Exam 2 Flashcards
(349 cards)
1
Q
How many miles would the human circulatory system be if all the arteries, veins, and capillaries were laid end to end?
A
50,000 miles, 2 1/2 times around the earth
2
Q
What are the functions of the circulatory system?
A
- Carry oxygen, nutrients, carbon dioxide, metabolic waste, and hormones
- Maintain constant temperature, constant pH, constant osmotic pressure, proper waste balance, and, in part, pathogen free
- Form clots
- Affects organ activity
3
Q
The muscles, brain, and heart all ______ in percent blood flow going from parasympathetic to sympathetic control. The skin, GI tract, liver, and kidney _____ in percent blood flow going from parasympathetic to sympathetic control.
A
- Increase
- decrease
4
Q
The parasympathetic system is in control during _____, and the sympathetic system is in control during ______.
A
- rest
- Fight
5
Q
On average, capillaries are about _____% full of blood.
A
50
6
Q
What are the three categories of blood cells?
A
Erythrocytes, platelets, leukocytes
7
Q
Leukocytes are _____ blood cells. Erythrocytes are _____ blood cells.
A
- White
- Red
8
Q
______ ______ is the red bone marrow of the long bone, ribs, sternum, pelvis, body vertebrae, and portions of the skull. What does it produce?
A
- Myeloid tissue
- Different types of blood cells
9
Q
_____ _____ is found as a cylinder of loosely organized cells surrounding small arteries in the liver and is mixed with blood-forming cells in the bone marrow.
A
Lymphoid tissue
10
Q
Where are developing blood cells found? What kind of tissue is especially present here?
A
- Bone marrow
- Fatty tissue
11
Q
What kind of transplants are used in adult stem cell transplants?
A
Bone marrow transplants
12
Q
How many RBC’s are there per mL of blood? How many are produced per second? How many in the human body?
A
- 5 billion
- 2 million
- 25 trillion
13
Q
_______ are an anucleated disc. What is their shape?
A
- Erythrocytes
- Biconcave cell
14
Q
What shape do erythrocytes take in hypoosmotic water? What shape do they take in salt?
A
- Spherical
- crenate
15
Q
Erythrocytes have _____ that stick out from their outer membrane. What do these determine?
A
- proteins
- blood type
16
Q
Red blood cell maturation requires what?
A
- vitamin B12
- folic acid
17
Q
What is the maturation process of erythrocytes like?
A
- An erythroblast in the bone marrow expels its nucleus
- The nucleus disintegrates and the cell is called a reticulocyte
- Through autophagy, the erythrocyte loses its major organells and becomes an erythrocyte
18
Q
An immature erythrocyte in the bone marrow is called a _______.
A
Reticulocyte
19
Q
How are erythrocytes in a bird different?
A
- Ellipsoid shape
- Still have nucleus
20
Q
endothelial cells in the wall of capillaries form _____ _____ and have a _____ ____.
A
- tight junctions
- basal lamina
21
Q
_____ cells line blood vessels.
A
Endothelial
22
Q
What are 5 characteristics of epithelial cells in the circulatory system?
A
- Interface the outside and inside (inside = endothelium)
- Form tight junctions with neighboring cells
- Sit on a basement membrane/basal lamina
- Innervated
- Avascular
23
Q
Red blood cells have a _____ fit through capillaries.
A
Tight
24
Q
What are the differences in a hematocrit and hemocytometer?
A
- Hematocrit = determines concentration of red blood cells; also called packed cell volume; centrifuge a sample of blood to separate plasma, red blood cells, and white blood cells
- Hemocytometer= Dilute a blood samle, then uses a microscope and a grid to count red blood cells
25
What does an oximeter do?
Uses the color of blood to determine the red blood cell count
26
What are two methods to count red blood cells?
- Hematocrit
| - Hemocytometer
27
What does the biconcave shape of red blood cells do?
- Increases surface area 20-30% to allow gas exchange
| - Allows bending in small capillaries
28
What is the main difference in bird erythrocytes versus mammal erythrocytes?
-No nucleus in mammal erythrocytes, birds do
29
What are platelets?
Small fragments of megakaryocyte cytoplasm released into the blood
30
______ sit on the outside of capillaries. They have "Fake legs" called ______ that extend into the capillary. When these break off, they form ______.
- Megakaryocytes
- pseudopodia
- platelets
31
Platelets are also called ________. How do they help blood clot formation? Why do people with heart problems have to take baby aspirin daily?
- thrombocytes
- Their outer membrane is sticky to help with blood clot formation
- Taking baby aspirin makes platelets less sticky so that blood clot formation is prevented
32
Leukocytes are a type of _____ ______ cell. How many do people produce in a day?
- white blood
| - 100 million
33
What are the two main categories of leukocytes?
Granulocytes and agranulocytes
34
What are the three kinds of granulocytes?
- Neutrophils
- Eosinophils
- basophils
35
What are the two kinds of agranulocytes?
- lymphocytes
| - monocytes
36
Why are neutrophils named that?
They take up a neutral stain
37
What is the other name for neutrophils? Why are they called this?
- Polymorphonuclear cells
| - Their nucleus has many shapes
38
What are the main cells found in the pus of an abscess?
Neutrophils (white blood cells)
39
______ easily move out of blood vessels during ______ to fight infection.
- Neutrophils
| - chemotaxis
40
______ is the process of neutrophils moving through the tissue to a higher concentration of infection for phagocytosis. _______ is the movement of white blood cells through a blood vessel wall.
