Exam 2 Flashcards
(206 cards)
1
Q
the genome in bacteria = ____ genes
A
1500 genes
2
Q
_____ has 500 genes
A
mycoplasma
3
Q
_____ and _____ have largest genome
A
pseudomonas and mycobacteria
4
Q
there are 1-20 ____ in bacteria (small circular DNA loops)
A
plasmids
5
Q
list three things plasmids produce
A
pili (f factor), enzymes (metabolism), and toxins (virulence)
6
Q
R plasmid has one or more _____
A
antibiotic resistant genes
7
Q
2 strands result from DNA replication and each has
A
one old and one new filament
8
Q
DNA replication process ends at the ___ gene
A
ter gene
9
Q
rate of DNA replication is ____ times faster in prokaryotes (___ base pairs per second)
A
10X faster in prokaryotes (1000 base pairs per second)
10
Q
DNA strands with gaps are called ___ strands (____ fills in the gaps)
A
DNA strands with gaps are called LAG strands (polymerase fills in the gaps)
11
Q
the ____ strand is continuously read
A
LEAD
12
Q
____ contain DNA or RNA
A
virsues
13
Q
viruses that are pathogens to humans are often ___ type
A
RNA type
14
Q
list 4 examples of RNA virus
A
HIV, Polio, Ebola, SARS
15
Q
crystalline viruses (AKA ______) lack an envelope and are the smallest
A
icosahedral
16
Q
nucleic acid of DNA virus enters ____ of host cell to replicate
A
nucleus
17
Q
during replication DNA virus makes proteins for its capsid in the
A
cytoplasm of the host
18
Q
virions that are assembled in the nucleus accumulate in the cell and cause
A
lysis
19
Q
RNA viruses replicate in the
A
cytoplasm
20
Q
RNA virus protein production for capsid is completed by
A
viral proteases
21
Q
DNA of RNA viruses remains in the cells nucleus and permanently infects the cells. An example is _____ in HIV and _____ like papilloma
A
An example is lymphocytes in HIV and oncogenic viruses like papilloma
22
Q
_____ (sugars) bind to repressor and remove it
A
inducers
23
Q
____ control:
- multiple virulence production
- antibiotic resistance
- mar and mer (mercury inactivation)
A
operons
24
Q
____ reads sense strand and antisense strand opposite
A
RNA polymerase
25
code read from start point (___) to stop point (___)
start point (TAC) to stop point (ATT)
26
RNA polymerase transcribes at ___ bases per second
40
27
stop point (ATT) has no amino acid meaning, also called a
nonsense codon
28
in mRNA U is substituted for _
T
29
mutations can be caused by _____/____ mutagens and ___/____ mutagens
internal/spontaneous mutagens and induced/environmental mutagens
30
- UV and radiation
- viruses (phage)
- chemicals
are examples of ___ mutagens
induced/environmental
31
____ have the highest mutation rate, which leads to strain variation
bacteria
32
____ repairs damaged genes
SOS
33
____ occurs when there is a mismatch during replication (G-T)
spontaneous mutation
34
in a _____ one base codon is substituted
pinpoint mutation
35
pinpoint mutation causes ___ or ___ codons
missense or nonsense
36
position of codon affected determines if mutation is ____ or _____
lethal or sublethal
37
with ______ mutations are passed down from generation to generation
vertical transmission
38
vertical transmission is ___ change
slow
39
with _____ several genes are passed between organisms (donor to recipient)
horizontal/lateral transmission
40
horizontal/lateral transmission is ___ change
fast
41
list the three ways bacteria exchange information
transduction, transformation, conjugation
42
in _____ competent cell incorporate piece of DNA from donor of same species
transformation
43
in _______ phage, virus, acts as a carrier piece of DNA between organisms of same species
transduction
44
in ______ donor has plasmid enabling formation of sex pilus, there is a transfer of plasmid through pilus (one copy from donor (F+) to recipient (F-))
conjugation
45
_____ transposons have information for slicing in and out
CLASS 1
46
____ transposons have genes for replication so that copy is made for transfer to new site
CLASS 2
47
_____ transposons carry antibiotic and mercury resistance, endotoxins, and metabolic genes
CLASS 2
48
_____ refers to DNA packaging in prokaryotes
supercoiled
49
____ influences sterilization time
matrix
50
____ involves two DNA polymerases
fork
51
_____ leads to mutations that diversify proteins
sublethal
52
_____ products of pinpoint deletion or addition
frameshift
53
_____ stabilizes prokaryote DNA
protease
54
_____ can be produced on protein templates
polyamine
55
_____ inhibitor of viruses
bacitracin
56
____ is associated with quorum sensing
acyl
57
_____ is effective as 3% solution or in vapor
peroxide
58
_____ used as bleach or water disinfectant
chlorines
59
______ is an effective sporicidal if used for several hours
glyceraldehyde
