Exam 2 Flashcards by Doug Thompson

If performing antibody testing in infectious mononucleosis and the EBNA IgG is negative, the patient has not had a recent (acute) infection.

True
False

True

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This hepatitis is known as a severe and rapidly progressive liver disease with no proven effective therapy.

Hep A
Hep B
Hep C
Hep D

Hep A

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The goal of vaccination is not:

To produce artificially acquired, active immunity against a specific disease
To promote herd immunity
To prevent contagious infectious diseases worldwide
To implant tracking chips in individuals

To implant tracking chips in individuals

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The viruses polio, hepatitis A, rabies, and Japanese encephalitis are examples of ________ vaccines.

DNA
Live, attenuated
Inactivated
Virus-like particle

Inactivated

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Place in the correct order the model of vaccine development.

Determine the target
Initial human trials
Establish manufacturing and distribution
Identify and sequence the pathogen
Conduct preclinical trials
Obtain regulatory approval

Identify and sequence the pathogen
Determine the target
Conduct preclinical trials
Initial human trials
Obtain regulatory approval
Establish manufacturing and distribution

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Which type of infection has three forms which include: lymphatic, disseminated, and respiratory

Cryptococcus
Sporotrichosis
North American Blastomycosis
Aspergillosis

Sporotrichosis

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Which disease has the causative agent found mainly in soil contaminated with chicken, bird, or bat excreta.

Histoplasmosis
Aspergillosis
Coccidioidomycosis
Sporotrichosis

Histoplasmosis

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The SARS-CoV2 viral spike protein uses which receptor to enter epithelial cells.

PACER
CASE1
ACE2
ACE5

ACE2

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The sources of Toxoplasmosis include:

Fecal contamination of food and water
Inadequate handwashing
Raw milk
both a and b
all of the above

all of the above

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For the avidity test for IgG with Toxoplasmosis, match the avidity type with the infection indication

Low avidity
High avidity

infection 5 or more months before assay was performed
infection within the past 8 months

Low avidity
infection within the past 8 months

High avidity
infection 5 or more months before assay was performed

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If a woman is considering becoming pregnant and is not immune to rubella, it is ok if she get the vaccine during her first trimester.

True
False

False

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Which is the important antibody to test in suspected causes of congenital rubella

IgM
IgG
IgA
IgD

IgM

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Rubeola is moderately contagious with a transmission rate of approximately 45%.

True
False

False

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Herpes simplex virus 2 is generally found in and around oral cavities and skin lesions above the waist.

True
False

False

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In immunohistochemistry, the indirect method is more versatile than the direct method.

True
False

True

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A type I hypersensitivity reaction is:

Cytotoxic reaction
Cell-mediated
Immune complex reaction
Anaphylactic reaction

Anaphylactic reaction

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This type of reaction is cell-mediated.

I
II
III
IV

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Arrange the sequence of events in anaphylaxis reactions.

Activated mast cells and basophils release various mediators
The effects of mediator release produce vascular changes and activation of platelets, eosinophils, neutrophils, and the coagulation cascade
Offending antigen attaches to the IgE antibody fixed to cell membrane of basophiles and mast cells

Offending antigen attaches to the IgE antibody fixed to cell membrane of basophiles and mast cells

Activated mast cells and basophils release various mediators

The effects of mediator release produce vascular changes and activation of platelets, eosinophils, neutrophils, and the coagulation cascade

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What factors should be considered when testing for allergens

Patient’s age
Symptoms
Home environment
Both B and C
All of the above

All of the above

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Which type of cytotoxic injury is the mechanism of injury in antibody mediated glomerulonephritis.

Antibody-dependent, complement-mediated cytotoxic reaction
Antibody-dependent, cell-mediated cytotoxicity
Antireceptor antibodies

Antibody-dependent, cell-mediated cytotoxicity

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The most common cause for immediate hemolytic reactions is:

Bacterial contamination of blood
Preexisting antibodies due to previous transfusions or pregancy
ABO incompatible blood
Infusion of hemolyzed RBCs

ABO incompatible blood

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Farmer lung is an example of this type of reaction:

Anaphylactic
Cytotoxic
Cell-mediated
Immune complex disease

Immune complex disease

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Type IV reactions are moderated by the link between:

T lymphocytes and phagocytic cell
T lymphocytes and B lymphocytes
B lymphocytes and phagocytic cells
Mast cells and phagocytic cells

T lymphocytes and phagocytic cell

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The Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research (CBER) regulates:

Laboratory safety
Vaccine products
Personnel qualifications
Research grants

Vaccine products

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Anthrax vaccine: Offers protection against bioterrorism Offers protection against cervical cancer Is not available for preventing congenital infection Is a DNA based vaccine

Offers protection against bioterrorism

Hepatitis refers to inflammation of the: Spleen Gallbladder Pancreas Liver

Liver

This virus often superinfects with hepatitis B HAV HDV HEV HCV

HDV

This type of vaccine is the closest to exposure to natural infection: Inactivated Live, attenuated DNA Nucleic acid

Live, attenuated

In the latent stage of syphilis, a clinical finding is: Diagnosis only by serologic methods Presence of gummas Development of a chancre Generalized illness followed by macular lesions in most patients

Diagnosis only by serologic methods

The FTA-ABS test is a Treponemal method Nontreponemal method

Treponemal method

Syphilis was initially treated with: Fuller's earth Heavy metals (e.g., arsenic) Sulfonamides (e.g., triple sulfa) Antibiotics (e.g., penicillin)

Heavy metals (e.g., arsenic)