- Chemotaxis
| - Diapedesis
41
Another name for diapedesis is ______.
Extravasation
42
What is the first line of cellular defense?
Neutrophils
43
_____ _____ are emitted from tissue damage and create a _____ _____ that phagocytes can follow back to the origin of damage.
- chemical signals
| - concentration gradient
44
phagocytes utilize _____ movement to propel themselves through body fluids.
Ameboid
45
What causes phagocytes to migrate?
Leakage of cellular contents, interleukines, and other chemokines cause a chemical concentration gradient that cause phagocytes to migrate
46
What does interendothelial/paracellular diapedesis mean? What cells do this?
- Between endothelial cells
| - neutrophils
47
Whate does endothelial/transcellular diapedesis mean? What cells do this?
- through endothelial cells
| - lymphocytes and sperm cells
48
What is another name for eosinophils? Why are they called this?
- Acidophils
| - They take up an acid stain
49
The nucleus of eosinophils is what shape? Eosinophils are active in ____ ____, fight ____, and ____ is caused by overactive eosinophils.
- Trilobular or bilobular
- allergic reactions
- parasites
- asthma
50
How do eosinophils kill parasites or allergens?
-They have toxins and free radicals that they release
51
Mast cells gone into circulation are called _______. These have ____ and make ____.
-Basophils
-Granules
Secretions
52
What secretions do basophils make? What do they do?
- Histamine, serotonin, and bradykinin are vasodialators
| - Heparin stops blood clotting
53
What percentage of white blood cells do basophils make up?
-1%
54
What cells line a capillary?
Endothelial cells
55
_____ are agranular leukocytes with a large nucleus and little cytoplasm.
-Lymphocytes
56
What do agranular leukocytes make?
- lymphokines such as cytokines and T cells
| - Antibodies
57
When monocytes diapedese, they are called _____.
Macrophages
58
Monocytes have a ____ shaped nucleus and they are _______.
- kidney
| - phagocytic
59
Bone marrow stem cells can make ____ cells or ____ cells. What can each of these then become?
- T cells: cytotoxic T cells or Helper T cells
| - B cells: Memory cells or plasma cells, which become antibodies
60
Which kind of T cell can become a memory cell?
Helper T cells
61
T cells mature in the _____. B cells mature in the _____.
- Thymus
| - Bursa of Fabricus in birds, Bone in humans
62
Going from the bone to the lympoidal tissues is called the ____ ____.
Lymphoidal pathway
63
____ are secreted by T cells. They are chemical signals that turn on the rest of the immune system.
Lymphokines
64
What is the monocyte-macrophage system? What is another name for this? What was the old name?
- Macrophage development takes place in the bone marrow. They are a stem cell, then a committed stem cell, then a monocyte in the bone marrow, then a monocyte in the peripheral blood, then a macrophage in the tissues.
- Also called mononuclear macrphage system (MPS)
- Used to be called reticuloendothelial system
65
Most tissues in the body contain _____ ____ of macrophages that protect the tissue from infection. These macrophages are called _____ macrophages. They have different _____ depending on where they are in the body.
- resident populations
- Fixed
- Names
66
Each RBC contains _____ million hemoglobin molecules. They are ____ water and ____ hemoglobin;.
- 280
- 2/3
- 1/3
67
What are the subunits of hemoglobin? Describe the structure of the subunits.
- 2 alpha and 2 beta subunits
| - Each subunit has a heme group (a disc with iron) surrounded by either an alpha or beta globin protein
68
How do RBC's carry oxygen?
Oxygen oxidizes Fe2+ to Fe3+
69
What state must iron exist in to bind oxygen?
Fe2+
70
Low amounts of hemoglobin or iron can lead to _____, the most common disorder of the ____.
- Anemia
| - Blood
71
Anemia will lead to ______, and a subset of this is _____.
- Hypoxia
| - Ischemia
72
_____ is low oxygen supply to tissues. ______ is low blood flow to a site due to an obstruction such as vasoconstriction, thrombosis, or embolism.
- Hypoxia
| - Ischemia
73
_____ ____ anemia is when cells take on a sickle shape. It can be especially dangerous because anemia already causes a low RBC count. These cells can block blood flow through a ____ causing _____.
- Sickle cell
- capillary
- Ischemia
74
In _____ _____ _____, cells have a greater tendency to stack on top of one another and crowd blood vessels. These invariably lead to painful _____ _____, which are a hallmark of the disease.
- Sickle cell anemia
| - vasoocclusive episodes
75
What is the cause of sickle cell anemia?
The beta globin has one amino acid changed, causing the protein to be linearized
76
What amino acid does normal beta chain have? What amino acid does sickle cell RBC's have?
- Normal: glutamic acid
| - Sickle: valine
77
For people with sickle cell anemia, hematocrit levels are ____, so they have _____ the number of RBC's.
- half
| - half
78
What is sickle cell trait?
The person does not have the disease, but has inherited the gene. People can be prone to ischemic events during exercise, but most live a normal life and have no symptoms.
79
What is sickle cell disease?
A genetic condition present at birth in someone who has inherited the gene from both parents. Sickle cells die early, causing a constant shortage of red blood cells, and some get stuck in blood vessels and clog blood flow.
80
_______ is a quantitative problem of too few globins synthesized. Sickle-cell disease, a _________, is a qualitative problem of synthesis of a non-functioning __________.
- Thalassemia
- Hemoglobinopathy
- Hemoglobin
81
In lambs, what can you look at to see if they are anemic? What can this anemia be due to?