60
______ are normally used at 70-90%
alcohols
61
_____ are common in hospitals as Wecodyn or Povidone
iodophores
62
The most effective type of quaternary ammonium compounds are ____
detergents
63
Presence of ____ will increase sterilization times
cysts
64
_____ is easily killed by moist heat
yeast
65
_____ are able to exchange genes in several ways
viruses
66
____ are resistant to many chemical agents
enterics
67
_____ are very resistant to intense radiation, not UV
mycobacterium
68
_____ assists in repair of damaged DNA
RecA
69
_____ posesses inverted repeated ends
transposon
70
_____ links to operator, stopping transcription
repressor
71
_____ can recycle denatured proteins
chaperone
72
_____ information carried on plasmids
colicin
73
_____ removes microbial population by 99%
sanitization
74
_____ removes microbes according to size
mirofiltration
75
_____ will kill pathogens but not all microbes
disinfection
76
_____ eliminates vegetative cells but not spores
germicidal
77
____ kills by damaging DNA
radiation
78
______ is the lipoprotein covering on some viruses
envelope
79
____ is the protein shell of most virsuses
capsid
80
______ refers to assembled virus particle
virion
81
_____ can be DNA or RNA
core
82
_____ allows for virus attachment to host cell
peplomer
83
_____ produces lead and lag strand, latter being discontinuous
DNA polymerase
84
____ attaches to promoter sight
RNA polymerase
85
_____ part of excision repair of small damaged sites
endonuclease
86
_____ assists in winding and unwinding strands
gyrase
87
____ is associated with RNA viruses such as HIV
transcriptase
88
____ series of genes with one mRNA
polysome
89
____ initiates replication process in prokaryotes
origin
90
_____ refers to a translation complex
polycistonic
91
____ in prokaryotes are usually smaller and less dense than in eukaryotes
ribosome
92
____ may be linked to a repressor protein
operator
93
____ is an antiviral program
HAART
94
____ employs repair enzyme in operon
SOS
95
____ refers to resistant mycobacterium
XDM
96
```
Rank the following in order of decreasing sterilization effectiveness:
Autoclave
Freezing
Gamma radiation
Surfactants
```
1. gamma radiation (most effective)
2. autoclave
3. surfactants
4. freezing (least effective)
97
__ is a component of transposon
IS
98
____ is part of air purification system
HEPA
99
____ controls quorum sensing
LUX
100
____ refers to microbial population size
bioburden
101
____ is a viral exit strategy
budding
102
___ is a new antimicrobial principle
antisense
103
_____ is an enveloped viral entry mode
fusion
104
____ will result in longer elimination time of pathogen
microbistatic
105
____ has smallest genome of prokaryotes
mycoplasma
106
____ produces highest TDT spores
mycobacterium
107
___ is inhibited by ethambutol
bacillus
108
_____ is part of Ames test
salmonella
109
____ is used in phenol coefficient tests
staphylococcus
110
____ refers to an effective level of antibiotic
MIC
111
____ is a rapid pasteurization process
UHT
112
if ___ is mutated it may make ribosomes resistant to antibiotic
ERM
113
____ can filter out viruses
ULPA
114
____ is lower for vegetative cells than spores
TDT
115
____ techniques used to prevent infection
asepsis
116
______ process of killing all microorganisms
sterilization
117
_____ process of killing pathogens only
disinfection
118
____ reduction of microbial populations to safe levels as determined by public health codes
sanitization
119
____ form of disinfection because it uses heat for short intervals to destroy the pathogens
pasteurization
120
______ kills nearly 99%
UHT pasteurization
121
______ of water is a disinfection process
chlorination
122
______ kills vegetative organisms but are not sporicidal
germicidal
123
population size of microbes =
bioburden
124
if an antimicrobial is cidal it
kills outright
125
if an antimicrobial is static it
stops growth
126
antimicrobial method of heating ____
coagulates proteins
127
_____ may be in the form of incineration or dry ovens (160 celsius for 1-2 hours)
dry heat
128
_____ may involve boiling for ten minutes or steam under pressure as is autoclaving (uses 15 psi to achieve temperatures of 121 celsius)
moist heat
129
the efficiency of ____ is determined by spores of bacteria
heating
130
the most heat resistant forms are ____ and ____
bacterial and mold spores
131
the _____ of pathogens on average is about 15 min at 65 celsius (approximate pasteurization conditions)
TDT (thermal death time)
132
___ breaks down DNA
radiation
133
___ is short wavelength, around 260 nm
UV
134
_____ lamps operate at about 230 nm
germicidal
135
