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Immunology Final Study > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

If performing antibody testing in infectious mononucleosis and the EBNA IgG is negative, the patient has not had a recent (acute) infection.

True
False

A

True

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2
Q

This hepatitis is known as a severe and rapidly progressive liver disease with no proven effective therapy.

Hep A
Hep B
Hep C
Hep D

A

Hep A

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3
Q

The goal of vaccination is not:

To produce artificially acquired, active immunity against a specific disease
To promote herd immunity
To prevent contagious infectious diseases worldwide
To implant tracking chips in individuals

A

To implant tracking chips in individuals

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4
Q

The viruses polio, hepatitis A, rabies, and Japanese encephalitis are examples of ________ vaccines.

DNA
Live, attenuated
Inactivated
Virus-like particle

A

Inactivated

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5
Q

Place in the correct order the model of vaccine development.

Determine the target
Initial human trials
Establish manufacturing and distribution
Identify and sequence the pathogen
Conduct preclinical trials
Obtain regulatory approval

A

Identify and sequence the pathogen
Determine the target
Conduct preclinical trials
Initial human trials
Obtain regulatory approval
Establish manufacturing and distribution

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6
Q

Which type of infection has three forms which include: lymphatic, disseminated, and respiratory

Cryptococcus
Sporotrichosis
North American Blastomycosis
Aspergillosis

A

Sporotrichosis

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7
Q

Which disease has the causative agent found mainly in soil contaminated with chicken, bird, or bat excreta.

Histoplasmosis
Aspergillosis
Coccidioidomycosis
Sporotrichosis

A

Histoplasmosis

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8
Q

The SARS-CoV2 viral spike protein uses which receptor to enter epithelial cells.

PACER
CASE1
ACE2
ACE5

A

ACE2

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9
Q

The sources of Toxoplasmosis include:

Fecal contamination of food and water
Inadequate handwashing
Raw milk
both a and b
all of the above

A

all of the above

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10
Q

For the avidity test for IgG with Toxoplasmosis, match the avidity type with the infection indication

Low avidity
High avidity

infection 5 or more months before assay was performed
infection within the past 8 months

A

Low avidity
infection within the past 8 months

High avidity
infection 5 or more months before assay was performed

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11
Q

If a woman is considering becoming pregnant and is not immune to rubella, it is ok if she get the vaccine during her first trimester.

True
False

A

False

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12
Q

Which is the important antibody to test in suspected causes of congenital rubella

IgM
IgG
IgA
IgD

A

IgM

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13
Q

Rubeola is moderately contagious with a transmission rate of approximately 45%.

True
False

A

False

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14
Q

Herpes simplex virus 2 is generally found in and around oral cavities and skin lesions above the waist.

True
False

A

False

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15
Q

In immunohistochemistry, the indirect method is more versatile than the direct method.

True
False

A

True

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16
Q

A type I hypersensitivity reaction is:

Cytotoxic reaction
Cell-mediated
Immune complex reaction
Anaphylactic reaction

A

Anaphylactic reaction

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17
Q

This type of reaction is cell-mediated.

I
II
III
IV

A

IV

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18
Q

Arrange the sequence of events in anaphylaxis reactions.

Activated mast cells and basophils release various mediators
The effects of mediator release produce vascular changes and activation of platelets, eosinophils, neutrophils, and the coagulation cascade
Offending antigen attaches to the IgE antibody fixed to cell membrane of basophiles and mast cells

A

Offending antigen attaches to the IgE antibody fixed to cell membrane of basophiles and mast cells

Activated mast cells and basophils release various mediators

The effects of mediator release produce vascular changes and activation of platelets, eosinophils, neutrophils, and the coagulation cascade

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19
Q

What factors should be considered when testing for allergens

Patient’s age
Symptoms
Home environment
Both B and C
All of the above

A

All of the above

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20
Q

Which type of cytotoxic injury is the mechanism of injury in antibody mediated glomerulonephritis.

