Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharm - Fall 2016 > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three predictors of lung volume?

A

Gender
Height (taller = larger vol)
Age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the pattern of asthma and what drug class does it best respond to?

A

eosinophilic - allergic, inflammatory pattern

STEROIDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

do daily symptoms of asthma or QOL correlate with lung volume findings?

A

No

Asthma SX and QOL do not correlate with lung volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

COPD depicts which pattern and responds well to what drug class?

A

neutrophilic (chronic mucus production allows bacterial growth)
ANTIBIOTICS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the greatest risk factor for COPD?

A

Smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is Asthma COPD Overlap Syndrome (ASCOS)

A

involves inflammation and bronchoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Do Asthma or COPD have alveolar destruction?

A

COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which drugs are generally classified as relievers? What does it mean to be a reliever?

A

Albuterol
Salmeterol
Tiotropium (anti-cholinergic)
Theophylline (rarely used)

  • relievers bronchodilate to RELIEVE symptoms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which drugs are administered PO for Asthma TX?

A

Montelukast (controller)
Theophylline (rarely used)
- because PO, systemic side effects common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How are Spacers Helpful?

A
  • more drug into the lungs (from 1/3 to 1/2)
  • less drug into the gut

(fewer systemic side effects)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the MOA for montelukast?

A

leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA); block LTD4, LTE4, stop binding
(oral admin)
- CYP3A4 metab
otherwise, minimal adv. effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the MOA for theophylline?

A

similar to caffeine; CNS stimulant

  • bronchodilates
  • not an alternative to ICS; more like LABA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which controller medication is primarily used in asthma tx?

A

Montelukast (Singulair)

lipoxygenase pathway (block pathway: prevent leukotriene production)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

which drug blocks IgE production and plays a HUGE role in asthma treatment?

A

Corticosteroid - Beclomethasone (ICS)

- broad anti-inflammatory drug of choice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which Short Acting Beta Agonist (SABA) is used as a short acting rescue inhaler for asthma?

A

Albuterol (Salbutamol)

- onset in 90s, increases lung volume 20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Is Albuterol meant for daily use?

A

No

Daily use = poorly controlled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which drug is albuterol related to and what S/E are expected with this drug?

A

Like Epinephrine

  • Tachycardia
  • Hypertension
  • Jitteriness/Mild Anxiety
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Should you recommend an OTC inhaled epinephrine such as asthmanefrin for asthma?

A

NO! Works like an inhaled Epi-Pen; 15s-5 min duration, NO BENEFIT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

which Long Acting Beta Agonist (LABA) is used, often in combination with steroids for Asthma TX? How long does it work?

A

Salmeterol - increases lung volume
> 10% in 10 min,
> 30% in 1 hour.
Declines to 15% in 12 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Does salmeterol control disease progression?

A

No; rarely used in practice, more risk of adverse effects (over-stimulation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which anti-cholinergic has a persistent effect and does not easily achieve tolerance?

A

Tiotropium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How does Tiotropium compare to Salmeterol?

A

Salmeterol (LABA) loses persistence long term, less tolerance;
equal clinical effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How do inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) target inflammation, are they relievers or controllers? what should patients be reminded of? why?

A

block IgE, controllers

- remind patient to rinse mouth after use; local thrush infxn; effect on LONG BONEs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Are steroids used to control of Asthma or COPD?

A

steroids are recommended for
BOTH ASTHMA and COPD
CONTROLLER DRUGS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the first steps in treating asthma?

A

start with albuterol
then low-dose ICS (or theophylline)
then move to salmeterol (or tiotropium)

omalizumab should be considered for allergic patients
then oral corticosteroid if still not controlled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

are anti-cholinergic indicated for patients with asthma?

A

Yes - when tiotropium was added to ICS, improved sx and lung function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Do current medications slow or stop functional decline in COPD?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the first steps in treating COPD?

A 
start w/ removing risk factors (smoking)
then albuterol (prn)
then long acting broncho-dilator such as: tiotropium or theophylline
then ICS (beclomethasone)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

For COPD if pulse ox drops <88% what do you do?

A

administer oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what does an anti-histamine MOA look like?