_______ or nuclear, uses isotopes such as cesium or cobalt with very short intense radiation that penetrates through everything except three feet of concrete
gamma radiation
136
_____ screens out microbes
microfiltration
137
microfiltartion uses special membrane filters that have porosites (or hole size) of about ___ mm
.5
138
____ used to remove possible contaminants from IV lines or can be attached to syringes
in line cartridge filters
139
_____ remove particles more than .3 mm (bacteria)
HEPA filters
140
______ remove more than .1 mm (viruses)
ULPA filters
141
freezing and ultrasonication can reduce numbers of microbes but are not ______
sterilization techniques
142
_____ are only used on surfaces
disinfectants
143
____ are compatible with tissues, but only at certain concentrations
antiseptics
144
most chemical agents are germicidal, but not necessarily _______
sporicidal
145
effectiveness of chemical agents determined by the ______
phenol coefficient
146
phenol is set at a standard of __
1
147
higher numbers indicate the agent is _____
more effective
148
____ are not microbicidal
soaps
149
_____ began with quinines and sulfa drugs
chemotherapy
150
first official antibiotic was _____
penicillin
151
penicillin was isolated from ____
fungus of soil
152
modern antibiotics are now ___
synthetics
153
antibiotics that inhibit cell wall formation ____ and _____
penicillin and cephalosporin
154
antibiotics that disrupt cell membranes _____
polymixin
155
antibiotics that stop ______ are aminoglycosides, tetracyclines, and erythromycin
protein production
156
antibiotics that inhibit _______ are actinomycin, rifampin, and quinolones
nucleic acid formation
157
_____ inhibit folic acid formation in pathway to nucleic synthesis
sulfa drugs
158
______ inhibits formation of mycolic acid in mycobacteria
ethambutol
159
enzymes that break down antibiotics are _____
lactamases
160
drugs which inhibit viral polymerases, such as nucelotide analogs include ____ and ____
AZT and acyclovir
161
protease inhibitors = ____
saguinavir
162
inhibitors of attachment and penetration of the virus into the host cell include ___ and ____
tamiflu and fuzeon
163
interleukins 10 and 4 are ______
anti-inflammatory
164
___ redness from vasodilation
rubor
165
____ heat, from fluid build up giving off heat
calor
166
____ pain from prostaglandins
dolor
167
___ swelling from fluid flow to tissue
tumor
168
____ inhibits wall formation
cephalosporin
169
blocks enzyme that produces folic acid
sulfanilomide
170
a macrolide that inhibits protein formaytion
erythromycin
171
effective against spores as well as vegetative cells
glutaraldehyde
172
one of last antibiotics effective against staphylococcus
vancomycin
173
eliminates vegetative cells but not spores
germicidal
174
process that kills pathogens but not all microbes
disinfection
175
property of many lactam antibiotics, like penicillin
microbistatic
176
efficiency determined by bacterial spores
autoclave
177
changes in pinpoint mutation
bases
178
depends on presence of vegetaitive cells or spores
thermal death time
179
refers to antibiotic effectiveness to toxicity
chemotherapeutic index
180
a reduction of microbial populations to a safe level
sanitization
181
a measure of effectiveness of antisepctis
phenol coefficient
182
assists in repair of damaged DNA
reca
183
controls polycistronic genes
operon
184
can be produced on protein emplates
bacitracin
185
can recycle denatured proteins
chaperone
186
information carried on plasmids
colicin
187
efficiency of disinfectant compared to this
phenol
188
usually most effective at 70-80%
isopropanol
189
used to disinfect water
ozone
190
common surfactant
sodium lauryl sulfate
191
does not have antimicrobial action
soap
192
virus is incorporated into host DNA
lysogenic
193
allows recipient to undergo transformation
competent
194
involves many ribosomes translating simultaneously
polysome
195
instrumental in conjugation exchange process
plasmid
196
possesses several linked genes
polycistronic
197
effective surfactant agent made from ammounium compound
quats
198
phenol disinfectant used in institutions
amphyl
199
usually used in gas form at elevated temperatures
ethylene oxide
200
in solutions, used as antiseptics for skin or eyes
silver nitrate
201
will reduce chance of contamination
asepsis
202
_____ disrupt cell membrane of bacteria, but damage humans
Polymixins
203
_____ stop production of folic acid
Sulfanilomides
204
____ target is cell wall and peptidoglycan formation
Penicillin
205
_____ block translation process at ribosome
Tetracyclin
206
______ halt nucleic acid formation but can damage liver
rifampin