- Conjunctiva of lower eyelid
| - Internal parasites
82
How does the kidney respond to hypoxia?
The kidney releases erythropoietin, which stimulates RBC synthesis in bone marrow. When blood is back to normal, it no longer makes more erythropoietin.
83
WHat are other names for erythropoietin?
Hematopoietin, hemopoiten, or EPO
84
Can erythropoietin from a cow be given to a human?
No, it must be given within the same species.
85
What are the sites of RBC production throughout life?
- Yolk sac in the early weeks of embryonic life
- Liver in the middle trimester of gestation
- Bone marrow during the last month of gestation and after birth
- Only flat bones later in life, no longer long bones
86
In an anemic animal, _____ levels are high.
Erythropoietin
87
What is blood doping?
Giving erythropoietin to increase RBC's
88
In younger animals, flat bones are _____ through out. As they age, _____ occurs of the cartilage. What can meat inspectors use to age carcasses?
- vascularized
- ossification
- ossification
89
Why are baby pigs susceptible to anemia?
They grow so fast and may not make enough RBC's to keep up with their growth
90
_____ is the liquid part of blood. ____ ____ ____ are involved in carrying oxygen.
- Plasma
| - Red Blood Cells
91
_____ is the rupture or destruction of red blood cells.
Hemolysis
92
_____ makes the majority of blood and is mostly _____.
- Plasma
| - Water
93
What are the three major groups of plasma proteins? Which is the most abundant and where is this made?
- Albumin (most abundant; made by the liver)
- Fibrinogen
- Globulins
94
What are the two roles of albumin?
1. Help maintain osmotic pressure by staying in the blood
| 2. Weakly bind and carry waste products, serving as a garbage bucket of the blood
95
Which blood component is like a "garbage bucket" of the blood?
Albumin
96
What is the role of fibrinogen?
It can be catalyzed to fibrin and work with RBCs to form a strong clot of blood if needed
97
______ is the blood fluid that carries blood clotting agents, while ____ is the water fluid from blood without the clotting factors. Fibrinogen is a clotting agent in _____.
- plasma
- serum
- plasma
98
Serum has no _____ or other clotting factors.
Fibrinogen
99
What are the four globulins in serum?
1. Alpha 1
2. Alpha 2
3. Beta
4. Gamma
100
Which serum protein contains immunoglobulins and antibodies?
Gamma
101
The antibody titer in blood _____ when fighting an antigen.
Increases
102
Serum protein electrophoresis can be used as what?
A diagnostic tool when compared to normal elecrophoretic patterns.
103
______ goes into the extracellular matrix to fed the cells and pick up waste. Then it goes back to the capillaries and out of the system.
Plasma
104
What is in the spaces in a capillary bed?
Interstitial/extracellular fluid
105
Arterioles attach to ____ and direct blood ______ the heart. _____ attach to veins are direct blood ______ the heart.
- Arteries
- Away from
- Toward
106
Hydrostatic pressure, also known as _____ pressure, _____ from arteriole to venule ends of capillaries.
- Blood
| - Decreases
107
What are the two forces acting on plasma?
- Hydrostatic Force/Blood Pressure
| - Osmotic pressure
108
In _____ _____, plasma is pushing against the capillary walls and wanting to escape to the interstitial fluid.
Hydrostatic Force
109
_____ pressure is pressure from the outside going in to the capillaries and is constant.
Osmotic
110
What are the two parts of osmotic pressure?
1. Plasma Proteins
| 2. Cellular Proteins
111
Osmotic pressure is exerted by _____.
Proteins
112
What happens to hydrostatic pressure as blood flows from the arteriole end to the venule end of capillary beds?
Blood pressure decreases due to the extensive surface area of capillaries
113
What is the main protein exerting osmotic pressure?
Albumin
114
What is the equation for net osmotic pressure and what does each number mean?
28 mmHg (osmotic pressure due to plasma proteins) - 5mmHg (osmotic pressure due to proteins around cells not in the lumen) = 23 mmHg (net osmotic pressure; fluid wanting to get back into blood)
115
True or False: Plasma proteins can be found in interstitial fluid.
False, they remain in the blood
116
At the arteriole end, hydrostatic pressure is _____ than osmotic pressure. At the venule end, hydrostatic pressure is _____ than osmotic pressue.
- Greater
| - Less
117
_____ pressure is when the fluid goes out of the capillary due to greater hydrostatic pressure. _____ pressure is when the fluid enters the capillary due to greater osmotic pressure.
- Filtration
| - Reabsorptive
118
What is the equation for flow of fluid at the arteriole end?
32 mmHg (hydrostatic) - (28-5)(Osmotic) = 9 mmHg of Filtration Pressure
119
What is the equation for flow of fluid at the venule end of a capillary bed?
15 mmHg (hydrostatic) - (28-5)(osmotic) = -8 mmHg of reabsorptive pressure
120
When hydrostatic pressure is greater than osmotic pressure, fluid is ______ out. When hydrostatic pressure is less, fluid is ______.
- Filtered
| - Readsorbed
121
True or false: Osmotic pressure is greater at the venule end than the arteriole end of a capillary bed.
False: Osmotic pressure is constant
122
What is the underlying principle of capillary blood flow?
Microcirculation
123
What three things can cause abnormal blood flow in capillaries?
1. Traumatic shock
2. Anaphylactic Shock
3. Pregnancy
124
What happens to microcirculation in traumatic shock?