Antibody-dependent, complement-mediated cytotoxic reaction
Antibody-dependent, cell-mediated cytotoxicity
Antireceptor antibodies

A

Antibody-dependent, cell-mediated cytotoxicity

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21
Q

The most common cause for immediate hemolytic reactions is:

Bacterial contamination of blood
Preexisting antibodies due to previous transfusions or pregancy
ABO incompatible blood
Infusion of hemolyzed RBCs

A

ABO incompatible blood

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22
Q

Farmer lung is an example of this type of reaction:

Anaphylactic
Cytotoxic
Cell-mediated
Immune complex disease

A

Immune complex disease

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23
Q

Type IV reactions are moderated by the link between:

T lymphocytes and phagocytic cell
T lymphocytes and B lymphocytes
B lymphocytes and phagocytic cells
Mast cells and phagocytic cells

A

T lymphocytes and phagocytic cell

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24
Q

The Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research (CBER) regulates:

Laboratory safety
Vaccine products
Personnel qualifications
Research grants

A

Vaccine products

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25
Q

Anthrax vaccine:

Offers protection against bioterrorism
Offers protection against cervical cancer
Is not available for preventing congenital infection
Is a DNA based vaccine

A

Offers protection against bioterrorism

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26
Q

Hepatitis refers to inflammation of the:

Spleen
Gallbladder
Pancreas
Liver

A

Liver

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27
Q

This virus often superinfects with hepatitis B

HAV
HDV
HEV
HCV

A

HDV

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28
Q

This type of vaccine is the closest to exposure to natural infection:

Inactivated
Live, attenuated
DNA
Nucleic acid

A

Live, attenuated

29
Q

In the latent stage of syphilis, a clinical finding is:

Diagnosis only by serologic methods
Presence of gummas
Development of a chancre
Generalized illness followed by macular lesions in most patients

A

Diagnosis only by serologic methods

30
Q

The FTA-ABS test is a

Treponemal method
Nontreponemal method

A

Treponemal method

31
Q

Syphilis was initially treated with:

Fuller’s earth
Heavy metals (e.g., arsenic)
Sulfonamides (e.g., triple sulfa)
Antibiotics (e.g., penicillin)

A

Heavy metals (e.g., arsenic)

32
Q

Immunocompetent patients infected with T. pallidum produce:

Specific antibodies against T. pallidum
Nonspecific antibodies against the protein antigen group common to pathogenic spirochetes
Reagin antibodies
All of the above

A

All of the above

33
Q

All of the following characteristics are descriptive of M protein except:

No known biological role
Found in association with the hyaluronic capsule
Inhibits phagocytosis
Antibody against M protein provides type-specific immunity

A

No known biological role

34
Q

The classic tests to demonstrate the presence of streptococcal infection are:

ASO and anti-NADase
ASO and anti-DNase B
Anti-NADase and anti-DNase
Both a and b

A

ASO and anti-DNase B

35
Q

EBV can cause all of the following except:

Infectious mononucleosis
Burkitt lymphoma
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Neoplasms of the bone marrow

A

Neoplasms of the bone marrow

36
Q

The incubation period of infectious mononucleosis is:

2 to 4 days
10 to 15 days
10 to 50 days
51 to 91 days

A

10 to 50 days

37
Q

Lyme disease is a _________ type of infection.

Bacterial
Parasitic
Viral
Fungal

A

Bacterial

38
Q

Unlike some procedure, the PCR assay can be used to detect Lyme disease causing organisms in:

Urine
CSF
Synovial fluid
Blood

A

Synovial fluid

39
Q

One of the most common physical findings in adults with ehrlichiosis is:

Hives
Fever
Erythema chronicum migrans
Nausea

A

Fever

40
Q

Babesiosis is characterized by:

Fever
Fatigue
Hemolytic anemia
All of the above

A

All of the above

41
Q

West Nile virus causes:

Encephalitis
Polio
Measles
Arthritis

A

Encephalitis

42
Q

Serologic procedures for the diagnosis of recent infection should include:

Only an acute specimen
Only a convalescent specimen
Acute and convalescent specimens
Acute, convalescent, and 6 month post infection specimen

A

Acute and convalescent specimens

43
Q

Toxoplasmosis is a ___________ infection.

Bacterial
Parasitic
Mycotic
Viral

A

Parasitic

44
Q

Before the licensing of rubella vaccine in the U.S. in 1969, epidemics occurred at _____ year intervals.

2 to 3
5 to 7
6 to 9
10 to 20

A

6 to 9

45
Q

IgG antibodies to rubella virus increase rapidly for _______ days after the acquisition of the infection.