A

blocks H1 receptor sites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is the main difference between bacterial and viral conjunctivitis?

A

bacterial - purulent d/c

viral - little to no d/c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

which drugs is reserved for prophylaxis of neonatal gonococcal and chlamydial infections?

A

erythromycin ointment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what is the MOA for macrolides? which drugs are in this group?

A

inhibit bacterial protein biosynthesis by binding 50s subunit
- bacterioSTATIC

  • azithromycin (Gonorrhea, Chlamydia)
  • erythromycin (prenatal gonorrhea)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what s/e should be considered with erythromycin administration?

A 
GI sx (N/V/D)
prolonged QT
hepatotoxicity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Does erythromycin have multiple drug interactions?

A

Yes, CYP450-3A4 inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

which aminoglycoside is a commonly used topical for bacterial conjunctivitis? what spectrum is this drug?

A

Tobramycin
BROAD spectrum antibiotic

  • staphylococcus is the common bacteria responsible
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

when treating primary open-angle glaucoma, which drug class is recommended due to fewer side effects?

A

prostaglandin analogs over beta blockers

both work to decrease aqueous production.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is the number one treatment for glaucoma?

A

Lantanoprost
prostaglandin analog
decreases aqueous production, increased outflow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

which treatment topical or transdermal is most easily absorbed? how else can you compare and contrast topical vs transdermal?

A
  • creams are most easily absorbed (topical)

- transdermal has systemic effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

which topical antimicrobial is indicated for MRSA, a drug of choice for limited number of lesions in Impetigo?

A

Mupirocin

S/E increase with larger area to treat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the MOA of Mupirocin (Bactroban)? used for which kinds of bacteria?

A

inhibits bacterial protein synthesis

  • effective against gram +
  • bacterioSTATIC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How are topical corticosteroids categorized in regard to potency? which category is used in children?

A

Class I - most potent
Class II-III - high potency
Class IV-V - medium potency
Class V-VII - low-potency (USED IN CHILDREN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what is the MC used topical steroid class due to lower risk of systemic effects, but high enough potency for effect

A

class IV-V*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What caution should be taken with the use of isoretinoin (accutane)?

A

TERATOGENIC*

- do not take while pregnant!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what are the bactericidal antibiotics? which ones are concentration dependent or time dependent?

A

aminoglycosides (concentration dependent)
fluoroquinones (concentration dependent)
beta-lactams (time dependent)
vancomycin (time dependent)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

how is sensitivity, the degree to which organisms are killed by an antimicrobial, determined?

A
  • must reach microorganism
  • bind to it
  • interfere with vital function
  • remain intact chemically while acting upon organism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what is the MOA of the sulfonamide: Sulfamethoxazole w Trimethoprim (Bactrim)?

A

inhibits FOLIC ACID synthesis, resistance is increasing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

which anti-microbial is indicated for community acquired MRSA?

A

Sulfonamide:
Sulfamethoxazole w Trimethoprim (bactrim)

  • if suspicion of MRSA, tx empirically with this
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What adverse or drug interactions should be considered with sulfonamides?

A

allergic conditions
Drug interactions:
Para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA)
WARFARIN* (increases effects)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what is the MOA for penicillins such as amoxicillin? what is the characteristic structure responsible for this?

A

Inhibit cell wall synthesis by binding Penicillin Binding Proteins (PBPs)

  • beta lactam ring
  • bacteriCIDAL
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which penicillin is used to treat otitis media and sinusitis?

A

Amoxicillin

  • binds PBPs, stops cell wall synth
  • narrow spectrum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

which antibiotic is avoided in cystitis due to high resistance? Unless?

A

Amoxicillin

- ONLY USE if enterococcus is suspected*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

which antibiotic is the treatment of choice for enterococci?

A

amoxicillin

- also great for OM (first line tx)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Amoxicillin/clavulanic acid (Augmentin) is effective against?

A

MSSA sp, but EXCELLENT against ALL anaerobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what should be considered when administering Amoxicillin/clavulanic acid (Augmentin)

A

clavulanic acid is a beta lactamase inhibitor; increases effect of penicillins against resistance
- increases GI S/E; Diarrhea is common

Major interactions with acacia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

should amoxicillin/clavulanic acid be considered for MRSA?

