Exam 3 Flashcards
(297 cards)
1
Q
_____ after birth we develop our own human microbiome and resident flora stabilizes by _____
A
3 hours, 3-4 years of age
2
Q
transient microbes attempt to displace resident microbes, which can take residence due to _____, _____, and _____
A
environmental changes, geographic location, diet
3
Q
greatest variety of microbes in ____ and _____ (__ types)
A
mouth and gut (700 types)
4
Q
_______ stimulate resistance factors
A
non-pathogenic flora
5
Q
non-pathogenic flora provide competitive exclusion with _____
A
colicin production
6
Q
non-pathogenic flora provide vitamins (__, __, and ____)
A
(k, b, and folic acid)
7
Q
non-pathogenic flora helps in removal of toxins (_____)
A
heterocyclic amines
8
Q
aerobes coexist with anaerobes or microaerophiles in ____ and ____
A
gums and intestines
9
Q
human microflora is mostly
A
bacteria
10
Q
human microflora has some ___ and a few ____
A
some yeasts and a few protozoa
11
Q
mycoplasma (in ___ and ____)
A
urinary tract and intestines
12
Q
viruses in tissues in latent forms (____ and ____)
A
adenoviruses and herpes
13
Q
____ in eyelashes
A
mites
14
Q
skin is protected by protected by _______ (____ and ____)
A
inhibitory chemicals (fatty acids, lysozyme)
15
Q
on the skin the population is mainly ___ (_______)
A
gram + (staphylococcus)
16
Q
staphylococcus is mostly in heat and moisture pockets (___ and ____)
A
armpit and groin
17
Q
on the skin ____ found in moist areas
A
yeast
18
Q
_____ (______) in follicles (acne)
A
diphtheroids (propionibacterium)
19
Q
180 different microbes on the ____
A
skin
20
Q
_____ is protected by flow of saliva, with lysozyme, mucus, stomach acid, bile
A
GI tract
21
Q
in the GI tract ____ predominates but anaerobes and ____ may be found and fusiforms too
A
in the GI tract STREP predominates but anaerobes and SPIROCHETES may be found and fusiforms too
22
Q
____ and ____ contribute to gingivitis
A
prevotella and treponema
23
Q
pharynx has ____ and _____
A
neisseria and haemophilus
24
Q
stomach may harbor _____ (25% of people)
A
helicobacter
25
____ types in gut (__% have archae)
750 types in gut (50% have archae)
26
small intestines: ____ in low levels and ____
cocci in low levels and lactobacilli
27
large intestines: _____ of organisms
billions
28
large intestines are __% anaerobes: ____ and _____
90% anaerobes: clostridium and bacteroides
29
predominant type in large intestines, ______ , determines type of gas produced
enterotype
30
breast fed infants have more _____ and bottle fed infants have more _____ in large intestines until solid food when ______ replaces both
breast fed infants have more BIFIDO BACTERIA and bottle fed infants have more LACTOBACILLUS in large intestines until solid food when BACTEROIDES replaces both
31
700 types in ____ (about __ fungi)
oral area, about 80 fungi
32
in the GU tract the upper regions are ___
sterile
33
urethra has ____ and some ____
urethra has STREP and some MYCOPLASMA
34
______ in vagina after birth, disappear until after puberty where they set up an acid condition, during menopause they are replaced by ___ and ____
LACTOBACILLI in vagina after birth, disappear until after puberty where they set up an acid condition, during menopause they are replaced by STREP and STAPH
35
yeast is found in __-___% of women
10-30%
36
respiratory tract is protected by ____, _____and ____
mucus, cilia, and bony barriers
37
staph and strep in _____ of respiratory system
upper regions
38
no organisms below ____
larynx
39
lung may contain ____ and _____ in dormancy
aspergillus and mycobacterium
40
there is also ____ and _____ in the lungs
chlamydia and pneumocystis
41
eye/ear are protected by ___ and ___
tearing and wax
42
___ and ____ may reside temporarily in the eye/ear
cocci and bacilli
43
____, ____ and ____ are always sterile
deep organs, blood, and CSF
44
infections may be ___/acute
chronic/acute
45
infections may be local/____ (_____)
