exam 2 Flashcards

(121 cards)

1
Q

solution

A

a mixture, usually 2 parts, solute and solvent

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2
Q

solute

A

the part that is dissolved
(usually minor part)

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3
Q

solvent

A

the part that dissolves the solute
(usually water)

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4
Q

diluent

A

a substance that dilutes a fluid

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5
Q

dilution

A

adding diluent to a concentrated solution to decrease the concentration

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6
Q

concentrated solutions

A

large portions of solute in solution

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7
Q

water purity type 1

A
  • best quality
  • reagents
  • standards
  • controls
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8
Q

water purity type 2

A
  • good quality
  • solutions
  • stored in closed bottles for a short time
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9
Q

water purity type 3

A
  • lowest quality
  • washing
  • makes type 1 and 2
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10
Q

purity

A

determined by amount of electrical resistance

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11
Q

steps to water purification system

A

distillation, deionization, reverse osmosis, carbon absorption, and filtration

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12
Q

quality control

A

resistivity, temperature, filter life, and bacterial growth

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13
Q

<5 the number to be rounded…

A

does not change

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14
Q

> 5 the number to be rounded…

A

increase by 1

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15
Q

if the number to be dropped is a 5 and the number before it is ODD…

A

increase by 1

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16
Q

if the number to be dropped is a 5 and the number before it is EVEN…

A

it will stay the same

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17
Q

hematology

A

the study of blood and blood forming tissues

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18
Q

complete blood count

A

tested # of RBCs, WBCs, and platelets
- differential
- hemoglobin

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19
Q

complete blood count diagnose

A

anemia, leukaemia, infection, thalassemia

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20
Q

are clots allowed in hematology specimens?

A

NO

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21
Q

factors affecting the quality of a peripheral blood smear (PBS)

A
  • age of specimen
  • quality of glass slides
  • drop size
  • properly mixed blood
  • quick smear after drop
  • correct technique
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22
Q

