
Axons of the second order neurons leaving the nucleus gracilis and nucleus cuneatus in the medulla, crossing midline and then ascending to the thalamus
35
Once a nerve reaches its threshold to fire an action potential, what is the first step in a change in membrane permeability along the axon to begin the propagation of the bioelectrical change that is the action potential?
The opening of voltage-gated ion channels allowing an influx (inward flow) of Na+ to rapidly depolarize the neuron at the axon hillock
36
What term best describes the brief time period after the peak of an action potential during which another action potential cannot be generated no matter how much the cell membrane is depolarized?
Absolute refractory period
37
Describe the resting membrane potential of a neuron
The inside of the cell is about -70 millivolts compared to the extracellular fluid due to high concentration of sodium outside of the cell and a high concentration of potassium inside the cell
38
According to the House-Brackmann Facial Paralysis Scale, what does Grade I refer to vs Grade VI?
Grade I is normal function and Grade VI is total paralysis
39
If there is a patient with Bell's Palsy, which test might an audiologist use to help in diagnosis and assessment of recovery from palsy?
Acoustic reflex testing
39
T/F: There is no somatotopic mapping of body parts/areas in the pathway of the spinal cord because somatotopic mapping only begins in the primary motor and primary somatosensory cortices in the cerebrum.
False
39
What is located directly beneath the arachnoid mater?
Subarachnoid space filled with cerebrospinal fluid
40
The blood-brain barrier includes which of the following?
The tight junctions in the endothelial cells that line the capillaries of the central nervous system which prevent most macromolecules form entering or leaving the central nervous system
41
Following a skull fracture and the tearing of meningeal arteries, there may be bleeding between skull bones and the dura that can be fatal unless treated. This is known as what?
epidural hematoma
41
Briefly describe the production, flow, and absorption of CSF.
Produced by the choroid plexus in the ventricles, flows from lateral ventricle through interventricular foramina to third ventricle and then to the fourth ventricle through the cerebral aqueduct. It exits the fourth ventricle through the foramina of Luschka and foramen of Magendie to the subarachnoid space to be absorbed by arachnoid villi into the superior sagittal sinus and then exiting through the jugular veins.
41
What is the specific name of the condition caused when there is a build-up of CSF within the subarachnoid space due to the lack of absorption of the CSF by the arachnoid villi, after the CSF has exited the ventricles and is flowing in the subarachnoid space?
Communicating hydrocephalus
42
What type of cells form myelin on the axons in the central nervous system?
Oligodendrocytes
43
The ability to sense the position of one's limbs is known as what?
Proprioception
44
Briefly describe some functions of the integumentary system.
Protection from invasion, protect from UV, heat control, sensory reception, vitamin D production, excretion (sweat).
45
Which glands of the skin release sodium chloride, urea, uric acid and other substances out through the skin and also help with heat regulation to cool the body?
Sweat glands
46
What is the largest bundle of axon that serves as the main interhemispheric connection between the right and the left hemisphere?
Corpus Callosum
47
What type of proprioceptors detect/measure muscle tension?
Golgi tendon organs
48
Separations in the layers of the dura form cavities which are part of the drainage system of the brain and are known as what?
Venous sinuses
49
Which layer of the skin mainly contains adipose (fat) tissue?
Hypodermis/subcutaneous
50
Give a brief description of embryologic development for the inner ear.
The development of the inner ear begins with the thickening of the ectoderm which develops into otic placodes which then turs into otic pits. The otic pits develop into cysts and split into cochlear and vestibular portions. The cochlea will begin to coil. The cochlear and vestibular labyrinth is cartilaginous and then ossifies throughout development, with SCC developing before the cochlea. The statoacoustic ganglion begin to form and eventually develop into CN VIII.
51
Describe the formation and function of myelin.
Myelin is a lipid tissue produced by specialized glial cells which wrap around neuronal axons in segments to insulate the neuron and increase transmission speed of neural signals.
52
What term does not refer to a collection/bundle of axons in he central nervous system?
Ganglia
53
What structures are considered a part of the limbic system?
Cingulate gyrus, amygdala, hippocampus
54
With a lesion impacting the lower motor neuron portion of a pathway, which type of symptoms are you likely to see?
Symptoms that are ipsilateral to the location of the lesion
55
Which monosynaptic reflex is the result of a quick stretching of a muscle spindle that goes to the spinal cord and then activates the motor neurons of that muscle to contract, making the muscle jerk or "kick"?
Stretch Reflex (aka Deep Tendon Reflex)
56
T/F: Regeneration of neurons can be successful in the peripheral nervous system due to the arrangement/spacing of fibers and facilitating factors such as guiding Schwann tubes and the growing neuron sprouts being attracted to a high number of acetylcholine receptors.
True
57
Which dermatome innervates the area of the umbilical cord/belly button.
T10