local/general (systemic)
46
infections may be primary or ____
secondary
47
infections may be covert (______) or overt (______)
infections may be covert (subclinical) or overt (symptomatic)
48
infections may be pyogenic/______ (___ , ____)
pyogenic/pyrogenic (pus, fever)
49
infections may be ____/iatrogenic
nosocomial/iatrogenic
50
40% of nosocomials due to ____
enterics
51
10% of nosocomials due to ____, ____, ____
staph auerus, enterococcus, psedomonas
52
15% of nosocomials due to ___
c. difficile
53
most often nosocomial is ___
UTI
54
____ due to catheters
septicemia
55
highest fatality rate with _____ (______)
ventilators (pneumonia)
56
health care facilities have similar ____ rate as hospitals but higher __________ rate
health care facilities have similar STAPH rate as hospitals but higher PSEUDOMONAS-PNEUMONIAE rate
57
viral infections can exacerbate ____ and _____ in a synergism
allergies and asthma
58
______ infections involve more than one infectious agent acting together
polymicrobial
59
examples of polymicrobial infections: ____, _____, ____
GI infections, otitis media, vaginal infections
60
GI infections (____ and ____)
bacteria and viruses
61
vaginal infections due to ____ and ____
bacteria and yeast
62
____ and ____ build biofilms (employ ____)
pseudomonas and staph build biofilms (employ quorum sensing)
63
infection process steps (4):
1. encounter with agent involves an ID 50
2. pathogen acquired endogenously or exogenously
3. entry via a portal
4. dissemination
64
ID 50 = size of ___ needed to cause ____ in ____
size of inoculums needed to cause fatal infection in mice
65
ID50 for TB is
10
66
ID 50 for shigella is
100
67
ID50 for salmonella is
1000s
68
______: some infections are congenital or transplacental
endogenously
69
examples of ____ acquired infections:
| treponema, herpes, HIV, hepatitis, rubella, toxoplasma, CMV (TORCH), listeria, ednovirus, borrelia, plasmodium
endogenously
70
____ - leads to encephalitis (heart, brain, liver damage)
borrelia
71
plasmodium is a ____
teratogen
72
opportunistic infections arise from _____
our own microflora
73
opportunistic infections post surgery or intestinal trauma (____) or following burns or skin lesions (_____)
opportunistic infections post surgery or intestinal trauma (bacteroides) or following burns or skin lesions (acinetobacter)
74
exogenous/enternal transmssion routes (5)
1. body contact:
2. fomites
3. microdroplets and particles
4. food and liquids: contaminated
5. animals
75
body contact: contagious, such as transmission of STDs or through ___ and ____
blood and semen
76
___ and ___ most frequent STDs
chlamydia and gonorrhea
77
spirochetes in blood can be killed by _____
refrigeration
78
____ are objects that harbor infectious agents (clothing, bedding, utensils)
fomites
79
____ carry lowest amount while ___ and ____ are high carriers
metal carry lowest amount while wood and natural fabrics are high carriers
80
____ on any surface can encourage the growth of microbes
organic residues
81
microdroplets or particles: spread by ____, ____, ____, and ____
sneeze, cough, dust, skin shedding
82
___ stay suspended for months
spores
83
___ and ____ are good aerosoles
snow and humidifiers
84
cooling towers may aerosolize ____ or _____
legionella or acanthamoeba
85
dust can carry _____ for extensive distances (miles)
fungal agents
86
contaminated foods and liquids are called
vehicles
87
campylobacter ID50 =
10^3
88
campylobacter is present in milk or meat of poultry (especially if ____), cattle, sheep
especially if frozen
89
onset of food poisoning from campylobacter is
onset = 3 days
90
clostridium botulinum causes ___ from improperly ____
botulism from improperly canned foods
91
onset = ___-___ hrs for food poisoning from clostridium botulinum
4-36 hrs
92
e coli carried in ___ and _______
water, raw/undercooked meat
93
food poisoning from e coli onset = __-__ hours