what stain do we use at SAIT

A

wrights

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23
Q

steps of staining for wrights

A

-fixation
-staining
-washing

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24
Q

fixation

A

-kills blood cells
-dehydrates cells
-causes cells to adhere to the glass slide

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25
staining
first undiluted stain is flooded onto the smear to permeate the cells - methylene blue - azures A,B,C, methylene violet - eosin Y (each of these components dyes stain different parts of the cells)
26
what are the components dyes used in the staining process
-methylene blue - azures A,B,C, methylene violet - eosin Y (each of these components dyes stain different parts of the cells)
27
washing
staining is stopped by rinsing off the stain - buffer with an excess of buffer and then air drying the stained smear.
28
staining QC
PBS is stained and checked for colour, stain intensity and artifacts (precipitate)
29
basic dyes attach to *** components
ACID🟪 - purplish colour
30
acid dyes attach to *** components
BASIC🩷🧡 - pinky orange colour
31
erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
- distance in mm that RBC will fall per unit time (mm/hr) - tubes placed vertically
32
who has to order a ESR
dermatologist
33
ESR distance from plasma meniscus to RBC meniscus?
measured after ONE hour
34
3 main areas in chemistry
routine chem routine urinalysis special chem
35
serum
liquid portion without clotting factors
36
plasma
liquid portion with clotting factors
37
gestational diabetes
screen —> NO fasting —> 50g glucose —> 1hr
38
GTT gestational (pregnant)
fasting —> 75g glucose —> 1hr —> 2hrs
39
GTT non gestational
fasting —> 75g glucose —> 2hrs
40
sodium
primary EXTRAcellular ion
41
potassium
major INTRAcellular ion
42
chloride
2nd most prevalent extracellular ion
43
bilirubin specimens must be collected away from ***
light to prevent falsely decreased results
44
pheresis collections
used to collect only plasma or platelets
45
autologous donations
donates whole blood for their own use
46
packed RBCs
decreased oxygen carrying capacity
47
plasma (plasmapheresis)
deficiencies of all coagulation factors
48
platelets (plateletpheresis)
not enough platelets
49
how many people need to verify identity of patient when doing a collection of blood for compatibility testing?
2 people independently must verify
50
compatibility test is called?
type and screen
51
what’s a cross match?
patient plasma mixed with donor cells
52
what’s a cause of hemolytic disease of newborn (HDN)?
incompatibility of mother and fetus due to Rh factor - mom is Rh neg and baby is Rh pos
53
when bags are centrifuged at the CBS what’s the different layers?
top: plasma middle: buffy coat bottom: RBCs
54
flammability range
the concentration range of vapour or air in which the mixture will burn
55
flash point
the lowest temp where enough vapour is given off to form a flammable mixture with air
56
TLV or PEL
maximum limit of exposure to an air contaminant
57
STEL
maximum concentration that can be tolerated for 15 mins from time to time
58
what are the 3 component of WHMIS
- SDS - labels - education
59
PBS: spreader angle >30 degrees
smear to thick and short
60
PBS spreader angle is <30 degrees
smear too thin and long
61
lifting the spreader before the end of the slide…
tails
62
correct angle between spreader and slide
30 degrees
63
monolayer
where RBCs are evenly spaced
64
the smear should be made from *** anti coagulated blood within *** hours of collection
EDTA, 3 hours
65
acidic dye component is ***, staining parts of the cell a *** colour
eosin, red colour
66
the basic dye component is ***, staining parts of the cell a *** colour
methylene blue, blue colour
67
slides are fixed in ***
methanol
68
the HEMA-TEK is an *** stained that works by *** action
automatic, capillary
69
in the ESR procedure RBCs are allowed to settle for *** hour
one hour
70
what 2 things can falsely increase ESR results?
- SED rate tube not vertical - vibration
71
what tests are performed on donated blood?
- antibody screen - ABO/Rh type - anti-HIV screen
72
what component matches with thrombocytopenia
platelet concentrate
73
what component matches with burn patients
albumin
74
what component matches with decreased oxygen carrying capacity
red cell concentrate
75
what component matches with coagulation factor deficiencies
plasma
76
what component matches with hemophilia A
factor VIII concentrate
77
what component matches with prevention of Rh HDN
Rh immune globulin
78
what component matched with an expensive product containing performed antibodies
IV immune globulins
79
in a cross match the patients *** is tested with the donors ***
plasma, red cells
80
when a baby is born with HDN, the blood chemistry test that is monitored is
bilirubin
81
Rh HDN occurs when the mother is Rh *** and the baby is Rh ***
negative, positive
82
what is the only red blood cell type that can be transfused to a type O patient?
O
83
what is the universal donor of red blood cells?
O negative
84
WHMIS divided into two groups
physical and health hazards
85
safety showers
shower for 15 mins
86
eye wash station
get to station within 10 seconds, keep eyes open and wash for minimum 15 minutes
87
workplace labels are required when a product is:
- transferred to a different container - hazardous material produced on site - supplier label has been damaged or removed
88
the lower the flashpoint the greater the?
danger
89
LD50
the amount of substance that will kill 50% of the test animals
90
LC50
the amount of a substance in air that will kill 50% of the test animals when inhaled for a specific length of time
91
can clotted specimens be tested?
NO
92
what is the purpose of the cytocentrifuge
concentrate bacteria and or cells from liquid specimens like CSF, synovial & pleural fluid.
93
the main areas of chemistry
routine chem routine urinalysis special chem
94
serum is the liquid portion of blood…
without clotting factors
95
plasma is the liquid portion of blood…
with coagulation factors
96
types of specimens submitted to the chem department
urine blood feces CSF
97
hyperglycemia
increased glucose in blood
98
hypoglycemia
decreased glucose in the blood
99
how long for the blood glucose level to return to normal if having temporary hyperglycemia
2 hours of the meal
100
sodium ion is the primary…
extracelluar ion in the body
101
potassium is the major…
intracellular ion in the body
102
damaged or destroyed RBCs will…
release potassium and falsely elevate patient results
103
lipids are…
fatty substances in the blood
104
do lipid tests require fasting?
no
105
what’s the most prevalent type of protein?
albumin
106
the other types of protein is *** and are ***
globulins and are clumped together in that class
107
urea and creatinine are both…
waste products
108
protect bilirubin specimens away from **** as it….
UV rays. as bilirubin breaks down and gives falsely low results
109
clinical significance of bilirubin is
jaundice
110
some therapeutic drugs require the monitoring and evaluation of…
peak and trough drug levels
111
what specimen is preferred for a drug screening?
urine
112
plasma is stored in monitored blood bank freezes at less than *** and stored for ***
-18 degrees and stored for one year
113
what is the product that relates to thrombocytopenia?
platelet concentrate
114
what is the product that relates to burn patients?
albumin
115
what is the product that relates to decreased oxygen carrying capacity?
red cell concentrate
116
what is the product that relates to coagulation factor deficiencies?
plasma
117
what is the product that relates to hemophilia A?
factor VII concentrate
118
what is the product that relates to prevention of Rh HDN
Rh immune globulin
119
what is the product that relates to an expensive product containing performed antibodies?
IV immune globulins
120
in a cross match the patients *** is tested with the doctors ***
plasma, red cells
121
what is the only red blood cell type that can be transfused to a type O patient?
O