A

no, non-MRSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the most severe cause of antibiotic induced diarrhea? which antibiotic may be to blame?

A

pseudomembranous colitis

- amoxicillin/clavulanic acid (Augmentin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what adverse effects should be considered with penicillins?

A

allergies (with 1 hr admin)
seizures

may interact with Ginkgo or seizure drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

which anti-microbial class should NEVER be used to treat enterococcus?

A

Cephalosporins - RESISTANT*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what is the MOA of cephalosporins?

A

bind PBP on cell wall, disrupt synthesis (similar to penicillins); beta lactam
- time dependent, repeat dosing

-cephalexin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what class is cephalexin in and what is it’s MOA?

A

first gen. cephalosporins

- bind PBP on cell wall to disrupt synth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what is cephalexin indicated for?

A
  • MSSA*
  • UTI
  • respiratory infections
  • surgical prophylaxis
  • skin infections
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What can be considered second options (2) if allergic to penicillin and infected with GABHS?

A

cephalexin (cephalosporin)

azithromycin (macrolide)

64
Q

A Z-pack is which anti-microbial? What do you need to advise your patients of?

A

Azithromycin

  • Food decreases absorption
  • take 1 hr before, or 2 hours after meals
65
Q

What is the adverse reaction of concern with macrolides? Of the two macrolides, which has the least adverse rxns?

A

DIARRHEA - stimulates enteric plexus, increases peristaltic movement

Azithromycin: (compared to erythromycin)
fewer GI symptoms
fewer drug interactions (consider CYP450-3A4)
less effect on QT interval

(compared to erythromycin)

66
Q

Which concentration-dependent macrolide is key to treating both gonorrhea AND chlamydia? What gets added if suspect Gonorrhea?

A

Azithromycin (1g PO)

IF GONORRHEA
add: ceftriaxone

IF unsure?
Treat like it’s Gonorrhea.

67
Q

What is the MOA of tetracyclines?

A

inhibits protein synthesis by binding 30s ribosomal subunit

bacteriostatic

68
Q

What should be remembered about tetracyclines?

A

bind to calcium ions, should not be taken with dairy or calcium supplements

69
Q

Which tetracycline is used to treat community acquired MRSA - and is also an alternative to penicillin allergy?

A

Doxycycline

binds to 30s ribosomal subunit, bacteriostatic

70
Q

What adverse reaction should be known about tetracyclines?

A

TOOTH DISCOLORATION in children
C/I in pregnancy and kiddos
Photosensitivity

  • can be used in renal failure
71
Q

when empirically treating pneumonia, which antibiotic should be considered if patient is at risk for QT prolongation?

A

Doxycycline

72
Q

Which drug treats chlamydia?

A

Doxycycline

OR Azithromycin

73
Q

what is the MOA for quinolones? which antibiotics are they?

A

inhibit bacterial DNA gyrate, inhibiting replication and transcription
bactericidal

  • ciprofloxacin
  • moxifloxacin
74
Q

which antibiotic drug class is effective against b. fragilis?

A

quinolone (moxifloxacin)

  • grapefruit drug interactions
  • orally binds to cations
75
Q

what is the MOA of metronidazole?

A

inhibits nucleic acid synthesis
RESISTANCE RARE
- anti-biotic/protozoa

76
Q

Which antibiotic is indicated for clostridium difficile associated diarrhea OR abdominal abscess? and specific for which bug?

A

METRONIDAZOLE*

anaerobic specific* b.fragilis

77
Q

What is the most common s/e with metronidazole?

A

disulfiram interaction - creates nausea with any alcohol consumption*

78
Q

Which antibiotic is indicated for lower UTI but NOT pyelonephritis?

A

Nitrofurantoin

79
Q

What is the MOA of Nitrofurantoin?

A

disrupts both DNA and RNA of bacteria sensitive to the drug.
SAFE in PREG until 38 weeks gestation

80
Q

What are the S/E of Nitrofurantoin?