onset = 10-72 hours
94
listeria ID50 =
10^8
95
___ found in soft cheese, raw milk, meat, ice cream, seafood
listeria
96
onset of food poisoning from listeria is __-__ days
onset = 3-5 days
97
salmonella ID50 = ___
10^7
98
____ is in raw/undercooked meat, poultry, eggs
salmonella
99
onset of salmonellosis __-__ hours
onset = 6-48 hrs
100
shigella ID50 =
10^2
101
____ can be in potato, chicken, tuna salads, raw foods
shigella
102
shigella food poisoning onset ___-__ hours
onset = 24-48 hrs
103
____ present in foods left at room temp, can grow well in foods high in sugar/salt
staph aureus
104
onset of food poisoning from staph aureus is __ hours
6 hrs
105
vibrio ID50 =
10^9
106
___ present in oysters, clams, muscles
vibrio
107
vibrio onset = __-__ hrs
1-8 hrs
108
____ from improper food handling and seafood from polluted waters
hepatitis a
109
onset of hepatitis a from food is __-__ days
onset = 15-50 days
110
bacillus cereus ID50 = 10^5
10^5
111
____ rice, sauces, beef
bacillus cereus
112
bacillus cereus onset = __-__ hours
5-6 hours
113
likely contamination sources _____, _____, ______
food handlers, wash water, slaughter splash
114
____ carry fewest pathogens
reptiles
115
entry via a portal requires a _____ at the site
receptor
116
____ may protect receptors like linkage site for hormones or nutrients
mucus
117
Dissemination: attachment via ____
adhesions
118
proteins, polysaccharides, and ____ assist in adhesions
fimbriae
119
strep has ___ proteins
strep has M proteins
120
microbes produce ____ like:
| capsules, siderophores, enzymes,toxins
virulence factors
121
enzymes produced by microbes: _____, _____, ____, _____
proteases, catalase, coagulase, hemolysins
122
invasion may also employ _____ (ruffling) where host cell cytoskeleton fibers move bacteria
actin modulation
123
______ : groups of virulence genes that can be transmitted as a cluster
pathogenicity islands
124
example of pathogenicity islands ____ of helicobacter and ____ of staph
cag genes of helicobacter and SCC genes of staph
125
tissue damage may be CPEs (______)
cytopathogenic effects
126
tissue damage may involve obstruction (_____)
clotting
127
tissue damage may involve cell lysis (____)
necrosis
128
tissue damage may result in ____, ____, ____
metabolic change, edema, fever
129
in ____ infections, person may act as a carrier with no symptoms (ex is typhoid, hepatitis)
latent
130
_____: genetic shifts leading to new antigens, can also lead to reinfection
phase variation
131
TNF (______, a ____) blocks appetite (____)
TNF (tumor necrosis factor, a cytokine) blocks appetite (catchectic)
132
____ accelerate tissue destruction
toxins
133
_____: produced outside the organism, proteins, elicit antibody response, more neuro or cytotoxic, are heat sensitive
exotoxins
134
_____: lipopolysaccharides, fever inducing, less heat sensitive, part of sepsis
endotoxins
135
enzymatic toxin ____
hemolysins
136
pore forming toxin ____
RTX
137
toxins that inhibit protein synthesis ____,____
cytotoxins, diphtheria
138
toxins that disrupt immunity (____ or ____ such as ____)
superantigens or immunotoxins such as TSS
139
_____ toxins that disturb cAMP levels, causing leakage
enterotoxins
140
neurotoxins ______ (botulism)
block transmission
141
staph aureus is coagulase ___
positive
142
___ is resistant to salt/drying and likes oils and lower temp
s. aureus
143
s. aureus on ____ can cause:
| abscess, carbuncle, impetigo, decubitus ulcer, furuncles (boils), sties, SSS
skin
144
intestinal s. aureus causes
enterocolitis
145
s. aureus skin infection seeding blood stream can cause:
| ____, ____, _____
osteomyelitis, cellulitis, endocarditis
146
s. aureus in GU tract causes
TSS
147
staph epidermidis is coagulase ____
negative
148
staph epidermidis is most prevalent on ___
skin
149
staph epidermidis causes endocarditis from ____ and _____
prosthetics and venous catheters
150
staph saprophyticus is coagulase ____