Immunocompetent patients infected with T. pallidum produce: Specific antibodies against T. pallidum Nonspecific antibodies against the protein antigen group common to pathogenic spirochetes Reagin antibodies All of the above

All of the above

All of the following characteristics are descriptive of M protein except: No known biological role Found in association with the hyaluronic capsule Inhibits phagocytosis Antibody against M protein provides type-specific immunity

No known biological role

The classic tests to demonstrate the presence of streptococcal infection are: ASO and anti-NADase ASO and anti-DNase B Anti-NADase and anti-DNase Both a and b

ASO and anti-DNase B

EBV can cause all of the following except: Infectious mononucleosis Burkitt lymphoma Nasopharyngeal carcinoma Neoplasms of the bone marrow

Neoplasms of the bone marrow

The incubation period of infectious mononucleosis is: 2 to 4 days 10 to 15 days 10 to 50 days 51 to 91 days

10 to 50 days

Lyme disease is a _________ type of infection. Bacterial Parasitic Viral Fungal

Bacterial

Unlike some procedure, the PCR assay can be used to detect Lyme disease causing organisms in: Urine CSF Synovial fluid Blood

Synovial fluid

One of the most common physical findings in adults with ehrlichiosis is: Hives Fever Erythema chronicum migrans Nausea

Fever

Babesiosis is characterized by: Fever Fatigue Hemolytic anemia All of the above

All of the above

West Nile virus causes: Encephalitis Polio Measles Arthritis

Encephalitis

Serologic procedures for the diagnosis of recent infection should include: Only an acute specimen Only a convalescent specimen Acute and convalescent specimens Acute, convalescent, and 6 month post infection specimen

Acute and convalescent specimens

Toxoplasmosis is a ___________ infection. Bacterial Parasitic Mycotic Viral

Parasitic

Before the licensing of rubella vaccine in the U.S. in 1969, epidemics occurred at _____ year intervals. 2 to 3 5 to 7 6 to 9 10 to 20

6 to 9

IgG antibodies to rubella virus increase rapidly for _______ days after the acquisition of the infection. 2 to 8 3-10 5 to 15 7 to 21

7 to 21

A characteristic of CMV immediate-early antigen is: They appear 72 hours after infection or at the end of the viral replication cycle They appear within 1 hour of cellular infection They are present within 24 hours Either a or c

They appear within 1 hour of cellular infection

A distinguishing characteristic of the herpes virus is that: They are cell-associated viruses They are enveloped RNA Human beings are the only known reservoir of infection Both a and c

Both a and c

Up to _______ of infants develop antibody to HHV-6 by 10-11 months of age. 25% 50% 75% 90%

75%

A type II hypersensitivity reaction is a: Cytotoxic reaction Cell-mediated reaction Immune complex reaction Anaphylactic reaction

Cytotoxic reaction

With which cell type are anaphylactic reactions associated? T lymphocyte B lymphocyte Monocyte Mast

Mast

Type I hypersensitivity reactions can be associated with: Food allergies Hay fever Asthma All of the above

All of the above

An example of a delayed nonhemolytic (type II hypersensitivity) reaction is: Febrile Graft-vs-host disease Urticaria Congestive heart failure

Graft-vs-host disease

Under normal conditions, immune complexes protect the host because they: Facilitate the clearance of various antigens Facilitate the clearance of invading organisms Both a and b Neither a nor b

Both a and b

Type IV hypersensitivity reactions are responsible for all of the following except: Contact sensitivity Serum sickness Elimination of tumor cells Rejection of foreign tissue grafts

Serum sickness

Select the correct order of syphilis infections. Primary, secondary, latent, tertiary Primary, secondary, tertiary Primary, latent, secondary, tertiary

Primary, secondary, latent, tertiary

Which infectious disease can alter T lymphocyte subsets? Toxoplasmosis Rubella Rubeola CMV Varicella-Zoster virus

CMV

Select all of the diseases that must be reported to the CDC. Chlamydia Gonorrhea Group B strep Syphilis

Chlamydia Gonorrhea Syphilis

Treponema carateum is the causative organism associated with the disease Yaws Syphilis Pinta Bejel

Pinta

Treponema pallidum is the causative organism associated with the disease Yaws Syphilis Pinta Bejel

Syphilis

Pathogenic are cultivatable with consistency in artificial media True False

False

How can latent syphilis be detected? Detection of spirochetes in lesions Serological testing Both a and b Neither a or b; latent syphilis cannot be detected

Serological testing

Which symptomatic neurosyphilis involves inflammation of the pia mater? Meningeal Meningovascular Parenchymatous

Meningovascular

What is the enzyme that dissolves clots by converting plasminogen to plasmin? Hyaluronidase Streptolysin O Streptolysin S Streptokinase

Streptokinase

EBV causes an increase in CD8+ T cells. True False

True

What is the major virulence factor for S. pyogenes? Lipoteichaic acid M protein Hyaluronic acid capsule Peptidoglycan

M protein

EBV-infected B lymphocytes express all the following new antigens except: Viral capsid antigen (VCA) Early antigen (EA) Nuclear antigen (NA) Cytoplasmic antigen (CA)

Cytoplasmic antigen (CA)

Microencephaly is a hallmark of infection with this disease. West Nile virus Dengue virus Zika virus Chikungunya disease

Zika virus

Infants infected with EBV are less likely to experience symptomatic infection than EBV-infected adolescents. True False

True

The primary mode of EBV transmission is: Exposure to blood Exposure to oral-pharyngeal secretions Congenital transmission Fecal contamination of drinking water

Exposure to oral-pharyngeal secretions

Exam 2 Flashcards

(69 cards)