2 to 8
3-10
5 to 15
7 to 21

A

7 to 21

46
Q

A characteristic of CMV immediate-early antigen is:

They appear 72 hours after infection or at the end of the viral replication cycle
They appear within 1 hour of cellular infection
They are present within 24 hours
Either a or c

A

They appear within 1 hour of cellular infection

47
Q

A distinguishing characteristic of the herpes virus is that:

They are cell-associated viruses
They are enveloped RNA
Human beings are the only known reservoir of infection
Both a and c

A

Both a and c

48
Q

Up to _______ of infants develop antibody to HHV-6 by 10-11 months of age.

25%
50%
75%
90%

A

75%

49
Q

A type II hypersensitivity reaction is a:

Cytotoxic reaction
Cell-mediated reaction
Immune complex reaction
Anaphylactic reaction

A

Cytotoxic reaction

50
Q

With which cell type are anaphylactic reactions associated?

T lymphocyte
B lymphocyte
Monocyte
Mast

A

Mast

51
Q

Type I hypersensitivity reactions can be associated with:

Food allergies
Hay fever
Asthma
All of the above

A

All of the above

52
Q

An example of a delayed nonhemolytic (type II hypersensitivity) reaction is:

Febrile
Graft-vs-host disease
Urticaria
Congestive heart failure

A

Graft-vs-host disease

53
Q

Under normal conditions, immune complexes protect the host because they:

Facilitate the clearance of various antigens
Facilitate the clearance of invading organisms
Both a and b
Neither a nor b

A

Both a and b

54
Q

Type IV hypersensitivity reactions are responsible for all of the following except:

Contact sensitivity
Serum sickness
Elimination of tumor cells
Rejection of foreign tissue grafts

A

Serum sickness

55
Q

Select the correct order of syphilis infections.

Primary, secondary, latent, tertiary
Primary, secondary, tertiary
Primary, latent, secondary, tertiary

A

Primary, secondary, latent, tertiary

56
Q

Which infectious disease can alter T lymphocyte subsets?

Toxoplasmosis
Rubella
Rubeola
CMV
Varicella-Zoster virus

A

CMV

57
Q

Select all of the diseases that must be reported to the CDC.

Chlamydia
Gonorrhea
Group B strep
Syphilis

A

Chlamydia
Gonorrhea
Syphilis

58
Q

Treponema carateum is the causative organism associated with the disease

Yaws
Syphilis
Pinta
Bejel

A

Pinta

59
Q

Treponema pallidum is the causative organism associated with the disease

Yaws
Syphilis
Pinta
Bejel

A

Syphilis

60
Q

Pathogenic are cultivatable with consistency in artificial media

True
False

A

False

61
Q

How can latent syphilis be detected?

Detection of spirochetes in lesions
Serological testing
Both a and b
Neither a or b; latent syphilis cannot be detected

A

Serological testing

62
Q

Which symptomatic neurosyphilis involves inflammation of the pia mater?

Meningeal
Meningovascular
Parenchymatous

A

Meningovascular

63
Q

What is the enzyme that dissolves clots by converting plasminogen to plasmin?

Hyaluronidase
Streptolysin O
Streptolysin S
Streptokinase

A

Streptokinase

64
Q

EBV causes an increase in CD8+ T cells.

True
False

A

True

65
Q

What is the major virulence factor for S. pyogenes?

Lipoteichaic acid
M protein
Hyaluronic acid capsule
Peptidoglycan

A

M protein

66
Q

EBV-infected B lymphocytes express all the following new antigens except:

Viral capsid antigen (VCA)
Early antigen (EA)
Nuclear antigen (NA)
Cytoplasmic antigen (CA)

A

Cytoplasmic antigen (CA)

67
Q

Microencephaly is a hallmark of infection with this disease.

West Nile virus
Dengue virus
Zika virus
Chikungunya disease

A

Zika virus

68
Q

Infants infected with EBV are less likely to experience symptomatic infection than EBV-infected adolescents.

True
False

A

True

69
Q

The primary mode of EBV transmission is:

Exposure to blood
Exposure to oral-pharyngeal secretions
Congenital transmission
Fecal contamination of drinking water

A

Exposure to oral-pharyngeal secretions

Immunology Final Study (3 decks)

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