negative
151
staph saprophyticus is in the ____ and causes
| ____ in women (UTIs)
staph saprophyticus is in the urinary tract and causes
| cystitis in women (UTIs)
152
staph virulence factors: ___, ____, ____, _____
protein a, FBP, biofilms, necrotic enzymes
153
____: ties up Ig
protein a
154
fibronectin binding protein (FBP): _______
promotes adhesion
155
______ hyaluronidase, lipase, protease, DNAse, hemolysins
necrotic enzymes
156
______ (breaks down hyaluronic acid which is a glue in CT)
hyaluronidase
157
virulent strain of staph is ____ hemolytic
beta hemolytic
158
toxins of ____: enterotoxin, exfoliative toxin, alpha toxin, TSS-1
staph
159
enterotoxin in involved in ___ toxemia
food
160
exfoliative toxin is a ____ of the skin that kills the ____ layer of the skin
exfoliative toxin is a CYTOTOXIN of the skin that kills the germinal layer of the skin
161
alpha toxin is a _____ that is _____ forming
alpha toxin is a leukocidin that is pore forming
162
strep pyogenes is serotype __
A
163
strep pyogenes is ___ hemolytic
beta
164
strep pyogenes is found in the ____ and ____
throat and skin
165
strep pyogenes PYR3 test ____
positive
166
strep pyogenes is inhibited by _____
bacitracin
167
PANDAS is involved with
strep pyogenes
168
____ diseases: pharyngitis, impetigo, rheumatic fever, erysipelas, glomerulonephritis, fasciitis
strep pyogenes
169
strep pyogenes may initiate _______ (rheumatic fever, glomerulonephritis) as well as scarlet fever and ______ (endometriosis)
strep pyogenes may initiate AUTOIMMUNE DISEASES (rheumatic fever, glomerulonephritis) as well as scarlet fever and PLEURPERAL FEVER (endometriosis)
170
strep agalactiae is serotype _
B
171
strep agalactiae is ___ hemolytic
beta
172
strep agalactiae is found in the _____
female genital tract
173
mother screened vaginally for _____ at 35 weeks gestation
strep agalactiae
174
strep agalactiae causes _____ and meningitis (1 week after birth)
neonatal sepsis
175
enterococcus faecalis is serotype __
D
176
enterococcus faecalis common in the ___
ICU
177
enterococcus faecalis has ___ and ____ hemolysis
none and alpha
178
enterococcus is found in the ___
colon
179
enterococcus faecalis shows growth in presence of ____ and hydrolyze esculin
bile
180
enteroccocus faecalis grows in 6.5% ___
NaCl
181
enteroccocus faecalis diseases: _____, ____, ____
abdominal abscess, UTI, endocarditis
182
streptococcus bovis is serotype ___
D
183
streptococcus bovis shows growth in presence of ___ and will hydrolyze esculin
bile and will hydroyze esculin
184
strep bovis shows _____ in 6.5% NaCl and degrades ___
strep bovis shows no growth in 6.5% NaCl and degrades starch
185
___ causes endocarditis and is a common isolate in colon cancer
strep bovis
186
strep bovis has ___ hemolysis
no
187
streptococcus equi: serotype __,__,__ and ____
C, F, G and untypable
188
strep equi is ___ hemolytic
beta
189
strep equi is found in the ___, ____, and ____
throat, colon, and female gentical tract
190
strep equi is ___ resistant and PYR ___
bacitracin resistant and PYR negative
191
_____: s. mitis, s. salivarius, s. mutans
viridans streptococci
192
viridians streptococci serotype =
untypable
193
virians streptococci are ___ and ___ hemolysis
alpha and no
194
viridians streptococci are found in the _____, ____, ____, and _____
ORAL CAVITY, throat, colon, female genital tract
195
viridians streptococci are ____ resistant and soluble in ___
opochtin resistant and soluble in bile
196
___ cause dental caries
s. mutans
197
endocarditis and abscesses caused by
viridians streptococci
198
_______ typed by capsule antigens
streptococcus pneumoniae
199
strep pneumoniae are ____ hemolytic
alpha
200
strep pneumoniae are found in the ____ and are susceptible to _____
strep pneumoniae are found in the throat and are susceptible to optochin
201
strep pneumoniae colonies soluble in ___
bile
202
strep pneumoniae are quellung reaction ___
positive
203
strep pneumoniare cause deadly ____, ____, _____
deadly pneumoniae, meningitis, endocarditis
204
virulence factors of ____: m-protein, hyaluronic capsule, protein g, protein f, hemolysins, streptokinase, C5 peptidase, erythrogenic toxins, cytotoxins, superantigens, TSST-A
strep
205
m-protein (____) for _____
(group a) for colonization
206
protein g - _____
ties up Ig
207
protein f - for _____
adhesion
208
hemolysins - __ and ___
O and S
209
_______ diseases: meningitis in children under 4, otitis media in children
H. influenzae type b
210
virulence of _____: capsule, IgA protease, cytolethal toxin (CDT)
H. influenza type b
211
transmission of H. influenza type b:
inhalation of respiratory droplets
212
H. influenzae are _____
nonencapsulated
213
diseases of H. influenzae: ____ in children, ____ in elderly
otitis media in children, pneumonia in elderly
214
H. influenzae transmission: ______ or ______
inhalation of respiratory droplets or mother to newborn
215
h. ducreyi causes ___ in men and is transmitted by ___
chancroid in men and is transmitted by STD
216
bordetella causes ____/______
pertussis/whooping cough
217
whooping cough _____stage (cold) and _____ stage (cough)
whooping cough catarrhal stage (cold) and paroxysmal stage (cough)
218
virulence factors of ____: filamentous, hemagglutinin, pertussis toxin, cAMP, adenylate, cyclase, tracheal cytotoxin
bordetella
219
bordetella transmission: inhalation of _____ generated by _____
inhalation of aerosols generated by infected individuals
220
bordetella has only ___ carriers
human carriers
221
_____ is encapsulated, aerobic, and a gram + rod
anthrax
222
anthrax produces highly resistant
spores
223
_____ anthrax is the most common
cutaneous
224
with cutaneous anthrax ___ forms and turns into a ____ in 7-10 days
with cutaneous anthrax PAPULAR LESION forms and turns into a BLACK ESCHAR in 7-10 days
225
____ anthrax is not lethal
cutaneous
226
___ anthrax occurs after eating undercooked meat or dairy products from infected animals
GI
227
GI anthrax incubation period is __-__ days
1-7 days
228
____/____ anthrax is the rarest and most deadly form
inhalation/respiratory
229
respiratory/inhalation anthrax incubation period is ___ week to __ months
one week- 2 months
230
with respiratory/inhalation anthrax you first develop ____ and ____ and death occurs within __-__ hours
nonspecific signs and symptoms and death occurs within 24-36 hours
231
virulence of respiratory/inhalation anthrax virulence:
| ____ and __ toxins
protein capsule and 3 toxins
232
list the three respiratory/inhalation anthrax toxins
PA - attachment
EF
LF - cell destruction
233
virulence of _____: Fra in capsule, V and W factors , exotoxins, coagulase, Pla protease, siderophores, type III secretion, Yop gene products, 3 virulence plasmids
yersinia pestis
234
Fra in capsule is _____
antiphagocytic
235
exotoxins shut down ___
TNF
236
Pla protease - degrades __
c3
237
type III secretion that disrupts ____ and ____ of ____ and induces type III secretion that disrupts actin and induces _____ in macrophages
type III secretion that disrupts actin and proteins of phagocytosis and induces apoptosis in macrophages
238
3 virulence plasmids of yersinia pestis:
capsule, Pla, L cr V
239
____ induces IL and binds to TLR2 to downregulate immunity
L cr V
240
urban cycle, _____ , 7 day incubation
cutaneous route
241
_____ has droplet spread and a 3 day incubation
secondary pneumonic plague
242
secondry pneumonic plague has ___% fatality
75%
243
_____ 5% of the world’s population infected with it and it causes 2-3 million deaths per year
mycobacterium
244
virulence of ____: mycolic acids, glycolipids of wall, sulfolipid, proteins in wall (PPD)
mycobacterium
245
sulfolipid that inhibits
phagocytosis
246
proteins in wall (PPD) used for
tuberculin mantoux test
247
m. tb infects ___ and ____
humans and elephants
248
m. avian complex (MAC) from ____ infects _______