Hydrostatic pressure greatly increases at the arteriole end, causing greater filtration. The interstitial space balloons up with an accumulation of interstitial fluid, leading to edema.
125
What is edema? What can be done to relieve it? What does it mean in greek?
- Accumulation of interstitial fluid
- You can five a vasodialator to bring the hydrostatic pressure down
- Swelling
126
What happens to microcirculation in anaphylactic shock?
Osmotic pressure decreases, causing filtration pressure to increase and reabsorptive pressure to decrease.
127
What is anaphylactic shock due to?
It is due to severe allergies. The body releases vasodilators, so the blood vessels get bigger and some plasma proteins can leak into the interstitial fluid.
128
What happens to microcirculation during pregnancy?
Hydrostatic pressure increases at the venule end, causing a decrease in reabsorptive pressure. The gravid uterus pushes veins closed. But the arteries are thick walled with lots of pressure and are not closed off. This causes edema.
129
True or false: Arteries have more hydrostatic pressure than veins.
True
130
The _____ is the largest artery. The ______ _____ is the largest vein.
- aorta
| - vena cava
131
How do parasites cause edema?
Parasites suck up whole blood and plasma proteins. Because of the loss of plasma proteins, osmotic pressure decreases and not much fluid is reabsorped.
132
Parasites cause edema, resulting in ____ _____.
Bottle jaw
133
What two systems make up the circulatory system?
The cardiovascular and lymphatic systems
134
Some interstitial fluid returns to the blood. Where does the rest go?
To the lymphatic system to form lymph.
135
When there is more filtration than reabsorption, extra interstitial fluid is pick up by the _____ system.
Lymphatic
136
What other capillaries are found in a blood capillary bed?
Lymphatic capillaries
137
_____ cells line lymphatic capillaries and overlap to create valves and allow interstitial fluid in. _____ _____ attach to the outer membrane of the endothelial cells to hold the cells _____.
- endothelial
- Anchoring filaments
- open
138
What do the valves created by endothelial cells lining lymphatic vessels do?
Allow extracellular flow into the lymph and large pathogens such as bacteria to enter the lymph
139
Lymphatic vessels have valves to prevent ______.
Backflow
140
Lymph is composed of what two things?
1. Extracellular fluid
| 2. Lymphocytes
141
What is not found in lymph?
RBC's and platelets
142
What happens if a lymph vessel breaks?
Fluid leaks out, resulting in edema
143
Lymph vessels have smaller _____ and larger ____.
- Nodules
| - Nodes
144
Lymphatic flow starts at the _____ _____ and connects to the _____ ____ at the heart to allow lymph to mix with _____.
- Lymphatic capillaries
- Subclavian vein
- blood
145
How is lymph returned to the blood stream?
Through the right and left subclavian veins
146
Cells in the lymphatic system are called ______. What are the two kinds? How are they activated?
- lymphocytes
- T and B lymphocytes
- Activated when they encounter "non-self" such as bacteria
147
Where are lymph nodules and nodes placed?
where you're most likely to get an infection
148
Lymphocytes start in the ____ ____ and end up in the _____.
- Lymph nodes
| - Blood
149
What do the lymph nodes and nodules do?
Screen and filter the lymph
150
What is Caseous Lymphadentitis?
A bacterial infection in lymph nodes of goats and sheep, causing them to swell and form an abscess
151
_____ have a bigger lumen, but _____ are thicker-walled.
- Veins
| - arteries
152
Why can blood look brownish after you eat?
Because of chylomicrons
153
True or False: Arteries are more superficial.
Falls, veins are
154
What are the three layers around a blood vessel?
Outer: tunica adventitia
Middle: Tunica media
Inner: Tunica intima
155
The ___ ____ of blood vessels is the outermost layer. The ___ ___ is the innermost layer of endothelial cells, and the ____ ____ is the muscular layer.
- Tunica adventitia
- Tunica intima
- Tunica media
156
What is the tunica adventitia made of? What does this structure allow it to do?
elastic connective tissue that allows the vessels to stretch and relax
157
What happens to the tunica adventitia of the aorta as blood is pumped out of the heart?
As blood is pumped out, the tunica adventitia stretches. It then springs back, closing the valve
158
The tunica media is made of ____ muscle. What two kinds of cells does it contain?
- smooth
| - The inner part has circular smooth muscle cells, and the outer part has longitudinal smooth muscle cells
159
Why is the outer longitudinal cells of the smooth muscle of the tunica media at a 90 degree angle to the circular longitudinal cells?
To hold the inner layer tightly in place
160
A _____ is a localized enlargement of an artery caused by a weakening of the artery wall.
Aneurysm
161
What do elastic tissues do? What do fibrous tissues do?
- Elastic: Rebounds and evens flow
| - Fibrous: Tough and resists stretch
162
True or False: All blood vessels have endothelial cells.
True
163
Which blood vessels have elastic tissue?
Arteries and veins
164
Which blood vessels have smooth muscle?
Ateries, arterioles, and veins
165
Which blood vessels have fibrous tissue?
Arteries, venules, and veins
166
_____ arteries supply blood to the wall of the heart.
Coronary
167
The right coronary artery is ____, while the left has two ______. What are the names of the branches?
- singular
- branches
- Left Anterior Descending artery (LAD) and circumflex artery
168
What is the nickname of the LAD artery?
The widowmaker
169
What causes a normal heart attack?
A plaque grows in the arteries, breaks and forms a blood clot at the site of the break
170
What happens in aterosclerosis?
