Exam 2 Flashcards
(238 cards)
1
Q
What are the 2 main divisions of the digestive system?
A
alimentary canal (GI tract) and accessory organs
2
Q
mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, rectum
A
alimentary canal (GI tract)
3
Q
teeth, tongue, salivary glands, gall bladder, liver, pancreas; mechanically and chemically breakdown food; connect to GI tract via ducts
A
accessory organs
4
Q
secrete mucous, digestive enzymes, and hormones; absorb the end products of digestion into blood (simple sugars); protect against infectious diseases
A
mucosa
5
Q
protects against injested microbes
A
MALT (mucosa associated lymphoid tissue)
6
Q
Thick connective tissue, contains blood and lymphatic vessels, nerve fibers, small glands
A
submucosa
7
Q
important for segmentation and peristalsis (2 layers)
A
muscularis externa
8
Q
2 layers of muscularis external:
- smooth muscle that controls lumen diameter
- smooth muscle that controls tract length
A
- inner circular layer
2. outer longitudinal layer
9
Q
outermost layer of digestive organs; covered by visceral peritoneum; replaced by adventitia in the esophagus
A
serosa
10
Q
ingestion, mastication (chewing), deglutition (swallowing), digestion (mechanical and chemical)
A
oral cavity
11
Q
What are palatine tonsils?
A
lymph nodes
12
Q
roof of the mouth
A
palate
13
Q
hanging down from back of throat (punching bag)
A
uvula
14
Q
secures the tongue to the floor of the mouth
A
lingual frenulum
15
Q
joins lip to gum
A
labial frenulum
16
Q
antimicrobial peptides produced by oral mucosa
A
definsins
17
Q
skeletal muscle; mixes food and forms bolus; chewing, swallowing, speaking; papillae
A
tongue
18
Q
3 types of papillae:
- keratin; most numerous; scattered; no taste buds
- scattered; taste buds for salty, sweet and sour; gustatory receptors (chemoreceptors)
- few in rows; back of tongue; taste buds for bitter
A
- filiform
- fungiform
- circumvallate
19
Q
cleanses mouth; pH 6.57 - 7; secretes salivary amylase, lingual lipase (starts carb and fat digestion); microorganism defense
A
saliva
20
Q
causes degranulation and phagocytosis of WBCs
A
IgA antibodies
21
Q
enzymes that damage bacterial cell walls
A
lysozymes
22
Q
What are the 3 salivary glands?
A
- paratoid
- submandibular
- sublingual
23
Q
What are the 4 purposes of the digestive system?
A
- take in food
- break down food
- absorb nutrients
- get rid of indigestible remains (defecation)
24
Q
solids and liquids entering body via oral cavity
A
ingestion
25
takes 24-36 hours for food to move through GI tract
propulsion
26
swallowing; oral cavity to esophagus
deglutition
27
wave-like movement by smooth muscles that moves food through GI tract
peristalsis
28
mastication (chewing), churning, and segmentation
mechanical digestion
29
chewing; oral cavity; increasing surface area
mastication
30
stomach; mix food with gastric acid
churning
31
small intestine; increase surface area
segmentation
32
break down complex food molecules into their building blocks
chemical digestion
33
from GI tract into blood and lymph; most takes place in small intestine
absorption
34
removal of indigestible substances via defecation
elimination
35
What are the 6 functions of the digestive system?
1. ingestion
2. propulsion
3. mechanical digestion
4. chemical digestion
5. absorption
6. elimination
36
includes enteric neurons, which includes submucosal nerve plexus and myenteric nerve plexus
intrinsic control of GI tract activity
37
within submucosa; controls gland activity and mucousal smooth muscles
submucosal nerve plexus
38
between two muscle layers; controls GI tract motility (circular and longitudinal)
myenteric nerve plexus
39
In extrinsic control of GI tract activity, the _____ inhibits secretion and motility and the ______ enhances it.
SNS
| PNS
40
What are the 3 major classes of food?