A

N/V/D
less common
fever, chills, pulmonary fibrosis

81
Q 
which antibiotic class has the side effect of nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity? 
Which one is it and what is it used for?
A

Aminoglycosides (bactericidal); use primarily for gm -, aerobic infxn (pseudomonas)

-tobramycin (bacterial conjunctivitis)

82
Q

Differentiate CA-MRSA to MRSA

A

CA-MRSA - pustular abscess, drainable lesions

MRSA - more of a superficial cellulitis

83
Q

Which antibiotic is used to treat MRSA? How is it administered?

A

Vancomycin; IV

84
Q

When is vancomycin PO used?

A

ONLY for C. DIFF*

85
Q

Which PO drugs (3) treat pseudomonas colitis?

A

Metronidazole (mild cases)
Vancomycin (moderate to severe)

Ciprofloxacin

86
Q

What drug class is ciprofloxacin in? What is it used to treat?

A

Fluoroquinolone’s (BROAD spectrum)

- ind. bacterial conjunctivitis after tobramycin

87
Q

Fluoroquinolone antibiotics should not be used due to ?

A

increased risk of bacterial resistance

- not indicated for cystitis

88
Q

which condition is, 90% of the time, caused by viral infection?

A

pharyngitis

60% are treated with antibiotics

89
Q

What are the centor criterion?

A

Point for Each

  • no cough
  • fever
  • tonsillar exudate
  • 3-14 years of age
  • anterior lymphadenopathy

> 2 = culture and treat.

90
Q

when should you begin an antibiotic with a child experiencing otitis media?

A

if child worsens in 48-72 hours

All children < 6mo, tx
6-24 mo, tx if BL AOM or if otorrhea
If > 2 yr, and otorrhea, tx

91
Q

What is “treatment failure”

A

no improvement after 48-72 hours of initial treatment

92
Q

Does purulent D/C predict bacterial infection?

A

no, palpate for facial pressure and pain

93
Q

for sinusitis, when do symptoms peak an which is the most common of the bugs?

A

sx peak 7-10 days
bugs: s. pneumonia, h. flu (also both MC for pneumonia)
75% bacterial infxn

94
Q

are antihistamines recommended for sinusitis?

A

no.

95
Q

what are the common bugs for cystitis? how do you treat?

A

e coli
klebsiella

  • tx empirically with nitrofurantoin
    IF resistance - TMP/SMX
96
Q

when is the only time to think amoxicillin with cystitis?

A

if enterococcus is suspected

97
Q

which anti-fungal for superficial mycoses is PO administration?

A

Terbinafine/Lamisil
- topical admin, not successful for hair and nails; when ingested, accumulates in hair and nails - WHO lists as ESSENTIAL med for dermatophyte infxn

98
Q

What is the MOA for Terbinafine?

A

interferes with ERGOSTEROL biosynthesis

- primary use: dermatophyte infxns (skin/nail)

99
Q

What are the S/E of Terbinafine?

A

abdominal discomfort, diarrhea, N / HA

100
Q

Which systemic anti fungal is reserves as GOLD STANDARD IV for life threatening infxn?

A

Amphotericin B

- extremely broad spectrum, inexpensive

101
Q

What is the famous side effect of amphotericin B?

A

“Shake and Bake”

Toxicity related to infusion: Fever, NVD chills, renal toxicity

102
Q

What class of anti-fungals is amphotericin B?

A

polyenes

103
Q

what is the MOA of amphotericin B?

A

binds to ergosterols in membrane, forming pores (kills cell)

104
Q

What is the MOA of azoles?

A

block formation of ergosterol - fungal static

105
Q

What is the most used systemic anti-fungal? S/E?

A

Fluconazole (PO triazole)

  • narrow spectrum
  • low toxicity; some GI upset
106
Q

What drug do you need to take caution with when using fluconazole?

A

Warfarin

CYP450 - increases levels

107
Q

which organism lacks both a cell wall and membrane; consists of nucleic acids surrounded by protein capsule

A

viruses

108
Q

which virus is the MC cause of regular seasonal outbreaks for influenza in all age groups?

A

orthomyxoviridae

determined by surface antigen subtypes : Hemagglutinin and Neuraminidase

109
Q

which topical ointment is reserved for HSV and VZV?