Plaque build-up in the carotid or coronary arteries causing a narrowing of blood vessels so that less blood can get to the heart
171
What are the stages of development of a artherosclerotic lesion?
First a fatty streak forms, then an established lesion, then a vulnerable plaque
172
When a monocyte diapedesis, it becomes a ______.
Macrophage
173
The main artery that supplies blood to the front wall of the heart, the _____ artery, can get 95% or even 100% blockage, resulting in ______.
- LAD
| - Ischemia
174
What is remote myocardial infarction?
When an area of the heart has ischemia and causes dead tissue
175
Strokes and heart attacks are positively correlated with _____ and ____ levels.
- LDL
| - Cholesterol
176
What do statin drugs such as lipitor do?
increase LDL receptors in the liver to decrease blood LDL
177
What two diseases can statins reduce the risk of?
Cartiovascular disease and myocardial infarction
178
What does a catheter angiogram do?
Uses a dye to find lesions in the blood vessels such as plaques that are concerning
179
An example of a catheter used to examine the heart is a _____ catheter.
Pigtail
180
_______ opens bloocked arteries and restores normal blood flow to the heart through use of a stent.
Angioplasty
181
______ is the term for a heart valve that doesn't open properly.
Stenosis
182
If a stent doesn't work, a ______ ______ _____ ____ can be done to provide an alternate route to connect vessels in the heart.
Coronary Artery Bypass Graft (CABG)
183
True or False: Plaques are not able to be surgically removed.
False, they can be
184
______ and _____ nerves go to the heart to speed it up or slow it down.
- Sympathetic
| - Parasympathetic
185
______ monitor pCO2 and pH, and _______ monitor blood pressure.
- chemoreceptors
| - baroreceptors
186
When running, _____ increases and ______ decreases. ______ detect this, and tell the heart to work faster.
- pCO2
- pH
- Chemoreceptors
187
_____ nerves tell the heart to speed up, while _____ nerves tell the heart to slow down. The vegas nerve is an example of a ______ nerve.
- sympathetic
- parasympathetic
- parasympathetic
188
Skeletal muscles in their normal contractions squeeze against _____ and push blood to the _____.
- veins
| - heart
189
True or False: The amount of blood in the lungs and body is not 50:50
True
190
All parts of the body have ____% of blood, except 60% is in _______ veins.
- 10%
| - Systemic
191
Veins open up into little sacs called _____. An example of one of these is the _____. Where is the majority of blood?
- sinuses
- spleen
- lumens and sinuses of veins
192
Compared to arteries, what four things do veins have?
1. larger lumen
2. increased volume
3. lower blood pressure
4. lower velocity
193
With the _____ nervous system, you can shift where blood is in the body using capillary beds.
-autonomic
194
A ______ is a single layer of flat endothelial cells with a basement membrane.
Capillary
195
Where are pericytes found and what do they do?
- Sit periodically along the capillaries
- May help endothelial cells, involved in angiogenesis, and can bore into an endothelial cell and start capillary formation
196
_________ is the making of new capillary beds.
Angiogenesis
197
In the capillary, _____ gives up its oxygen.
Hemoglobin
198
A _____ is a short vessel that links arterioles and capillaries.
Metarteriole
199
What do metarterioles do?
- They are the main channel through capillaries
| - They serve as a vascular shunt wen the precapillary sphincters are closed
200
The precapillary sphincter allows ____ blood through when relaxed and ____ when contracted.
- More
| - Less
201
When calculating carcass yield, what do you have to adjust for?
Kidney, pelvic, heart fat
202
The aorta arches to the _____ side of the heart.
left
203
Which side of the heart is thicker due to more myocardium?
Left
204
In car accidents, many people are dead at the scene due to what?
aortic transection, in which the heart disattaches from the aorta
205
An ______ _____ ____ occurs when an area of the aorta balloons out. What is it due to?
- Abdominal aortic aneurysm
| - Weakness in the wall of the artery
206
What does the sulcus do?
It is a groove that separates the ventricles of the heart.
207
What is the path of blood through the heart?
Caudal or cranial vena cava --> right atrium --> right atrioventricular valve --> right ventricle --> right semilunar valve --> pulmonary artery --> pulmonary circulation --> pulmonary veins --> left atrium --> left atrioventricular valve --> left ventricle --> left semilunar valve --> aorta
208
What are the four valves in the heart?
1. right atrioventricular valve (tricuspid)
2. Right semilunar valve (tricuspid)
3. Left atrioventricular valve/mitral valve (Bicuspid)
4. Left semilunar valve/aortic valve (tricuspid)
209
Which is the only bicuspid valve in the heart?
the Left AV/mitral valve
210
In systemic circulation, arteries are ____ colored and veins are ____ colored. This is opposite in _____ circulation.
- Red
- Blue
- Pulmonary
211
True or False: All valves in the body are bicuspid except four tricuspids in the heart.
False, the heart has three tricuspids
212
In pulmonary circulation, veins are _____ and arteries are ____ colored.
- Red
| - Arteries
213
How many pulmonary veins come from each lung?
2
214
Does blood flow into the heart faster from the cranial or caudal vena cava?
The cranial due to gravity
215
_____ is heart muscle that composes the walls of the heart. Does the atrium or ventricle have more muscle?
- Myocardium
| - Ventricle
216
What is Paroxymal Supraventricular Tachycardia? What does paroxymal mean?
- episodes of rapid heart rate
| - paroxymal means sudden recurrence
217
The AV valves point toward the ______. Semilunar valves point toward the _____.