1. carbohydrates
2. proteins
3. lipids
41
-ase
enzyme
42
-ose
sugar
43
lactase, maltase, sucrase
enzymes that break down
44
-peptidase
enzyme that breaks down peptide
45
-lipase
enzyme that breaks down fats
46
Where does carb digestion start? End?
starch and oligosaccharides; monosaccharides
47
What are carbs digested by?
amylase and brush border enzymes (dextrinase, glucamylase, lactase, maltase, sucrase)
48
What are the enzyme locations for carb digestion?
saliva, pancreas, small intestine
49
What are the locations of digestion for carbs?
mouth, small intestine
50
Where does protein digestion start? End?
protein; amino acids
51
What are proteins digested by?
pepsin (with HCl), pancreatic enzymes (trypsin, chymotrypsin, carboxypeptidase), brush border enzymes (amino peptidase, carboxypeptidase, dipeptidase)
52
What are the enzyme locations for protein digestion?
stomach, pancreas, small intestine
53
What are the locations of digestion for proteins?
stomach, small intestine
54
Where does lipid digestion start? End?
unemulsified fats; monoglycerides and fatty acids
55
What does the "pre-treatment" in lipid digestion consist of?
bile salts to make fat soluble in water
56
What are lipids digested by?
lipases (lingual, gastric, pancreatic)
57
Where are the enzymes located in lipid digestion?
mouth, stomach, pancreas
58
Where are the locations of digestion for lipids?
mouth, stomach, small intestine
59
moves food down via peristalsis; from pharynx to stomach (behind trachea), goes through esophageal hiatus (hole in diaphragm); no digestion occurring here
esophagus
60
allows food to pass into stomach but prevents gastric acid from entering esophagus
gastro-esophageal sphinctor (AKA cardiac sphinctor)
61
caused by excessive drinking and eating, hiatal hernia (a part of the stomach is above the diaphragm), pregnancy
gastroesophageal reflux disease (heartburn)
62
How long is the stomach?
6-10 inches long
63
What are the 4 regions of the stomach?
1. cardiac region
2. fundus
3. body
4. pyloric region
64
What are the 2 sphincters located in the stomach?
1. gastroesophageal sphinctor
| 2. pyloric sphinctor
65
controls emptying chyme into small intestine
pyloric sphinctor
66
food going into stomach
bolus
67
food exiting stomach
chyme
68
mucosal folds in stomach; also found in bladder and vagina; allows for expansion of stomach by unfolding when needed
rugae
69
secretes alkaline mucous; protects stomach lining
surface epithelium (mucous cells)
70
Mucosa has gastric ____ and _____
pits and glands
71
opening to gastric gland
gastric pits
72
secretes gastric juice
gastric glands
73
What are the 4 glandular secretory cells of gastric glands?
1. mucous neck cells (thin, acidic mucus)
2. chief cells (pepsinogen and lipase) (small amount)
3. parietal cells (HCl and intrinsic factor)
4. enteroendocrine cells (hormones/hormone-like substances)
74
denatures proteins; activates pepsinogen ---> pepsin; kills bacteria
HCl (in parietal cells)
75
glycoprotein needed for vitamin B12 absorption in small intestine (B12 helps RBC maturation)
Intrinsic factor (in parietal cells)
76
What are the 5 enteroendocrine cells?
1. gastrin
2. histamine
3. endorphins
4. serotonin
5. somatostatin
77
stimulates HCl secretion and stomach motility
gastrin
78
activates parietal cells to secrete HCl
histamine
79
suppresses appetite
endorphins
80
causes contraction of stomach muscles
serotonin
81
inhibits stomach secretion and motility
somatostatin
82
increase in blood pH due to a sudden influx of HCO3- when gastric glands are actively secreting
alkaline tide
83
filtration system for digestive system; largest gland in the body
liver
84
What are the 2 functions of the liver?