from water ingfects immunocompromised
249
langerhans cells from TB are _____
fused macrophages
250
___ killing of infected phagocytes, stops infection in about 1 month
CD8
251
_____: walled off area with mycobacteria (in people with OK defenses)
tubercles
252
granulomas: _____
encapsulated
253
_____: hardened tubercle, calcification
ghon complex
254
91% have ____ TB
latent
255
_____ - organism into lung tissue
caseation
256
______ (in immunocompromised), rip up lungs
tuberculous cavities
257
tuberculous cavities become
disseminated TB (miliary)
258
enterotoxigenic (____): causes diarrhea and infants are very susceptible
ETEC
259
ETEC colonizes _____
proximal small intestine
260
ETEC virulence:
- heat labile (__) _____
- heat stable (__) _____
- CFA - ________
- heat labile (LT) cholera toxin
- heat stable (ST) enterotoxin
- CFA - fimbrial adhesin colonization factor
261
enteropathogenic (____): has distinctive lesions
| and colonizes the proximal intestine
EPEC
262
EPEC virulence:
- _____ like shiga toxin
- ____ (cling to intestine)
- ___ like virulence proteins
- cytotoxin like shiga toxin
- intimin (cling to intestine)
- YOP like virulence proteins
263
enteroinvasive (___): causes severe abdominal cramps and gross dysentery with bloody stools and mucus
EIEC
264
EIEC has a predilection for ____ of ____
mucosa of colon
265
EIEC virulence: ____ toxin
shiga like
266
enterohemorrhagic (___): originated in cattle
EHEC
267
EHEC ID50 = __
50
268
EHEC is also known as the _____ strain which causes HUS
O157:H7
269
EHEC colonizes in the
proximal intestine
270
EHEC virulence: is a ______ (____ and ____) related to shiga toxin
verotoxin (STX1 and STX2)
271
enteroaggregative (____): colonizes the small intestine
EAEC
272
EAEC virulence: is _____/"____"
intimin/"stacked bricks"
273
0104:H4 new strain,____, has shiga toxins
STEC
274
salmonella ____ causes typhoid fever
s. typhi
275
virulence of ____: type III secretion, CDT toxin, OxyR, AB exotoxin
salmonella
276
type III secretion (___)
sips
277
OxyR - _____ so it can travel in WBC
neutralizes peroxides
278
AB exotoxin (___) - is a ____
AB exotoxin (STX) - is a cytotoxin
279
Shigella: occupies the ______ and causes _____
large intestine, bacillary dysentery
280
Shigella virulence:
- type III secretion system (_____)
- macrophage ____
- type III secretion system (IPA protein)
| - macrophage apoptosis
281
Vibrio cholerae: _____, produces hemolysin
El Tor biotype
282
Vibrio cholerae increase levels of cAMP and results in _______ of water and electrolytes
hypersecretion
283
Pseudomonas: cause ___ and ___ infection
ear and eye
284
Pseudomonas have _____ enzymes
extracellular
285
Extracellular enzymes of pseudomonas include: ____, phospholipase __, heat stable _____, _____ - tissue necrosis
proteases, phospholipase C, heat stable glycolipid, exotoxin A - tissue necrosis
286
Neisseria have _____ and ____
gonococci and meningococci
287
Neisseria have ___/___ that enhance attachment and resistance to phagocytosis
fimbriae/pili
288
_____: por extends through gonococcal cell membrane enhances survival in leukocytes (in neisseria)
por/protein 1
289
_____: adhesion of gonococci within colonies and in attachment (tan adhesin)
Opa/protein 2
290
lipooligosaccharide is associated with
neisseria
291
neisseria produces ___ protease (in mucosal Ig of humans)
IgA1 protease
292
neisseria attack mucus membranes of ____, ____, ____, and ___
GU tract, eye, rectum, throat
293
Neisseria causes ______ (infection of eye in newborn)
gonococcal ophthalmia neonatorum
294
______ is responsible for many of the toxic effects found in meningococcal disease
meningococcal LPS
295
_____ is encountered in nosocomial pneumonias (originates in water of humidifiers or vaporizers)
acinetobacter
296
acinetobacter bacteremia results from ______
IV catheters
297
____ is an opportunistic pathogen with burns, can produce sepsis
acinetobacter
