Exam 2 Flashcards
(133 cards)
1
Q
Is hyperemia an active or passive processes that results from arteriolar dilation and increased blood flow
A
active process
2
Q
What is a passive process resulting from impaired outflow of venous blood from a tissue
A
congestion
3
Q
What involves the morphemic appearance associated with chronic passive congestion
A
nutmeg liver
4
Q
True or false; edema is the result of an increase in hydrostatic pressure of diminished colloid osmotic pressure
A
true
5
Q
Reduced cardiac output lead to hypo perfusion of the kidneys which stimulates retention of what ion
A
sodium
6
Q
Peau d’orange is associated with which what?
A
Lymphatic obstruction
7
Q
Dependent edema is most pronounced in what region of an individual
A
sacral region
8
Q
Low platelet counts in the blood (thrombocytopenia) or vitamin C deficiency commonly causes the development of what
A
Petechiae (small red spots)
9
Q
Activated thrombin stimulates the formation of an insoluble
A
fibrin clot
10
Q
True or false; hematoma is likely to cause iron deficiency anemia
A
false
11
Q
Platelets come into contact with von willebrand factor (vWF) following what?
A
endothelial injury
12
Q
What converts fibrinogen into fibrin during the coagulation cascade
A
thrombin
13
Q
Endothelial injury, abnormal blood flow, hyper coagulability all the 3 parts of what
A
Virchow’s triad
14
Q
A mutation of ___________ deactivates an important anti-thrombotic mechanism and predisposes individuals with this mutation to excessive thrombus formation
A
Factor V
15
Q
Late stage metastatic neoplasia and smoking are examples of what
A
secondary hyper coagulability
16
Q
True or false; mutations are associated with primary hyper coagulability
A
true
17
Q
What is the most common location for the development of venous thrombi
A
lower extremity (femoral vein in thigh)
18
Q
Thrombi on the valves of the heart are termed
A
Valvunar vegetations
19
Q
True or false; arterial thrombi are most common at the site of turbulence, and venous thrombi are most common at the site of stasis
A
true
20
Q
Approximately how much of deep vein thromboses (DVT) are asymptomatic
A
50%
21
Q
What is the most common cause of perinatal material death in the US
A
Amniotic fluid embolism
22
Q
Most systemic emboli arise within the what
A
heart
23
Q
What activités is most likely to be associated with the development of an air embolism
A
suba diving
24
Q
True or false; the presence, or absence, of an alternative blood supply is the most important factor in determining whether occlusion of an individual vessel will cause tissue infarction
A
true
25
What is the most common cause of death in intensive care units
cardiogenic shock
26
What two kinds of shock cause cool, clammy, cyanotic skin
```
hypovolemic shock
cardiogenic shock (most common cause of death in ICU)
```
27
True or false; cutaneous vasoconstriction causes skin coolness and pallor during the non-progessive stage of shock, because reflex compensatory mechanisms are still working
true
28
True or false; most young individuals who suffer from hypovolemic shock will survive
true
29
True or false; injurious immune reactions are grouped under hypersensitivity reaction, and involve inappropriately targeted or inadequately controlled immune response
true
30
Approximately how much of the population is allergic to common environmental antigens (pollen, animal dander, or dust mites)
20%
31
An immediate hypersensitivity reaction that involves damage to the host's tissue following exposure to a harmless environmental antigen is categorized as what kind of hypersensitivity reaction
Type 1
32
The late-phase reaction associated with a type 1 hypersensitivity reaction most commonly develops how long after initial exposure
2-8 hours
33
True or false; type 1 hypersensitivity reactions manifest with local systemic reactions and have a strong familial predisposition to development
true
34
Which hypersensitivity reaction involves antibody-mediated opsonizatoin of RBC
Type 2
35
Antigen-antibody (immune) complexes are associated with...
Type 3 hypersensitivity reactions
36
True or false; small amounts of immune complex formation commonly cause type 3 hypersensitivity reactions
true
37
The immediate reaction associated with a type 1 hypersensitivity reaction most commonly develops how long after initial exposure
30 minutes
38
Type 3 hypersensitivity reactions commonly involve what 3 tissues
Joints, blood vessels, kidneys
39
Contact dermatitis is an example of what kind of hypersensitivity reaction involves sensitization of TH1 CD4+ cells within dermal tissues
Type 4
40
What is commonly referred to as "delayed-type" hypersensitivity because the reaction develops in response to an antigen approximately 12-48 hours following exposure
Type 4
41
Autoimmune diseases affect what percentage of individuals within developed countries
3%
42
True or false; most individuals are tolerant to their own antigens and develop autoimmunity
true
43
True or false; central tolerance involves apoptosis of T cells and B cells within the thymus and bone marrow respectively
true
44
True of false; the pathoetiology of most autoimmune diseases is well understood
false
45
Human leukocyte antigen (HLA) alleles are associated with the _______ association of autoimmune conditions
genetic
46
UV radiation exacerbates the cutaneous lesions associated with Systematic lupus erythrematosus (SLE). This is commonly called what?