1. produces bile for fat digestion
| 2. metabolic regulation
85
emulsify fats
bile salts
86
phospholipids found in bile that emulsify fats
lecithin
87
spheres of monoglycerides and fatty acids
micelles
88
regulates composition of circulating blood; remove excess nutrients and toxins coming from digestive system and before entering systemic circulation
metabolic regulation
89
break up fats and make them water soluble so lipase can break down fats into fatty acids and monoglycerides; absorbed and recycled by the liver
bile (bile salts)
90
Trace the blood supply through the liver.
hepatic artery and hepatic portal vein ---> sinusoids (capillaries in liver) ---> hepatic vein ---> inferior vena cava ---> right atrium
91
stores and concentrates bile
gallbladder
92
Trace the flow of bile once it empties from the gallbladder
gallbladder ---> cystic duct ---> common bile duct ---> sphincter of oddi --->duodenum
93
helps get rid of bilirubin
bile
94
byproduct of RBC, yellow in color
bilirubin
95
yellow coloration in skin and eyes caused by obstruction or blockage of the bile duct
jaundice
96
produces digestive enzymes for fats, carbs, and proteins; empties into duodenum onto chyme; hematopancreatic ampulla and sphincter (sphincter of oddi); 2 cell types; HCO3; regulation of bile and pancreatic secretion by secretin and CCK from duodenum and jejunum
pacreas
97
controls emptying of bile and pancreatic juice
hematopancreatic ampulla and sphincter (sphincter of oddi)
98
What are the 2 cell types of the pancreas?
1. islets of Langerhans
| 2. acinar cells
99
endocrine cells that release hormones (pancreas)
islets of langerhans
100
glucagon; increase blood sugar by breaking down glycogen (islets of langerhan)
alpha cells
101
insulin; decrease blood sugar (islets of langerhan)
beta cells
102
exocrine cells in pancreas
acinar cells
103
inactive enzymes in acinar cells of pancreas
zymogens
104
Protein digestion from pancreas to duodenum:
1. trypsinogen --->
2. cymotrypsinogen --->
3. procarboxypeptidase --->
1. trypsin
2. chymotrypsin
3. carboxypeptidase
105
```
Carbohydrate digestion (pancreatic amylase)
starch, oligosaccharides --->
```
disaccharides
106
```
lipid digestion (pancreatic lipase)
triglycerides --->
```
monoglycerides and fatty acids
107
from epithelial cells of pancreatic duct; neutralizes acidic chyme
HCO3
108
acidic chyme enters duodenum; stimulates HCO3 - secretion from pancreas
secretin
109
fatty chyme enters duodenum (first part of small intestine); stimulates contraction of gallbladder ---> bile secretion ---> pancreatic enzyme secretion; relaxes sphincter of oddi---> pancreatic juice and bile enter small intestine
cholecyctokinin (CCK)
110
absorbs nutrients (carb, protein, lipid); ~20 feet long with 3 divisions
small intestine
111
division of small intestine that receives chyme from stomach; 10 inches
duodenum
112
middle division of small intestine; 8 feet long
jejunum
113
division of small intestine that includes the ileocecal valve; 12 feet long
ileum
114
junction between small intestine and large intestine
ileocecal valve
115
adaption to increase surface area for nutrient absorption (circular folds, villi, microvilli)
small intestine
116
deep folds of mucosa/submucosa; slow down movement of chyme into small intestine
circular folds (aka plicae circularis)
117
finger-like projections of mucosa, epithelial of absorptive cells
villi
118
glands with pits occurring between villi that secrete intestinal juice; enteroendrocrine cells secrete CCK and secretin
crypts of Lieberkuhn (intestinal crypts)
119
tiny bristle-like projections of absorptive cells; brush border
microvilli
120
releases brush border enzymes that complete carb and protein digestion
brush border
121
Fat absorption:
Fatty acids and monoglycerides enter epithelial cells of ________. They are resembled into ________, then ________. Chylomicrons enter the ________, not into the blood vessels. Enters _______.
```
small intestine
chylomicrons
exocytosis
lymphatic capillaries
blood stream
```
122
from ileocecal valve to anus; water absorption (95%)
large intestine
123
What are the 3 subdivisions of the large intestine?