- ventricle
| - aorta
218
True or False: AV valves are larger than semilunar valves
True
219
What happens to venule blood flow in late pregnency or in right side heart failure? Where does this cause edema?
- There is backflow of the blood, increasing venule blood pressure
- Causes edema in extemities and legs
220
What happens during left side heart failure?
There is backflow of blood into the lungs causing pulmonary edema
221
Why are there a lot of fixed macrophages and mast cells in the lungs?
They sit there ready to fight blood clots. A lot of clots end up in the lungs because this is the first capillary bed they hit when they form in systemic circulation and break off
222
What is the danger of treating heart worm in dogs?
When you treat it, the heart worms break up into fragments and can end up stuck in the lungs
223
How are pulmonary arterial pressures obtained? What can this be used for?
- A procedure called right heart catherization
- Used to test bulls for which ones have the best circulation to their lungs so that offspring can adjust to high altitudes
224
____ is contraction of the heart, while ____ is relaxation of the heart.
- Systole
| - Diastole
225
What happens to pressure in the aorta during diastole?
It oscillates and does not go completely back to zero
226
What happens to the aorta during systole and diastole?
- Systole: stretching of the aorta wall
| - Diastole: Elastic connective tissue squeezes aorta back into shape
227
Order these from highest blood pressure to lowest: Aorta, veins, capillary bed
1. Aorta
2. Capillary bed
3. Veins
228
A blood pressure reading is ____ over ____ pressure. The pressure is _______ in systole, then stops moving .
- systolic
- diastolic
- oscillating
229
_____ is an instrument for measuring blood pressure.
Sphygmomanometer
230
How many times during the cardiac cycle are AV valves and semilunar valves opened at the same time?
None
231
What are the valves doing when the atria and ventricles are well into the diastole phase?
AV valves are open and semilunar valves are closed
232
What valves are open during ventricular systole?
Semilunar valves
233
During isovolumetric contraction, what is happening?
The ventricles contract with no volume change. All valves are closed.
234
What is the order of ventriclar and atrial systole and diastole?
atria systole --> atria diastole --> ventricular systole --> ventricular diastole
235
True or False: Most of the time, the heart is in systole.
False, diastole
236
70% of ventricular filling happens in _____.
Diastole
237
What are the seven steps of blood filling the heart?
1. Blood flows into the atria. All valves closed.
2. Greater pressure in the atria compared to the ventricle pushes AV valves open, and blood begins flowing into the ventricle
3. Ventricular filling
4. Atria go into systole and squeeze the last bit of blood into the ventriclea
5. Ventricular pressure pushes AV valves closed. The atria go into diastole, and the ventricle enters isometric systole
6. The blood pressure in the ventricle pushes the semilunar valves open and blood flows out
7. Blood ejection continues
238
True or False: The AV valves remain closed until the atria go into systole.
False, they open before, and 70% of bloodflow into ventricles occurs before atrial systole
239
What happens to cardiac cells in culture? What happens if the colonies of cells attach to each other?
- They beat on their own
| - The colonies beat on the same rhythm
240
What is the normal ejection efficiency of the heart?
50-75%
241
Why does the atria contract first, and the ventricle follows?
The sinoatrial node (SA node) is located in the wall of the right atrium. Cells here have the fastest intrinsic beat.
242
The SA node is called the _____ of the heart.
Pacemaker
243
What are three sources of ejection inefficiency of the heart?
1. Backflow in the atria to close AV valves
2. Back flow in the ventricle to close semilunar valves
3. Not all the blood in the ventricle gets squeezed out
244
What is ephaptic conduction in the heart?
Cardiac muscle cells in the atria touch each other, so an action potential over once cell automatically progresses to neighboring cells
245
What is sincytial contraction of the heart?
Myocardial cells of the atria contract as a mass
246
Where are the fastest beating cells in the heart?
At the SA node
247
Do the myocardial cells of the atria and ventricle touch? How does the AP spread?
- They don't touch
| - The AV node bridges the atrium and ventricles to spread the AP
248
Is the left or right ventricle wall bigger? Why?
The left ventricle wall is bigger because it pumps blood to systemic circulation
249
How does an AP spread throughout the heart?
1. Begin at SA node
2. Spread throughout the atria
3. travels through the AV node to the bundle of HIS
4. the bundle of HIS divides into left and right branches so the AP travels through these to purkinje fibers in the ventricles
250
True or False: The bundle of HIS, including the left and right branches, and the purkinje fibers are not neurons.
True
251
What are two causes of paroxismal supraventricular tachycardia?
1. The AP jumps back across the AV node
| 2. The AP spreads throughout the purkinje fibers and then returns to the atrium
252
What does a pacemaker do?
If the heart beats too slow or irregularly, the pacemaker sets the heartbeat instead of the SA node
253
What is hardware disease in cattle and why is it dangerous and how is it treated?
- Cattle swallow metal and it settles in the reticulum
- The heart sits close to the reticulum, so the metal could puncture through the reticulum and hit the heart
- Cows are given a magnet to prevent the metal from puncturing the heart
254
How many cows slaughtered in the US have hardware disease?
50-75%
255
What does atropine do? If the heart was under sympathetic control what would it do?
- It blocks the Acetulcholine neurotransmitters of the parasympathetic nervous system to combat slow heart rate.
- Under sympathetic control of the heart, atropine would have no effect
256
The vagus nerves are _____ nerves.
Parasympathetic
257
What is the order of blood flow through a portal system?
artery --> capillary bed --> portal vessel --> capillary bed --> vein
258
What are three places a portal system is found
1. between the GI tract and liver
2. between the hypothalamus and pituitary gland
3. in the kidney
259
What is the portal system called between the GI tract and liver?
The Hepatic Portal System
260
Describe the hepatic portal system.
Blood goes from the artery to the first capillary bed in the wall of the GI tract, then to the hepaticlportal vein, then to the second capillary bed in the liver, then to the artery
261
What are four advantages of the hepatic portal vein?
1. cleans/screens blood from the intestine
2. detoxifies products absorbed in the GI tract
3. Stores nutrients
4. Concentrates products between the small intestine and liver
262
What is the enterohepatic loop?
This recycles bile. Bile is released from the liver to the small intestine to help absorb food. The bile can be readsorped and go back to the liver.
263
There are over _____ muscles in the body, making up ____ to ___% of body composition.
- 400
- 40
- 50
264
____ muscle is the fastest and shortest. ____ muscle is striated. ____ muscle is the slowest and longest.
- skeletal
- cardiac
- smooth
265
What three phases does muscle go through when it contracts?
1. latent period
2. period of contraction
3. period of relaxation
266
____ muscle is the fastest in all three phases of contraction. ____ muscle is the slowest in all three phases, but hardly ever ____.
- Skeletal
- Smooth
- Fatigues
267
Cardiac muscle is sometimes called ______ _____ muscle and is controlled by the _____ nervous system.
- involuntary
- striated
- autonomic
268
Which muscle types are striated? Which are involuntary?
- Striated: Cardiac and skeletal
| - Involuntary: Cardiac and smooth
269
What are three characteristics of smooth muscle?
1. one nucleus
2. plasticity
3. touch neighboring cells by gap junctions so AP's can spread
270
What do progesterone and estrogen do to gap junctions?
- Progesterone is a pro-gestational hormone that inhibits gap junctions
- Estrogen increases gap junctions
271
Smooth muscle is controlled by the ____ nervous system. 99% has ____ innervation. Why?
- autonomic
- visceral
- Since the cells tounch through gap junctions, you only need a single nerve to spread the AP
272
Why does 1% of smooth muscle need multi-unit innervation?
The cells that need this don't touch and cannot spread the AP, so many nerves are needed.
273
Where is the multi-unit innervation found in the body?
1. tunica media of large arteries
2. larger passage ways in the lung
3. ciliary muscle of the iris and lens
4. hair follicles
274
What is dilated cardiomyopathy?
The heart becomes enlarged and cannot pump blood efficiently
275
What happens immediately after atrial diastole?
ventricular systole
276
Smooth muscle surrounds hollow structures in the repro and digestive tracts whose contractions lead to ______. _____ ___ are responsible for mixing of food.
- Peristalsis
| - Segmented contractions
277
What are three characteristics of cardiac muscle?
1. Striated
2. cells touch through borders called intercalated discs
3. one nucleus
278
_____ ____ in the intercalated discs spread the ephaptic conduction in the heart.
Gap junctions
279
non-skeletal voluntary striated muscles are still called _____ muscle. What is another name for them? Where is this muscle type found?
- skeletal
- non-skeletal skeletal muscle
- Found in outer eye muscles, cutaneous muscles, esophagus, urethra, and anal sphincter
280
Rectus muscle in the eye attaches to the ____ ____. What kind of muscle is this?
- optic nerve
| - Non-skeletal skeletal muscle
281
The outer cell membrane of a muscle cell is called the ______. The cytoplasm is called the ______. The endoplasmic reticulum is called the _____.
- sarcolemma
- sarcoplasm
- sarcoplasmic reticulum
282
What does sarco mean?
Flesh
283
What three things compose the sarcolemma?
1. Sarcolemma Proper
2. Reticular Fibers
3. Motor End Plates
284
The ____ _____ ___ are the area of receptors for ACh neurotransmitters from the motor nerve.
Motor End Plates
285
How do motor end plates form? What do they participate in?
- The sarcolemma hardens and specializes to form motor end plates
- Participate in the neuroeffector junction between neurons and muscle
286
The motor end plates have receptors for ________. What does acetylcholinesterase do?
- Acetylcholine
| - An enzyme in the motor end plates that break up acetylcholine
287
What happens when ACh binds to receptors in the motor end plate?
The AP moves over the sarcolemma
288
Muscle and nerve cells are ____ cells.
Bioexcitable
289
What is the latent period of muscle contraction?
The period of time from ACh first binds to receptors to when contraction begins
290
True or False: Smooth muscle has the longest latent period and skeletal muscle has the fastest.
True
291
What is a motor unit?
A single motorneuron and the muscle fibers it innervates
292
Myofibers don't touch each other, so to spread an AP they need what?
a motor end plate
293
The sarcoplasm is filled with tightly packs rod-shaped ______.
Myofibrils
294
Muscle fibers have a _____ nucleus location.
Peripheral
295
What three things are names for one muscle cell?
1. One muscle fiber
2. A myofiber
3. A myocyte
296
True or False: Only some muscle fibers are innervated.
False, all are innvervated
297
Eye muscles have a ___:___ muscle to nerve ratio. Hamstrings have a ____:____ muscle to nerve ratio.
- 1:1
| - 300:1
298
A myofiber is filled with ____, which is a series of ____ strung end to end.
- Myofibrils
| - sarcomeres
299
How many nuclei do myofibers have?
They are multinucleated
300
How do myofibers develope?
They are first myoblasts that develop into myotubes. The myotube membranes fuse together to form a single multinucleated myofiber.
301
Reticular fibers connect the ____ to _____. What is in these fibers?
- sarcolemma
- endomysium
- satellite cells
302
What is the biggest muscle in a whale? What is unique about this muscle?
- longissimus dorsi (80-90 ft long)
| - Some myofibers are 80-90 ft long in theis muscle
303
What are the three compartmentalization of muscle fibers?
1. Epimysium is the outermost connective tissue around muscle
2. Perimysium is connective tissue around the bundles
3. Endomysium is connective tissue around the muscle fibers
304
What are the three types of arrangements of muscle and give examples.
1. Parallel (abdomen; contract greatest distance and weakest strength)
2. Fusiform (bicep)
3. Penniform (sholder blade; contract shortest distance and greatest strength)
305
What are the three subsets of the penniform arrangment of muscle?
1. unipennate
2. bipennate
3. multipennate
306
What are the three types of attachements of muscle?
1. Fleshy
2. Tendons
3. Origin vs. Insertion
307
What are the six functional groups of muscle?
1. flexor
2. extensor
3. adductor
4. abductor
5. spincter/circuar
6. cutaneous
308
Fleshy attachment in muscle is made of _____.
Microtendons
309
What are the four types of contraction in muscle?
1. Isometric
2. Isotonic
3. Concentric
4. Ecentric
310
______ muscle contraction means same meter. The muscle contracts but does not shorten. What is an example?
- Isometric
| - Postural muscles
311
_____ muscle contraction means same tone. The muscle contracts and shortens.
Isotonic
312
What are four factors influencing muscle contraction?
1. Treppe
2. Summation
3. Tetany
4. Fatigue
313
Endomysium in muscle fibers is equivalent to the _____ _____.
Basement membrane
314
What are satellite cells and what do they do?
- They are an adult stem cell that can become myocytes, osteocytes, or adipocytes
- As myocytes, they help repair injured muscle
315
The epimysium, perimysium, and endomysium taper to form _____. This has all three connective tissues without ____ cells/
- tendons
| - muscle
316
The _____ arrangement of muscle is spindle shaped.
Fusiform
317
______ is the attachment of muscle to a bone that does not move when the muscle shortens. It is normally ______.
- Origin
| - Proximal
318
_____ is the attachment of muscle to a moveable bone. It is normally _____.
- Insertion
| - Distal
319
Muscles work in antagonistic pairs. Give an example of this.
When the bicep relaxes, the tricep is contracted
320
Muscles work in pairs. The ____ ____ does the major work. _____ are additional muscles that help. The _____ is the relaxed muscle that works in the opposite direction.
- Prime mover
- Synergists
- Antagonist
321
Flexor and extensor muscles decrease or increase the _____.
Angle
322
Adductor muscles move muscle _____. Abductor muscles move muscle ______.
- Medially
| - laterally
323
_____ are non-skeletal skeletal muscles that close a lumen.
Sphincters
324
______ muscles attach to skin.
Cutaneous
325
________ muscle contraction shortens the muscles during force production. ______ muscle contraction produces force but the length of the fibers increase.
- Concentric
| - Eccentric
326
________ is the percent of total motor units working and the overall strength of gross muscle.
Summation
327
What are other names for treppe? What is treppe? What does it have to do with?
- The Staircase Effect or the Warming up Effect
- Cold muscles can not contract with the same force as warm muscles
- Has to to with increasing efficiency of moving calcium within the fiber
328
Summation ______ as the number of motor units turned on increases.
Increases
329
When a second stimulus is applied to muscle before it can relax, ______ occurs, and the force of contraction is greater.
Summation
330
What are the two meanings of tetany?
1. The symptom of tetanus in which the nerves and muscles are hyperexcitable and cramp and spasm
2. A state of sustained muscular contraction without periods of relaxation
331
In _______, calcium stays in the sarcoplasm between action potentials and there is continual cross-briding.
Tetany
332
True or False: Tetany in muscle contractions is abnormal.
False, this is normal muscle contraction
333
A Z line to Z line is a ______. In the center of a this is a _____ filament. Sticking out from the Z line is a ____ filament.
- sarcomere
- thick
- thin
334
Thin filaments are made of ______. Thick filaments are made of _______.
- actin
| - myosin
335
Do thick and thin filaments change their length during contraction?
No, they slide past each other during concentric contraction
336
_____ thin filaments surround a _____ filament.
- 6
| - Thick
337
There is a ____:____ ratio of thin filaments to thick filaments.
-2:1
338
How many myosin molecules assemble to form a thick filament?
296
339
True or False: Thick filaments are only composed of myosin.
True
340
When myosin heads of thick filaments tought the thin filaments, what is occuring?
Cross-bridging
341
Another name for myosing head is _____.
HMM
342
What is the composition of actin in the thin filaments?
Alpha helix
343
Each actin sphere has a ______ ______ _____ where the myosin head binds. When _____ is present, these are exposed.
- myosin binding site
| - calcium
344
What are the three parts of thin filaments?
Actin, troponin, and tropomyosin
345
_____ is the most common protein in cells in the body.
Actin
346
______ covers the myosin binding sites when calcium is not present and muscles relax.
-Tropomyosin
347
Calcium binds to _____ in the thin filaments. The structure of this is a ______.
- Troponin
| - Trimer
348
When calcium binds to troponin, it pulls on _______ to open the myosin binding sites.
Tropomyosin
349
The myosin heads are either at a _____ or _____ degree angle. The _____ controlls this.
- 90
- 45
- Hinge