A

Acyclovir

110
Q

What is the MOA of Acyclovir?

A

guanosine analog; stops further DNA synthesis

111
Q

Which anti-viral can cross BBB and be used to tx Herpes Meningitis and Encephalitis? What caution MUST be taken?

A

Acyclovir IV
- RENAL TOXICITY; MANDATES PROPER HYDRATION

increasing resistance

112
Q

What biomarkers indicate acute hepatitis?

A

ALT/AST > 500-1000 U/L

113
Q

What is the only effective TX for HDV Co-Infection?

A

Peg-Interferon Alpha (pegasys)

first line tx; cytokine inducing causing specific and non-specific immune responses

monitor CBC and TSH x 3mo

114
Q

What is the preferred first line therapy for Hepatitis B? Also effective against?

A

Tenofovir

  • also effective against HIV/AIDS
  • adjust dose if CrCl is < 50 ml/min
115
Q

What is the class/MOA for tenofovir?

A

nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI)

HIV nucleoside analog reverse transcriptase inhibitor Anti-HBV reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI)

116
Q

What is guaranteed after 2-4 years with tenofovir?

A

resistance

117
Q

What S/E should be considered with Tenofovir?

A

Lactic Acidosis
Acute Renal Failure (Nephrotoxicity)
decreased bone mineral density

  • Preferred in PREG,
  • active against HEP B
118
Q

What class of anti-virals is Darunavir? And what is the MOA?

A

HIV Protease Inhibitor (NRTI)

MOA: inhibit protease cleaving of GAG and GAG-POL viral proteins

119
Q

what are the S/E of darunavir?

A

hyperlipidemia
hypertriglyceridemia
insulin resistance
- inhibition of CYP450 3A4

generally administered with low-dose ritonavir (prevents breakdown) keeps concentrations higher

120
Q

what vaccines are recommended for HIV? Live?

A

Pneumococcal
Flu
HPV
- Never live, esp if CD4 < 200 cells/mm3

121
Q

Is the live attenuate flu shot recommended in pregnancy?

A

no

122
Q

What immunosuppressing biologic is administered subdermally with a MOA of human monoclonal antibody against TNF-alpha?

A

Adalimumab (Humira)

123
Q

Which medication class for influenza is no longer recommended due to high rate of resistance?

A

Adamatanes

- active only against A; but best used for Parkinson’s treatment

124
Q

what anti-metabolite, purine analog inhibits purine synthesis and DNA replication resulting in apoptosis? What is it used for?

A

Azathioprine

Use: IBS, Organ Transplant

125
Q

Azathioprine is a pro-drug, meaning once it’s metabolized it turns into what?

A

6-mercaptopurine

126
Q

What is the time of onset for Azathioprine and what adverse effect should be noted?

A

1-3 month onset

- major interaction: ethanol

127
Q

what stimulant laxative stimulates peristalsis by direct irritation to the smooth muscle of the intestine?

A

Bisacodyl (dulcolax)

- stimulates enteric plexus

128
Q

This drug interacts with oleander increasing the the risk of cardiac glycoside toxicity by depleting K+

A

Bisacodyl (Dulcolax)

- stimulates enteric plexus

129
Q

When do you avoid use of Bisacodyl (Dulcolax)?

A

if there is actual / possible BOWEL OBSTRUCTION

130
Q

which glucocorticoid is used almost as a topical to the ileum and ascending colon with minimal absorbance and therefore S/E? MOA?

A

Budesonide
works when pH is > 5.5 by inhibiting leukocytes and fibroblasts and inhibiting capillary permeability to the immune system

DO NOT consume W/GRAPEFRUIT

131
Q

What is the difference between budesonide and prednisone?

A

Budesonide has fewer steroid side effects b/c only 9-21% absorbed (significant first pass metabolism)

Common steroid S/E:

  • acne
  • weight gain
  • insomnia
  • easy bruising
132
Q

what is the MOA of Docusate?

A

reduces surface tension of the oil-water interface in stool acting as a SOFTENER

  • sometimes used as cerumolytic
133
Q

What is the drug of choice for tinea?

A

Ketoconazole

134
Q

What is the MOA of keotconazole?