Photosensitivity
47
Anti-nuclear antibodies are __________ for the presence of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
highly sensitive
48
The most common cause of death among individuals with systemic lupus is
renal failure
49
Libman-sacks endocarditis is associated with
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
50
What condition is associated with destruction of the lacrimal and salivary glands
Sjogen syndrome ("dry mouth, dry eyes")
51
Anti-nuclear antibodies and dermoepidermal IgG antibodies are associated with
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
52
What individuals are most likely to develop Sjogren syndrome ("dry mouth, dry eyes")
35-45 year old females
53
Systemic sclerosis is most likely to involve
Cutaneous tissue
54
True or false; severe combined immunodeficiency is a cause of secondary immune deficiency
false; it is part of primary immune deficiency
55
True of false; individuals with defects in phagocytic cells typically suffer from recurrent pyogenic bacterial infections, while those with defects in cell-mediated immunity are prone to viral and fungal infections
true
56
Most primary (congenital) immune deficiencies become clinically evident by what age
6-24 months
57
X-linked agammaglobulinemia is most likely to affect which gender
boys
58
What forms of primary immune deficiency rsults in a lack of ability to produce IgG, IgA, and IgE isotypes
Hyper-IgM syndrome
59
What is the most common among Native Americans and disrupts both humoral and cell-mediated immunity
Severe combined immunodeficiency
60
What is more common; acquired immunodeficiency syndrome or therapy-induced immunosuppression
therapy-induced immunosuppression
61
The largest group of individuals infected by AIDS in Africa are
Women infected by male sexual partners
62
True or false; human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) may be transmitted via breast milk and semen
true
63
What are the two major targets of HIV
Immune system, CNS
64
Viruses characteristically migrate where during the transition into the chronic (latent) phase of HIV
Lymph nodes
65
What is the hallmark sign of AIDS
Marked reduction of CD4+ and T cells
66
HIV is most likely to be transmitted to the CNS via infected....
Monocytes
67
True or false; virtually all (>95%) of all patients infected with HIV will develop a sore throat, myalgia, fever, and rash within 3 to 6 weeks after initial infection
False
68
True or false; between 50-70% of all patients infected with HIV will develop a sore throat, myalgia, fever, and rash within 3 to 6 weeks after initial infection
true
69
What is a common fungal infection of the lungs among individuals in the crisis phase of AIDS
Pneumocystis jirovecii
70
The brain is the most common extra nodal site of B cell lymphoma development among individuals with late-stage HIV infection, and nearly 100% of such neoplasms are associated with....
Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
71
What is associated with extracellular deposits of fibrillar proteins
Amyloidosis
72
Which type of amyloid protein is most likely to be associated with long standing (chronic) inflammation
Amyloid-Associated (AA)
73
The presence of M protein spikes and Bence-jones proteins (a type of AL proteins) in the urine are features of which condition
Multiple myeloma
74
Restrictive cardiomyopathy is commonly associated with what condition
Amyloidosis
75
Macroglassia, hepatomegaly, and splenomegaly are most likely to be associated with
Amyloidosis
76
True or false; cancer is the leading cause of death in the US
false; congestive heart failure is
77
True or false; genetic alterations associated with neoplasia are passed to daughter cells upon cell division
true
78
DNA methylation and histone modifications are associated with
epigenetics
79
All tumors are....
clonal
80
What has the greatest impact on the biological behavior of a neoplasm
parenchyma
81
True or false; anaerobic glycolysis is a hallmark of cancer development
false
82
What refers to a benign neoplasm derived from glandular tissue
adenoma
83
What is a benign tumor which resembles the tissue of it's origin
Hamartoma
84
What is a mixed tumor that contains cells from 3 embryonic germ cell layers
teratoma
85
True or false; benign tumors are more likely to be anapestic and malignant tumors are well-differeniated
false
86
True or false; in general benign tumors contain fewer mutations than cancers
true
87
A lipoma is a malignant tumor of mature fat cells
false
88
A loss or reduction of cellular differentiation is termed..
anaplasia
89
True or false; poorly differentiated tumors grow more rapidly than do well-differentiated tumors
true
90
What is most likely to have a fibrous capsule
benign neoplasm
91
What unequivocally identifies a tumor as being malignant
metastasis
92
What 2 anatomic regions are most frequently involved sites of cancer metastasis
lung, liver
93
Tumors of what region are the most common cause of cancer related deaths in women
lungs
94
The highest incidence of cancerous tumors in women occur where?
Breast (not most deadly though, lung is)
95
True or false; environmental factors are the predominant cause of the most common sporadic cancers
true
96
Reduced immune competence and _________ are thought to contribute to the increased frequency of cancer as we age
somatic mutations
97
Most cancer-related deaths occur between what ages
55-75 years
98
A 34 year old female does not have a BRCA 1 or BRCA 2 mutation, but still developed breast cancer; this cancer is categorized how
familial cancer of uncertain inheritance
99
True or false; while preneoplastic lesions increase the likelihood of malignancy, most do not progress into cancer
true
100
What is an autosomal recessive syndrome of defective DNA repair
Xeroderma pigmentosum
101
Tumor suppressor genes (TSGs) prevent uncontrolled growth and loss of function mutations in TSGs, typically require a loss of how many normal alleles
2
102
Oncogenes require a loss of how many normal alleles to cause cancer
1
103
What is a normal gene that has a high potential to cause cancer when mutated, such as a gene that regulates apoptosis
Proto-oncogene
104
Oncogenic mutations are ________ because the mutations of a single allele can lead to phenotypic change
Dominant
105
True or false; genes that regulate noncoding DNA is likely to be involved with oncogenesis
false
106
Over 90% of all cases of chronic myelongenous leukemia involve an _________ of chromosomes 9 and 22 which is referred to as Philadelphia chromosome
balanced translocation
107
An abnormal number of chromosomes that is not a multiple of organism's haploid is termed
aneuploidy
108
What refers to a reversible, heritable change in gene expression that occurs without mutation
epigenetic modification
109
What involves DNA methylation and histone modifications to cause changes in gene expression
epigenetics
110
MicroRNA _______ gene expression and may be increased or reduced in their function
inhibit
111
True or false; epigenetic medications may not alter cellular appearance and function (phenotype) but mutations can
false
112
True or false; over time, tumors become more aggressive and less responsive to therapy
true
113
True or false; cancer cells may develop self-sufficiency by acquiring the ability to synthesize the same growth factor to which they are responsive
true
114
What is the rate-limiting step in the cell cycle that is commonly referred to as a restriction point
G1-S phase
115
The activation of cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor (CDKI) proteins will ______ cell cycle
slow down
116
True or false; all cancers have genetic mutations that disable the G1-S phase checkpoint of the cell cycle
true
117
True or false; inactivation of the RB gene requires alterations of both of the normal RB gene alleles
true
118
True or false; human papillomavirus may encode proteins that bind to RB proteins and render them nonfunctional
true
119
The TP53 gene is an example of an
tumor suppressor gene
120
If DNA is damage is detected, the products of the TP53 gene stimulates cellular arrest in which phase of the cell cycle
G1
121
What is a common example of a virus that can nullify the protective function of the TP53 gene
Hepatitis B or Epstein-Barr virus
122
True or false; the extrinsic (death receptor) pathway involves the activation of caspase-8 to initiate apoptosis
true
123
Many tumors metastasize to the organ that presents the first _____ they encounter after entering circulation
capillary bed
124
True or false; cancer cells rarely (<50%) reactivate telomerase to avoid shortening of telomeres
false
125
In order to grow beyond _______ in diameter, tumor cells must stimulate angiogenesis
1-2 mm
126
What is the "glue" that holds epithelial cells together, which must be inactivated to initiate migration of a tumor cell
E-cadherin
127
True or false; once in circulation, aggregated tumor cells may be adored protection from anti-tumor host cells
true
128
Microsatellite instability (MSI) is associated with what
Hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer
129
Patients with xeroderma pigmentosum have an inherited defect in which DNA system
Nucleotide excision repair
130
When cancer cells transition to aerobic glycolysis, the phenomenon is called the
Warburg effect
131
Patients with chronic gastrointestinal inflammation have an ________ rise of developing cancer
increased
132
Which death pathway turns on capsase 9
Intrinsic pathway
133
True or false; both the intrinsic and extrinsic pathway stimulate capsases
True (extrinsic- capsase 8 and intrinsic- capsase 9)