1. cecum
2. appendix
3. colon
124
follows ileocecal valve
cecum
125
mass of lymphoid tissue that extends from cecum
appendix
126
What are the 4 regions of the colon?
1. ascending (up right side)
2. transverse (across abdomen)
3. descending (down left side)
4. sigmoid (S-shaped where enters pelvic and joins rectum)
127
Functions of the kidney:
1. Eliminate _______________ (toxins and drugs)
2. Maintain ___________, ____________, and _________
3. Conserve ___________ and _________
4. Secrete ____________ and __________
5. Metabolize ___________ into its active form.
1. nitrogenous waste
2. ionic balance (Na, Cl, K), acid/base balance (H+, HCO3-), water balance
3. glucose, amino acids
4. renin and erythropoiten
5. vitamin D
128
bean shaped, 4" long, 2" wide, 1" thick; lie retroperitoneally (between dorsal body wall and peritoneal cavity)
kidneys
129
What are the 3 layers of tissue around the kidneys?
1. renal fascia
2. perirenal fat capsule
3. fibrous capsule
130
outermost layer of tissue around kidneys; dense fibrous CT; also surrounds adrenal glands (superior to kidneys)
renal fascia
131
middle tissue layer around kidneys; fatty mass; holds kidneys in place; cushions against mechanical trauma
perirenal fat capsule
132
innermost layer of tissue around kidneys; adheres directly to kidney surface; prevents surrounding infections from entering kidneys
fibrous capsule
133
superficial region of the kidney; light-colored, granular appearance
renal cortex
134
region of kidney deep to the cortex; reddish brown; smooth appearance; contains renal pyramids
renal medulla
135
cone shaped masses; drain urine from nephrons
renal pyramids
136
drains urine from pyramids into renal pelvis
minor/major calyces (calyx)
137
drains urine into ureter
renal pelvis
138
drains urine from pelvis to bladder
ureters
139
functional unit of kidneys; more than a million per kidney; urine formation: filtration, secretion, absorption
nephrons
140
delivers blood to glomerulus
afferent arteriole
141
capillary bed inside bowman's capsule for filtration; filters 20% of blood
glomerulus
142
receives 80% of unfiltered blood; delivers to peritubular capillaries
efferent arteriole
143
involved in secretion/absorption between blood and renal tubules
peritubular capillaries/vasa recta
144
cups at glomerulus and contains podocytes that allow filtrate to drain into cup
Bowman's capsule (BC)
145
attached to BC where most absorption takes place
proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)
146
connects PCT to DCT
Loop of Henle (LOH)
147
LOH: freely permeable to water; impermeable to NaCl
descending LOH
148
LOH; freely permeable to NaCl; impermeable to water
ascending LOH
149
connects LOH to CD; some Na+ reabsorption and K+ secretion by aldosterone
distal convoluted tubule (DCT)
150
empties urine into renal pyramids; ADH and aldosterone act to reabsorb water and Na+ and secrete H+
collecting duct (CD)
151
region between ascending LOH and afferent/efferent arteriole
juxtaglomerular apparatus
152
What are the 2 types of cells included in the juxtaglomerular apparatus?
1. macula dense cells (chemoreceptors)
| 2. granular cells (mechanoreceptors)
153
part of ascending LOH that detects changes in NaCl concentration in filtrate
macula densa cells
154
around afferent arterioles, detects changes in BP in afferent arterioles and secrete renin
granular cells
155
What determines water elimination?
osmolarity
156
enzyme that regulates BP
renin
157
hormone necessary for RBC production
erythropoiten
158
What does vitamin D regulate?
calcium, metabolism
159
How do afferent arterioles regulate filtration rate?
vasoconstriction/vasodilation
160
What is the only capillary fed and drained by afferent/efferent arterioles?
glomerulus
161
drains about 80% of blood
efferent arteriole
162
The kidney filters entire plasma volume ________ times per day (175L, 46 gal)
40-60
163
The kidney filters _____mL of blood per minute to create 1mL of urine.
1200mL
164
What is the average urine output per day?
1500mL
165
What is the average bladder capacity?
300mL
166
controls Na reabsorption and K secretion
aldosterone
167
controls water reabsorption
ADH
168
What are the 2 types of nephrons?
1. cortical nephrons (85%)
| 2. juxtamedullary nephrons (15%)
169
type of nephron: LOH is short, efferent arterioles supply peritubular capillaries
cortical nephron
170
type of nephron: LOH is long, extends deep into medulla; efferent arterioles supply vasa recta capillaries
juxtamedullary nephron
171
occurs between glomerulus and BC
filtration
172
Filtration filters _____ but not ______, ________, or _______
plasma; RBC, WBC, or platelets
173
occurs between capillaries (peritubular or vasa recta) and PCT, LOH, DCT, and CD
reabsorption
174
During reabsorption, a substance moves from ______ to _____
filtrate; blood
175
What 5 substances are reabsorbed?
1. water
2. glucose
3. salt (NaCl)
4. amino acids
5. vitamins
176
occurs between capillaries (peritubular or vasa recta) and PCT, DCT, and CD
secretion
177
During secretion, a substance moves from ______ to ______
blood; filtrate
178
What 2 substances are secreted?
H+, K+
179
amount filtered - amount reabsorbed + amount secreted = ???
amount excreted
180
regulated by aldosterone in DCT and CD but not in PCT
NaCl reabsorption
181
regulated by ADH in CD but not in LOH
water reabsorption
182
increased by aldosterone in CD
urea
183
volume of filtrate formed each minute; rate of urine formation
glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
184
What is the normal range for GFR?
120-125 mL/min
185
What does GFR depend on (directly proportional to)?
net filtration pressure (NFP)
186
What is the equation for NFP?
HP-GC + HP-BC + OP-GC
187
What are the 3 components of NFP?
1. hydrostatic pressure in glomerular capillaries (HP-GC)
2. hydrostatic pressure in Bowman's Capsule (HP-BC)
3. colloid osmotic pressure in glomerular capillaries (OP-GC)
188
force exerted by BP inside glomerulus; pushed water and solutes across filtration membrane into BC; controlled by diameter of afferent arterioles; 55mmHg (because diameter of AA > diameter of EA)
hydrostatic pressure in glomerular capillaries (HP-GC)
189
Vasoconstriction of AA will _______ HP-GC
lower
190
Vasodilation of AA will ________ HP-GC
raise
191
force created by proteins and unfiltered substances in the blood; hinders movement of filtrate into BC; around 30mmHg
colloid osmotic pressure in glomerular capillaries (OP-GC)
192
force exerted by filtrate in BC; interferes with movement of filtrate into BC; about 15mmHg
hydrostatic pressure in Bowman's Capsule (HP-BC)
193
Positive or negative?
1. HP-GC
2. HP-BC
3. OP-GC
1. positive
2. negative
3. negative
194
What is the value of the NFP?
10mmHg
195
What 2 things does GFR depend on other than NFP?
1. total surface area available for filtration
| 2. filtration membrane permeability (low permeability decreases GFR)
196
What happens to GFR when:
1. AA constrict
2. AA dilate
3. EA constrict
4. EA dilate
1. decrease
2. increase
3. increase
4. decrease
197
auto regulation of filtration (GFR regulation)
intrinsic control
198
What does the MAP have to be for intrinsic control to take place?
80-180 mmHg
199
What are the 2 mechanisms under intrinsic control?
1. myogenic mechanism
| 2. tubulogomerular feedback mechanism
200
In the myogenic mechanism of intrinsic control, what is the response to high blood flow rate? Low blood flow rate?
High: AA vasoconstrict
Low: AA vasodilate
201
In the tubuloglomerular feedback mechanism, what type of cells are involved?
macula densa cells
202
In the tubuloglomerular feedback mechanism, what is the response to slow flowing filtrate? Fast flowing filtrate?
Slow: low NaCl in filtrate; vasodilation of AA, increased GFR
Fast: hight NaCl in filtrate; vasoconstriction of AA, decreased GFR
203
fitration (GFR regulation): purpose is to maintain systemic BP even to detriment of kidneys; SNS control
extrinsic control
204
What mechanism is involved in extrinsic control?
renin-aldosterone mechanism
205
release of this substance is caused by an increase in blood volume resulting in atrial stretching
Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP)
206
ANP target effects?
decrease in renin, aldosterone, ADH
207
converts angiotensinogen --> angiotensin II
renin
208
increases water reabsorption
ADH
209
increases sodium reabsorption
aldosterone
210
What happens to AA, EA, and GFR when ANP is activated?
AA vasodilate, EA vasoconstrict, GFR increases
211
What is reabsorbed in the PCT?
1. All ______ and ______
2. 65% ________ and _________
3. 80% ________
4. 60% _________
5. 55% _________
1. glucose and amino acids
2. filtered water and sodium
3. HCO3
4. Cl-
5. K+
212
reabsorption of all substances (amino acids, glucose) reabsorbed via transport protein; limited by number of transport proteins
transport maximum (TM)
213
If filtration rate of substance is exceeded, the substance is _______
excreted
214
This substance causes an increase in aquaporin (water channel) in CD
antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
215
not producing enough ADH
neurogenic diabetes insipidus (DI)
216
nephrons insensitivity to ADH
nephrogenic DI
217
The symptoms of this disease include increased urine formation, diluted urine, dehydration, thirst
Diabetes Insipidus (DI)
218
What 3 substances are reabsorbed in the ascending LOH?
Na+, Cl-, K+
219
What substance is reabsorbed in the descending LOH?
water (osmosis)
220
hormonal control of ADH and aldosterone
DCT and CD reabsorption
221
What does Na+ reabsorption in the DCT and CD control?
aldosterone
222
What do water and urea reabsorption in the DCT and CD control?
ADH
223
The vasa recta surrounding the LOH is highly permeable to both ________ and ________
water; solutes
224
What is the osmolarity of blood in the glomerulus? What is it maintained by?
300mOsM; Na, K, Cl, and urea
225
What 3 things cause a release of ADH?
1. low systemic BP (angiotensin II)
2. high blood osmolarity
3. high plasma [Na+]
226
What 3 things cause a release of aldosterone?
1. low systemic BP (angiotensin II)
2. low plasma [Na+]
3. high plasma [K+]
227
equal osmolarity
isosmotic
228
relatively lower osmolarity
hyposmotic
229
relatively higher osmolarity
hyperosmotic
230
Long LOH creates the concentration gradient; created by Na+, Cl-, K+
countercurrent multiplier
231
Countercurrent multiplier:
Vasa recta is highly permeable to _______ and _______ and two limbs of adjacent vasa recta are ________ to each other; maintains _______ concentration gradient (countercurrent exchange)
water; solutes; parallel; small
232
No ADH in CD:
1. No ________
2. _______ volume of __________ urine
3. Osmolarity = ___________
1. aquaporin
2. large; dilute
3. 100
233
Lots of ADH in CD:
1. Osmolarity = _______
2. ________ volume of ______ urine
1. 100
| 2. small; concentrated
234
movement of substances from blood to tubule; dispose of waste; eliminates substances that were passively reabsorbed but not needed by the body
secretion (PCT, DCT, CD)
235
What are the 2 important secretions?
H+ and K+
236
H+ secretion:
1. Where does it occur? (2 places)
2. Via _________
3. Body fluid too acidic, _______ in secretion
4. Body fluid too basic, _________ in secretion
1. PCT and CD
2. primary active transport
3. increase
4. decrease
237
K+ secretion:
1. Where does it occur? (2 places)
2. regulated by _________
3. Coupled with __________
1. DCT and CD
2. aldosterone
3. Na+ reabsorption
238
What happens to BP and blood osmolarity when you are dehydrated?
BP goes down
| Blood osmolarity goes up