A

inhibits sterol synthesis

S/E - skin irritation

135
Q

Which antacid may cause diarrhea and is 20% absorbed systemically?

A

Magnesium Hydroxide

20% magnesium absorbed

136
Q

Metoclopramide, commonly used to treat nausea and vomiting, has effects on which receptors?

A

Dopamine (D2)

Serotonin (5HT4)

137
Q

Metoclopramide has which adverse event that should be considered at high doses?

A

dopamine-suppression
extra-pyramidal effects

  • used to tx N/V
138
Q

Which pharmacologic agent is used to control gas?

A

simethicone

139
Q

what is the MOA of simethicone and which drug does it interact with?

A

MOA: silicon polymer acts as a de-foaming agent; reduces surface tension of gas bubbles

levothyroxine - decreases serum concentration of this drug

140
Q

What is the MOA of tetracycline? Is it bacteriostatic or bactericidal?

A

inhibits protein synthesis, binds 30s ribosomal subunit

-bacteriostatic

141
Q

Common Adverse Reaction in Tetracyclines?

A

Tooth discoloration in children - C/I pregnancy and children

  • can be used in renal failure
    Overall use has decreased due to resistance
142
Q

This prostaglandin analog decreases aqueous production and increases aqueous outflow for use in glaucoma, it also has a lower risk of S/E compared to another common glaucoma drug?

A

Bimatoprost

less S/E than BB; may have local irritation, iris pigmentation

143
Q

Which drug is MC used to treat Hepatitis C, the MC blood borne dz in the US?

A

Sofosbuvir-Velpatasvir (Epclusa)

144
Q

When should you avoid using Sofosbuvir-Velpatasvir (Epclusa)

A

significant renal dysfunction

145
Q

This salicylate (class 5-ASA) is used in treatment and prevention of UC/RA flares and it works by decreasing inflammation?

A

sulfasalazine

146
Q

What S/E should be known about Sulfasalazine?

A

Increases effects of Warfarin

decreases effects of BB

147
Q

This anti-retroviral medication is preferred in pregnancy to inhibit the spread of HIV to the fetus during birth

A

zidovudine

148
Q

This anti-retroviral nucleoside analog is used in combination with peg interferon drugs to treat HepC, but comes with severe S/E and interactions

A

ribavirin

  • severe birth defects
  • hemolytic anemia*
149
Q

What does DMARD stand for and which drugs reside in this class? What are they used for?

A

Disease Modifying Anti-Rheumatic Drug

  • Adalimumab (TNF-alpha)
  • Azathioprine (inhibit purine synth)
  • Sulfasalazine (MOA unclear, decreases inflammation)

IBS, Crohn’s, RA

150
Q

what are the steps in Viral Replication?

A
  1. attachment
  2. penetration
  3. un-coating (disassembly)
  4. transcription and translation
  5. assembly and release
151
Q

Which drugs are our anti-viral drugs (6)?

A
  • Acyclovir (HSV, VZV, Herpes Meningitis, Encephalitis)
  • Adamatane (was flu, more anti-Parkinsons)
  • Darunavir (HIV)
  • Sofasbuvir/Velpatasvir (Hep C)
  • Tenofovir (Hep B, HIV/AIDS)
  • Zidovudine (prevents prenatal HIV transmission)
152
Q

What is an odd, but maybe, nice adverse reaction to Bimatoprost?

A

eyelash elongation

153
Q

the prostaglandin brimatoprost does what for its MOA?

A

increases outflow of aqueous fluid and decreases production lowering IOP
smooth muscle stimulant

154
Q

Which two drugs have an interaction with Warfarin, possible increasing it’s effects?

A

Fluconazole (systemic anti-fungal)

Sulfasalazine (UC/RA)

155
Q

Which two drugs have an adverse reaction associated with alcohol/ethanol consumption?

A

metronidazole

azathioprine

156
Q

Which two antibiotics are effective against MSSA?

A

Cephalexin (cephalosporin)

Amoxicillin/clavulanic acid

157
Q

what should be considered for asthma patients with allergy?

A

omalizumab should be considered for allergic patients

Pharm - Fall 2016 (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions