Exam 3 Flashcards
(373 cards)
1
Q
What three things is ATP used for?
A
- Each ratcheting action of each HMM head
- Repolarization of the sarcolemma and T tubules
- Energy for the calcium pump to pull that calcium back into the lateral sac
2
Q
Only about 1/4 of energy produced is used by muscle for contraction. What is the rest used for?
A
Most is used to produce heat
3
Q
What is the sequence of energy sources for working muscle?
A
- ATP
- Creatine phosphate
- Respriation (using glucose as fuel)
- Lactic Acid
4
Q
What two things are indicators of how much work heart muscles are doing?
A
- Creatine Kinase
2. Creatinine
5
Q
______ ____ is an enzyme inside heart muscle that converts _____ ______ to ATP, the most important storage form of ATP.
A
- Creatine Kinase
- Creatine phosphate
6
Q
The blood enzyme _____ ____ in the blood is an indicator of heart muscle damage/heart attack. After a heart attack, levels _____.
A
- Creatine kinase
- Increase
7
Q
_____ is stored glucose.
A
Glycogen
8
Q
How does rigor mortis occur?
A
When muscle tissue dies, all calcium is released from the lateral sacs. This causes continuous muscles contraction until all ATP is used. When all ATP is used, the myosin heads cannot stop cross-bridging, causing rigor mortis.
9
Q
What is Rhabdomyolysis? What damage does it cause? Why did football players get it?
A
The football players worked their muscles too hard, leading to rhabdomyolysis, which is excessive damage to skeletal muscle. Creatine kinase levels were really high and started to crystalize. In addition, high levels of myoglobin is released to the blood, which damages the kidneys.
10
Q
In damaged muscles the _____ are not oriented with each other and the _____ do not line up. The _____ ____ is torn up.
A
- Myofibrils
- Sarcomeres
- Sarcoplasmic reticulum
11
Q
True or False: Damaged muscle stops working while myosin is being replaced.
A
False, it will keep working
12
Q
How is muscle myosin repaired?
A
There are three genes for myosin that are expressed at different stages in development. Damaged muscle reverts back to embryonic or pre-adult myosin, and eventually goes back to adult.
13
Q
What are the three types of myosin?
A
Embryonic, pre-adult, and adult
14
Q
What are four characteristics of smooth muscle?
A
- Thin filaments are anchored to dense bodies on the cell membrane
- The loose network of sarcoplasmic reticulum uses extracellular calcium instead of stored calcium, so it contracts slower
- Actin and myosin filaments overlap, but there is no Z line
- No T-tubules
15
Q
What are five characteristics of cardiac muscle?
A
- Lots of cytoplasm
- 1/4 to 1/3 is mitochondria due to the huge demand for ATP
- Intercalated discs allow neighboring cells to touch each other
- Myofibrils are less dense
- Well developed T tubule system, but sarcoplasmic reticulum is not as large or as extensive
16
Q
What does a cardiolite machine do?
A
The patient is injected with radioactivity that binds and lights up mitochondria. The patient walks and runs on a treadmill, and this imaging device scans the heart mitochondria. It is a measure of blood flow to the heart and can infer ischemic areas.
17
Q
______ is high blood pressure. As blood pressure increases, ____ ____ increases. Why?
A
- Hypertension
- Death Rate
- Myocardium has to work much harder
18
Q
Why does a high blood pressure harm myocardium?
A
It causes myocardium to work harder, so the muscle increases in size. The valves also increase in size, so the don’t close completely, resulting in blood clots.
19
Q
What is the order of development for skeleton, adipose, muscle, and CNS?
A
- CNS
- Skeleton
- Muscle
- Adipose
20
Q
The extracellular matrix sticking out of cells in bone is the ___ or ____ part of bone. What does this part do for bone?
A
- organic
- osteoid
- Gives bone flexibility or torque without breaking
21
Q
_____ and ____ precipitate on the extracellular matrix of bone cells and make up the mineral part of bone.
A
- Calcium
- Phosphorous
22
Q
The ____ part of bone makes up about 1/3 of weight, and the ___ part of bone makes up about 2/3 of the weight.
A
- osteoid
- mineral
23
Q
What is the order of vertebrae from head to tail?
A
- cervical
- thoracic
- lumbar
- sacral
- coccygeal/axillary
24
Q
What is the order of front leg bones and back leg bones?
A
Front: scapula, humerus, radius/ulna, carpal bones
Back: pelvis, femur, petilla, tibia/fibula
25
Hors and pigs have the _____ bone, but it is only a remnant in cows.
Fibula
26
What happens to the distal bones as animals stand more upright on their toes?
They become longer
27
What are the ten major differences between mammals and avian?
1. Prominent orbit
2. Beak (different jaw structure)
3. Uribogeal Gland and a lot of cervical vertebrae to reach it
4. Notarium
5. Pectorial girdle
6. Keeled sternum
7. Criss-cross ribs
8. Fused tail vertebrae for stability
9. Open pelvis for oviposition
10. Fused phalanx bones
28
What does the pectorial girdle in avian species contain?
1. furcula/wish bone
2. coracoid
3. scapula
29
What is the notarium in avian species? What is its purpose?
- the fusion of two or more of the thoracic vertebrae
| - It braces the chest against forces generated by the wings
30
The ____ in birds is a fused collarbone.
Furcula
31
The ______ ____ , or preen gland, is above the tail head in birds and secretes oil.
uropygial gland
32
What does the keeled sternum do for birds? What does it help the grey-headed albatross do?
- It aids in muscle attachment to the sternum
| - It helps them fly long distances
33
Mammals use the hormone ____ to relax the pelivs. How can birds relax their pelvis?
- Relaxant
| - Birds can swing their pelvis open on the ventral side to allow an egg to pass through (oviposition)
34
What feature do marine birds have that gives them buoyancy?
They have holes in their bones
35
What are the five functions of bone?
1. Support
2. Protection
3. Movement
4. Mineral Reservoir
5. Hemopoiesis in bone marrow
36
_____ is the making of blood cells.
Hemopoiesis
37
What is the pathway of calcium absorbed from food?
Food--> blood --> bone
38
How do females put calcium in milk?
They draw calcium from bone
39
What are the three places calcium in the bone can go? Where can it come from?
- Go to gut, mammary, or fetus
| - Come from gut (absorbed from food)
40
Are young or old animals more efficient at making calcium and phosphorous?
Young
41
True or False: Older animals can have 100% turnover of calcium and phosphorous in a year.
False, young animals can
42
_____ serves as a reservoir of calcium and phosphorous.
Bone
43
Where are calcium and phosphorous stored?
bones and teeth
44
What are two methods to describe bones?
1. Morphology/shape
| 2. Compact or Cancellous
45
The cortical part of bone has _____ bone, and the medullary portion has ____ bone.
- Compact
| - Spongy (cancellous)
46
True or False: The medullary and cortical portions of bone have low blood supply
False
47
The _____ is bands or columns of connective tissue forming cancellous bone.
Trabecula
48
What happens to the trabecula as you age?
It begins to decrease, leaving a medullary cavity with bone marrow making blood cells.
49
What is intraosseous infusion?
Injecting a needle dirctly into bone marrow to provide a route for administering fluid, blood, or medication.
50
Within compact bone is the ____ system, also called the _____ system.
- Haversion
| - Osteon
51
Haversion canals are also called what?
Central canals
52
What makes up an osteon?
The haversion canals puls concentric rings
53
Osteons are found in ______ bone.
Compact
54
At the center of an osteon is a ______ ____ containing _____ ______. Surrounding this is _____ which form rings.
- Haversion canal
- Blood vessels
- Lamina
55
In the lamina are small spaces called ______ meaning lake.
Lacunae
56
Cells in the lacunae are ________. These cells are in communication with the haversion canals through ______, which are capillaries to feed cells in the lacunae.
- Osteocytes
| - Canaliculi
57
_______ link the lacunae to each other and the haversion canal.
Canaliculi
58
The ______ is the connective tissue on the outside of compact bone. _______ is connective tissue on the inside of bone.
- Periosteum
| - Endosteum
59
Through very small ______, capillaries and interstitial fluid extend to each lacunae.
Canaliculi
60
What are the three kinds of bone cells?
1. Osteroblasts
2. Osteocytes
3. Osteoclasts
61
True or False: Periosteum is not found on the ends of bones where they articulate.
True
62
______ sit under the endosteum and release enzymes to demineralize bone. They trim away the inner edge of ______ bone.
- Osteoclasts
| - Compact
63
How do long bones grow?
1. Length wise
| 2. Diameter
64
______ make new bone.
-Osteoblasts
65
_______ sit just under the periosteum and endosteum. What do those under the endosteum do?
- Osteoblasts
| - They stay dormant until a fracture
66
As bone grows, it captures _____ and they become _____ in the lacunae.
- osteoblasts
| - osterocytes
67
______ are multinuclear cells that are chewers formed from fused _____.
- Osteoclasts
| - Macrophages
68
Most tissues in the body contain ____ _____ of macrophages, called ____ macrophages, that protect the tissue from infection. In the bones, these are _____.
- Resident populations
- Fixed macrophages
- Osteoclasts
69
In each lacunae, there is an _____.
Osteocyte
70
Surrounding each osteocyte is _____ _____. Branching off of this is the protein _______, with _____ and ____ extending from those branches.
- Extracellular fluid
- Gycosaminoglycan
- Phosphorous and calcium
71
The elaborate extracellular matrix of bone is _________.
Glycosaminoglycan
72
Give an example of a long bone and its function.
- Femur, phalynx
| - Locomotion
73
Give an example of short bones and their function.
- Carpals or tarsals
| - Cushion complex joints
74
Give an example of flat bones and their function.
- Parietal, ribs, scapula, pelvis
| - Protection and hematopoiesis
75
Give an example of sesamoid bones and their function.
- Patella
| - Alter the direction of tendons/ligaments
76
Give an example of pneumatic bones and their function
- Frontal
| - Keeps the skull lightweight/ resonance of sound
77
Give an example of irregular bones and their function
- Vertebrae
| - Attachment and protection of spinal chord
78
The _____ of bone is the round end, the _____ is the flat end of the midsection or shaft, and the midsection or shaft is the ______.
- Epiphysis
- Metaphysis
- Diaphysis
79
The hard part of bone between the metaphysis and the epiphysis is the ____ _____.
Growth Plate
80
In development, long bones form ______ that hardens to form bone to form the _____ _____, or growth plate. Cells present here are _______, which produce and maintain the cartilaginous matrix.
- cartilage
- Epiphyseal plate
- Chonrdocytes
81
What does the cartilaginous matrix of bone consist of?
Collagen and proteoglycans
82
______ hardens to form bone.
Cartilage
83
______ bones are a two-dimensional sheet-like bone.
Flat
84
______ bones are cuboidal shaped and may have several medullary cavities.
Short
85
_____ is the cancellous part of flat bones. It has pores where ______ bone marrow is found that is actively involved in ______.
- Diploe
- Red
- Hemopoiesis
86
Sinuses in nasal cavities extend into _____ bones. What is unique about these bones?
- Pneumatic
| - They have air spaces
87
What does PTH stand for and what does it do to bone>
- Parathyroid hormone
| - Demineralizes bone using osteocytes and osteoclasts to increase calcium in the blood, so it breaks down bone
88
What does calcitonin do to bone
It uses osteoblasts and osteocytes to decrease calcium in blood and increase bone formation
89
What disease is a result of excess growth hormone?
Gigantism, or acromegaly
90
_____ stimulates osteoclasts, and ____ stimulates osteoblasts.
- PTH
| - Calcitonin
91
What are the four major hormones that stimulate osteoblasts causing bone formation?
1. Growth Hormone
2. Calcitonin
3. Androgens
4. Insulin
92
What are the four major hormones that stimulate osteoclasts causing bone absorption?
1. PTH
2. Cortisol
3. T3/T4
4. Prostaglandins
93
_____ acts to maintain the appropriate ratio between bone-forming osteoblasts and bone-reabsorbing osteoclasts in part through the induction of ______ apoptosis.
- Estrogen
| - Osteoclast
94
When estrogen decreases, what happens to osteoclasts?
They increase and break down bone
95
Raloxifene and Taoxifen are ______ ____ - _____ ____, or SERMS. What do they act on?
- Selective estrogen-Receptor Modulators
| - Estrogen receptors
96
What are the effects of agonistic and antagonistic SERMs?
- Agonist: promote the action of estrogen. During menopause, this helps alleviate the decrease in estrogen production
- Antagonist: Bind estrogen receptors and inhibit the action of estrogen. This is useful in urterine and breast cancer patients.
97
What is the problem with agonistic or antagoistic SERMs?
All cells respond to estrogen so you can't target certain cells
98
During menopause, there is a decrease in _____, causing a loss of _____.
- Estrogen
| - Bone
99
What is osteoporosis?
A decrease in bone mass that can lead to osteoporotic fractures
100
The average US citizen gets _____ the calcium needed.
Half
101
What is osteomalacia?
A decrease in bone mass, called Rickets in children, and is often related to vitamin D deficiency
102
What are the three types of ossification or mineralization and describe them.
1. Endochondral (intercartilagenous ossification such as the epiphyseal plates replacing cartilage and hardening bone)
2. Intramembranous (Active osteoblasts under the periosteum; this is how flat bones grow)
3. Heteroplasic (Formation of bone-like material outside the skeleton)
103
Give three examples of heteroplasic ossification.
Gall/Kidney stones, os penis, os cordis
104
A bone like material in the heart of old cows is called ____ _____ and is an example of _____ ossification.
- Os cordis
| - Heteroplasic
105
What are uroliths?
Bladder stones or calculi that block the flow of urine through the urethra
106
A bone fracture under the skin is a ____ fracture, and one that breaks through the skin is a _____ fracture.
- Simple
| - Open
107
A ____ ____ fracture is one that is a fracture on one side of the bone and the bone is broken on the other side.
Green stick
108
A _____ fracture is one that is all the way across the bone.
Complete
109
A _____ fracture occurs in a break at the growth plate.
Epiphyseal
110
A ____ fracture occurs when the bone is broken into many pieces.
Comminuted
111
When a bone fracture occurs, what happens at the site?
Bleeding, clot, callus (calcified clot), Osteocytes trim down the callus
112
What two things need to happen for repair of a fracture?
1. Apposition
| 2. Immobilization
113
Why did 21 horses die over a weekend before a championship match?
They developed selinosis, or selidium toxicity
114
____ is a branch of pharmacology that studies drug action.
Pharmacokinetics
115
______ is the effect of a drug on the body and ____ is the effect of the body on a drug.
- Pharmacodynamics
| - Pharmacokinetics
116
What is pharmacokinetics?
The quantitative description of drug disposition, which is the movement of a drug into, through, and out of the body
117
A ____ is a chemical not naturally found in the body that can change something in the body.
Drug
118
A plant extract was used to fight congestive heart failure, but once the active ingredient _____, was identified and became controlled, it became illegal to use it.
-Digitalis
119
When choosing a drug, you must consider your ____ _____. For example, for a cow experiencing calving difficulty, you need a drug that takes effect quickly
Therapeutic objective.
120
When you give a drug, what four steps does it go through that you must consider?
1. Absorption (entering the blood)
2. Distribution ( Delivery throughout the body)
3. Metabolism (Biotransformation)
4. Elimination (Excretion)
121
What are the two routes of administration of a drug?
1. Enteral
| 2. Parenteral
122
_____ administration of a drug utilizes the GI tract, such as oral, sublingual, or rectal. ________ administration does not utilize the GI tract, such as intravenous, intramuscular, or vaginal.
- Enteral
| - Parenteral
123
____ is a ____ route of drug administration that is injection just under the skin.
- Intradermal (ID)
| - Prenteral
124
____ is a ____ route of drug administration that is into subcutaneous tissue.
- Subcutaneous (SC)
| - Parenteral
125
____ is a ____ route of drug administration that is into the muscle.
- Intramuscular (IM)
| - Parenteral
126
____ is a ____ route of drug administration that is into a vein.
- Intravenous (IV)
| - Parenteral
127
____ is a ____ route of drug administration that is into the peritoneum.
- Intraperitoneal (IP)
| - Parenteral
128
____ is a ____ route of drug administration that is into the cerebrospinal fluid
- Intrathecal
| - Parenteral
129
____ is a ____ route of drug administration that is into epidural space.
- Epidural
| - Parenteral
130
Describe the two types of intravenous injections.
- IV Bolus: Rapid injection, large does all at once
| - IV drip: Slow and steady infusion
131
What is an intrathecal catheter used for and where is it placed?
- Used for chronic pain
| - Placed in the CSF in the intrathecal space of the spinal chord
132
What is a pyrofast injector?
A jet injector of a drug developed to apply pressure evenly for an even blast of chemicals. However, the FDA has no data to support the safety or effectiveness of flue vaccines using these injectors.
133
For intravenous, intramuscular, subcutaneous, and oral dosage forms, what are the relative rates of drug absorption?
IV > IM > SC > Oral
134
For intravenous, intramuscular, subcutaneous, and oral dosage forms, what are the relative rates of drug duration?
Oral > SC > IM > IV
135
The _____ _____ ______ is the concentration limit of a drug that, above this concentration, the drug becomes toxic.
Maximum tolerated concentration
136
THe ______ ______ _____ is a minimum amount of a drug that must be given for it to be effective.
Minimum Effective Concentration
137
What is the Tmax in a drug concentration curve?
The time it takes for a drug to reach maximum peak concentration
138
What is the Cmax of a drug?
The peak concentration that it reaches in the blood
139
The _____ _____ ____ is how long the drug is above the minimum effective concentration.
Duration of action
140
What is the AUC on a drug concentration curve?
The area under the curve
141
What is the problem with people giving a dog Ivermectim to treat heart worm extra-label?
If the dog has any collie breeding, it will kill the dog
142
The ____ of a drug tells you how to use it and what it is legally approved for
Label
143
____ ____ drug use is using a drug not according to the label. What is the biggest worry of this?
- Extra label
| - developing resistance to the drug
144
Ideally for a drug, you want a _____ range before and after the drug reaches and falls below the MEC. With extra label drug use, which becomes longer? What is the problem with this?
- Short
| - The drug stays in the body longer after it falls below the MEC, allowing resistance to happen
145
As a drug moves through the lumen of capillaries, it has to go through the ____ _____ and _____ ___.
- Endothelial cells
| - Basal lamina
146
____ capillaries have a complete basal lamina and continuous endothelial lining.
-Continuous
147
_____ capillaries have a complete basal lamina and fenestrated endothelial lining.
-Fenestrated
148
_____ capillaries have an incomplete basal lamina and fenestrated endothelial lining.
-Discontinuous
149
What is the order of ease through which a drug passes through the three kinds of capillaries from easiest to hardest?
Discontinuous, fenestrated, continuous
150
_____ capillary barriers are the most common and are found in the skin, lungs, muscle, CNS, and especially in the tight junctions of the blood brain barrier.
Continuous
151
Why does the blood brain barrier make it hard for drugs to be distributed to the brain?
There are tight junctions between the endothelial cells, and there is an extra cover on the capillaries in the brain made of pericytes and astrocytes
152
_____ and _____ make up the blood brain barrier.
- Pericytes
| - Astrocytes
153
What does it mean if the protein S100B is found in the blood?
The blood brain barrier has been breached and the patient may have a concussion
154
A ____ capillary is found in secretory glands such as a corpus luteum and in the glomerulus in the kidney.
-Fenestrated
155
Why are discontinuous capillaries found in red bone marrow?
They allow red blood cells that are produced there to get into the blood
156
What is unique about discontinuous capillaries?
When the gaps in the basal lamina and endothelial cells line up, there is no barrier
157
Hydrophilic/Lypophobic drugs are _____ solube. How are they injected into and excreted from the body?
- Water
- Injected in a water carrier
- Since excretions are water based, they leave easily
158
Hydrophobic/Lipophilic drugs are _____ soluble. How are they injected into and excreted from the body?
- Fat
- Injected in an oil carrier
- It takes longer for them to leave the body because they must pas through the liver to become water soluble via conjugation
159
Drugs can be altered in structure, or biotransformed, in the _____. What does it do to the inactive and active forms of estradiol?
- Liver
- The liver alters the active form to an inactive form
- The liver cleaves the benzoate of the inactive form to make it the active form and makes its effects last longer in the body
160
What is a good indicator of hydration? What effect does vitamin B6 have on this?
- Urine color
| - B6, or riboflavin, is very water soluble and makes urine a bright yellow color
161
For things to be eliminated, they must be _____ ____.
Water soluble
162
A drug's ____ _____ is the time it takes for its concentration to be cut in half.
Half life
163
In general, a drug is eliminated from the body after ____ half-lives.
10
164
What does the FDA do to make sure a drug is out of the system?
They inspect the injection site for residues
165
How doe we know how much of a drug to give an animal?
Through animal and people trials to establish dose-response curves
166
A dose-response curve is always on a ____ scale. In the _____ portion a small change in dose leads to a large change in response. Before this portion is the ____, and after is the ____ _____.
- Log
- Linear
- Threshold
- Efficacy Plateu
167
A dose-response curve is a _____ way of measuring an animals response to a drug.
Quantitative
168
A frequency dose response curve is a _____ curve which uses a _____ distribution.
- Qualitative
| - Binomial
169
True or False: A frequency dose response curve summarizes parts of the whole population.
False, it summarizes the whole population with did they respond or not
170
How ____ a drug is means how much of it you need to elicit an effect.
Potent
171
True or False: The physiology of the animal, such as pregnancy, will shift the dose-response curve.
True
172
What is an ED50 value on an effective dose curve?
The dosage that will cure half the population
173
As the "ED" value goes from ED1 to ED50, what happens to the dosage?
It increases
174
You must administer drug A at 50mL, and drug B at 60 mL. However, at these dosages, they give an equal response, and the ED50s are the same. These two drugs are ___, meaning what?
- Equipotent
| - The dosage of two drugs that will give an equal response
175
What is TD50?
A dosage that is toxic enough to kill half the population
176
What is LD50?
The dosage that will kill have the population
177
The safeness of a drug can be determined by what?
The distances between the ED and TD curves. Farther apart is better.
178
What is the therapeutic index?
The TD50 divided by the ED50. The bigger the number, the safer the drug.
179
What are the three functions of the kidneys?
1. Excretory
2. Regulatory
3. Endocrine
180
Kidneys make up ___% of body weight and have the _____ ____ on top.
- 1
| - adrenal glands
181
The _____ ______ is The medial, indented area of the kidney that forms the entry and/or exit point for blood vessels, nerves, and lymph vessels.
Renal Hilus
182
True or False: There is a low blood supply to the kidneys.
False, there is a high blood supply and high pressure
183
The _____ of the kidney is the tough outer covering. The _____ is the tubular part of the nephron. The _____ is the loop of the nephron. The ____ is the innermost part that fills with urine.
- Capsule
- Cortex
- Medulla
- Pelvis
184
The kidney is made of many _____.
Lobes
185
The ____ is the structural unit of the kidney. How many are there in the kidney? What is their function?
- Nephron
- Over a million
- Remove waste from the blood
186
_____ means the same as urination.
Micturition
187
The tubular part of a nephron sits in the ____ of the kidney, but the loop part sits in the _____.
- Cortex
| - Medulla
188
What is inside Bowman's capsule?
The glomerulus, a capillary bed
189
What is the order of flow of fluids through a nephron?
Bowman's capsule, proximal convoluted tubule, loop of henle, distal convoluted tubule, collecting duct
190
The functional unit of the kidney is composed of a ____ and ____ ____,
- nephron
| - collecting duct
191
What is the portal system of the kidney like?
- The first capillary bed is in Bownman's capsule
| - The second capillary bed is called the peritubular capillary bed and is all over the tubular portion of the nephron
192
True or False: To lower blood volume, you should excrete more urine.
True
193
The ____ is a tight, tuft-like capillary in the kidney.
Glomerulus
194
What is the function of Bowman's capsule?
Filtration
195
The glomerulus is lined with _____ and is facing ______. The visceral side of Bowman's capsule is lined with ____ cells and is facing ______. In between these two layers is what?
- Endothelium
- Blood
- Epithelial
- Urine
- A basal lamina
196
As filtrate goes from Bowman's capsule to the proximal convoluted tubule, ____ occurs first. Then ____ occurs as some things such as toxins go from the blood to the urine.
- Reabsorption
| - Secretion
197
The endothelial lining of the glomerulus is ______. _____ arecells that wrap around the outside of the glomerulus using finger-like projections called ______ and make up the visceral side of Bowman's capsule.
- Fenestrated
- podocytes
- Pedicels
198
What happens to the two basal lamina that the endothelial cells of the glomerulus and the epithelial cells of Bowman's capsule sit on?
They are so tight that it is fused into one basal lamina
199
What makes up the filtration barrier from the glomerular capillary to Bowman's capsule?
1. fenestrated capillary
2. Basement membrane
3. Filtration Slits
200
To be filtered out of the glomerulus to Bowman's capsule, how many basement membranes does filtrate have to cross?
1
201
In between the pedicels of podocytes are ___ ____.
Filtration slits
202
True or False: Cells, platelets, and large plasma proteins can pass through the filtration barrier of Bowman's capsule.
False, they are too big
203
What can pass through the filtration barrier of Bowman's capsule?
Small molecules such as salts, glucose, amino acids, vitamins, and nitrogenous wastes
204
Are there any cells between blood and urine in Bowman's Capsule?
No, just a basal lamina
205
True or False: Plasma proteins stay in the blood and are not filtered out of Bowman's capsule.
True
206
What is kidney failure usually caused by?
The glomerulus and podocytes of Bowman's capsule have a very delicate anatomy. Destruction of the epithelium by a sever allergic reaction or excessive antibiotics can cause the filtration slits and podocytes to be damaged, causing kidney failure
207
The second capillary bed of the portal system in the kidney is the ____ capillary bed, which sits very close to the ____ ____ _____.
- Peritubular
| - Proximal Convoluted Tubule
208
What is the lumenal membrane of the proximal convoluted tubule like?
It has different "pumps" for the reabsorption or secretion
209
Lining the proximal convoluted tubule are ____ cells which are ____ because they do different things.
- Epithelial
| - Polarized
210
What are the two functions of the proximal convoluted tubule?
1. Active transport of toxins directly secreted into urine from the peritubular capillary bed to the proximal tubule
2. Reabsorption of 60-80% of water and 100% of sugar, amino acids, chlorine, and bicarbonate
211
What are two characteristics of renal blood flow?
1. High blood flow
| 2. Two capillary beds
212
There is ____ hydrostatic pressure in the glomerular capillary bed and _____ hydrostatic pressure in the peritubular capillary bed.
- high
| - low
213
The descending part of the loop of henle is _____ for ____ movement. The ascending portion is _____, then ______ for active transport of ______.
- Thin
- Passive
- Thin
- Thick
- Sodium
214
The _____ ______ _____ is a continuation of the thick part of the ascending loop of henle.
Distal Convoluted Tubule
215
What is the function of the DCT?
Removal of sodium ions from urine
216
The DCT is where the hormone ____ works so that ____ and ____ ____ are reabsorbed.
- Aldosterone
- Water
- Sodium ions
217
Why is the medulla of the kidney salty?
That is where sodium comes out of the nephron
218
The ascending loop of henle is ______ to water to allow ______ to be reabsorbed.
- Impermeable
| - Sodium
219
In the descending loop of henle, ____ is reabsorbed. In the ascendign loop of henle, _____ is reabsorbed.
- Water
| - Sodium
220
What happens in the collecting duct?
Water is reabsorbed, making urine more concentrated
221
Where is the only place in a nephron that water is not reabsorbed?
The ascending loop of henle
222
What is the overall purpose of the loop of henle?
The loop of henle is placed in the salty medulla, allowing water to be reabsorbed and leaving the urine
223
How much of what was originally filtered from the blood in Bowman's capsule leaves as urine?
1%
224
True or False: Sodium is reabsorbed in the descending loop of henle.
False
225
As you increase blood pressure, cardiovascular mortality ______.
Increases
226
The ______ ______ is located near the glomerulus and regulates blood pressure and the filtration rate of the glomerulus.
-Juxtaglomerular apparatus
227
When there is high blood pressure, urine volume ______ as more is _____ out of the glomerulus.
- Increases
| - filtered
228
With low blood volume and low blood pressure, urine volume _____.
Decreases
229
The juxtaglomerular apparatus is composed of what?
1. Macula densa cels of the DCT
| 2. JG cells around afferent and efferent arteries
230
What are macula densa cells a part of and what is their purpose?
- Juxtaglomerular apparatus
| - Monitor if the kidney isn't filtering enough blood and if the osmolarity of blood is correct
231
What four things to macula densa cells monitor?
1. Low glomerular filtration rate
2. Low blood pressure in afferent artery
3. Low concentration of sodium in afferent artery
4. Low osmolarity of fluid going through the distial convoluted tubule
232
What sequence of events occur when deviations are detected in the blood by macula densa cells?
Macula densa cells stimulate JG cells, JG cells release Renin in to the blood, Renin cleaves the blood protein Angiotensinogen to Angiotensin 1, Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) in the lungs cleaves angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2
233
What does three things does angiotensin II do?
1. Vasoconstrictor causing an increase in blood pressure
2. Causes release of aldosterone causing sodium and water retention and potassium secretion
3. Release of ADH causing water reabsorbtion from the collecting duct
234
Renin is released by ____ cells. The substrate for renin is _____.
- JG
| - Angiotensinogen
235
Angiotensinogen is a ____ protein that comes from the _____.
- blood
| - Liver
236
_____ is a steroid from the adrenal cortex that causes reabsorption of sodium and water.
Aldosterone
237
The ____ _____ is the outermost part of the cortex of the adrenal gland that releases ____ to the blood.
- Zona Glomerulosa
| - Aldosterone
238
What system is the process of angiotensin activation?
Renin Angiotensin Aldosterone System (RAAS)
239
The major target of aldosterone is the _____ _____.
Distal tubule
240
What are the three primary physiological effects of aldosterone?
1. Reabsorption of water
2. Reabsorption of sodium
3. Increased secretion of potassium
241
Why are people with myocardial infarction given an ACE inhibitor?
This blocks ACE, so that angiotensin II and aldosterone are not made, which lowers blood pressure
242
Angtiotensin II causes vasoconstriction in the ____ artery to increase glomerular filtration rate.
Afferent
243
What is a diuretic?
A drug that will increase urine production
244
What does ADH stand for and what does it do?
- Antidiuretic hormone
- Made in the hypothalamus and released by the pituitary. It affects the collecting duct of nephrons to allow water to be reabsorbed. This decreases urine volume and makes it very concentrated.
245
No ADH produces ____ urine.
Dilute
246
What happens when ADH is present and when it isn't present?
- Present: collecting duct is permeable to water and a small volume of urine is produced
- Not present: collecting duct is impermeable to water and a large volume of urine is produced
247
ADH opens _____ in the collecting duct wall to let water out.
Aquapores
248
Alcohol inhibits the release of ADH, causing _____.
Dehydration
249
When there is less water in the body, is a lot or a little ADH released?
A lot so that the urine is concentrated and no more water is lost
250
What is central diabetes insipidus a result of?
Low ADH
251
What is nephronic diabetes insipidus a result of?
ADH not working
252
A symptom of diabetes insipidus is ____ volume of urine.
High
253
What would happen to a population of 100 people if they took an LD30 diuretic drug?
- 30 people would die
| - The other 70 would have high urine volume
254
Less aldosterone leads to more ____ loss. More aldosterone leads to less _____ retention.
- sodium
| - potassium
255
More ADH leads to ____ urine volume. Less ADH leads to _____ urine volume.
- less
| - More
256
What are the five main functions of the endocrine system?
1. Maintain Internal Homeostasis
2. Support Cell Growth
3. Coordinate Development
4. Coordinate Reproduction
5. Facilitate responses to external stimuli
257
A _____ is a chemical made in one part of the body that becomes blood borne and travels to a target cell in another part of the body.
Hormone
258
______ _____ are made when invading epithelia become a deep, tube-less gland or get pinched off to form an island
Endocrine glands
259
A ____ cell is one with a receptor for a certain hormone.
Target
260
What are normally attached to hormones in the blood? Give an example for kangaroos.
- Proteins
| - Kangaroos have proteins tightly bound to sex hormones
261
What are the four classes of hormones and give a description.
1. Amines (one amino acid)
2. Polypeptides (chain of amino acids)
3. Steroids (from cholesterol)
4. Eicosanoids (From arachadonic acid)
262
What are the three sex steroids?
1. Progesterone
2. Testosterone
3. Estradiol
263
What are the four adrenal steroids?
1. Cortisol
2. Cortisone
3. Corticosterone
4. Aldosterone
264
Prostaglandins and related compounds are collectively known as _____.
Eicosanoids
265
What is a prostaglandin that controls ovary activity?
PGF2alpha
266
Between the hypthalamus and the pituitary is the _____.
Stalk
267
The _____ serves as the main regulator or processing center for all internal and external stimuli. The primary function is to maintain _______.
- Hypothalamus
| - Homeostasis
268
True or False: Different areas of the hypothalamus specialize in different functions.
True
269
What are seven functions of the hypothalamus?
1. Temperature Control
2. Water Balance
3. Cardiovascular Activity
4. Feeding Behavior
5. Control of anterior pituitary
6. Milk letdown
7. Rage
270
The pituitary sits in the ____ ____ bone.
Sella Turcica
271
What does the anterior pituitary form from?
Rathke's pouch of epithelial cells growing up from the roof of the mouth
272
What does the posterior pituitary form from?
Neural tissue extending down from the base of the brain
273
What are neurons like in the hypothalamus and pituitary?
The somas are in the hypothalamus and make hormones. During an action potential, the hormones travel down the long axon to a capillary in the posterior pit of the pituitary
274
ADH is made in the _____ and released in the _____ _____.
- Hypothalamus
| - Posterior Pituitary
275
The posterior pituitary is also called the ______.
Neurohypophysis
276
What two hormones are released from the posterior pit?
ADH and oxytocin
277
The anterior pituitary is also called the _____.
Adenohypophysis
278
The anterior pituitary is a _____ gland. The Posterior pituitary is _____.
- Ductless
| - Neural
279
There are _____ post pituitary hormones and ____ anterior pit hormones.
- 2
| - 6
280
The anterior pituitary forms from an outgrowth of the mouth called _____ ______. There is a _____ _____ between the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary.
- Rathke's pouch
| - Portal system
281
How does the anterior pituitary-hypothalamus portal system work?
Factors are released in the first capillary bed and travel to the second capillary bed. This triggers the anterior pituitary to release hormones to the body
282
In the stalk, between the hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary, is the ____ ____.
Portal vein
283
What is the difference in neurons between the posterior and anterior pituitary?
- Posterior pituitary has long axons extending to a capillary bed in the pituitary
- Anterior pituitary has neurons that stop at the first capillary bed of the portal system in the hypothalamus
284
For the anterior pituitary, neurons make _____ ____ that are released into the blood in the ________. These hormones cause a different hormone to be released in the _____ ______.
- Releasing Hormones
- Hypothalamus
- Anterior pituitary
285
Hormones released in the anterior pituitary are controlled by ______ ______. Why is this done?
- Releasing hormones
| - Hormones released to the body are more concentrated this way
286
How does the GHRH and GH system work?
Growth Hormone Releasing Hormone is released by neurons to the first capillary bed in the hypothalamus. Somatotrophs pull GHRH out of the blood stream at the second capillary bed in the anterior pituitary. Growth Hormone is released by the somatotrophs and is secreted out of the anterior pituitary.
287
Another name for Growth Hormone is ______.
Somatotropin
288
What does Growth Hormone do?
It acts directly on fat cells, causing them to break don and release carbs to cause a decrease in fat. It acts indirectly on the liver, causing it to release Insulin-Like Growth Factor-1 (IGF1), which makes bone and skeletal muscle grow
289
______ are endocrine cells that have receptors for GHRH and make GH.
Somatotrophs
290
What does bST stand for? What does each section mean?
- Bovine somatotropin
- ST = somatotropin
- Small letter in from = source
291
What is another name for IGF-1?
Somatomedin
292
IGF-1 is the primary mediator of the effects of ______ ______.
Growth Hormone
293
In the anterior pituitary, there are _____ types of endocrine cells secreting ____ hormones.
- 5
| - 6
294
What endocrine cell type makes up 40% of all the endocrine cells in the anterior pituitary? How is this different in fetuses?
- Somatotrophs
| - 60% of cells in anterior pit are somatotrophs because they need to grow a lot
295
The _____ _____ is two lobes around the trachea, connected by the ______.
- Trachea
| - Isthmus
296
On the back of the thyroid, there are four ______ _____.
Parathyroid glands
297
_____ is concentrated in the thyroid.
Iodine
298
The thyroid used _____ and ______ and releases ____ and ____.
- Tyrosine
- Iodine
- T3
- T4 (thyroxine)
299
Releasing T3 and T4 does what to they hypothalamus?
Causes negative feedback
300
The thyroid is made of small sacs or vesicles called ______, which are filled with _______. The generic name for this fluid is ______.
- Follicles
- Thyroglobin
- Colloid
301
What does the thyroid make and secrete?
T3 and T4 (thyroxine)
302
The other name for T4 is _______.
Thyroxine
303
______ make thyroglobulin and secrete it into the follicular fluid. They also make up the _____ of thyroid follicles.
Thyrocytes
| -Wall
304
______ ______ _____ causes T3 and T4 to be secreted by thyrocytes.
-Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)
305
What is thyroglobulin and what does it do?
It is a huge protein that stores MIT and DIT. When the epithelial lining of a follicle is stimulated by TSH, thyroglobulin is internalized ans metabolized to T3 and T4.
306
What is TRH and what does it do?
- Thyrotropin Releasing Hormone
- Made in the hypothalamus and released in the second capillary bed in the anterior pit. Thyrotrophs have receptors for this and are stimulated to make TSH.
307
Thyrotrophs bind ______ and produce ______.
- TRH
| - TSH
308
TSH is a dimeric polypeptide, like ____ and ______. What part is conserved and what part is unique in these?
- FSH
- LH
- Alpha subunit is conserved
- Beta subunit is unique
309
T3 and T4 have a _____ ____ effect on neurons in the hypothalamus.
Negetive Feedback
310
T3 and T4 are ____ hormones. What are their five functions?
- Metabolic
1. Increase BMR
2. Increase cellular heat production
3. Increase glucose uptake and utilization
4. Increase proteins synthesis
5. Increase cholesterol synthesis
311
What doe thyroxine and T3 control?
Energy for maintenance
312
Why does T3 and T4 have a long half-life?
They are bound to thyroxine binding protein (TBP) in the blood to allow it to continue circulating in the blood
313
What would happen if you gave an animl exogenous TRH?
TSH would rise, T3 and T4 would rise, then TRH would fall due to negative feedback
314
What are symptoms of hyperthyroidism?
active, nervous, irritable, exophthalmia (bulging eyes)
315
What is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism?
- Graves disease, an autoimmune disease
- THe body makes antibodies against TSH receptors on thyrocytes that bind and continuosly stimulate the thyroid gland. T3 and T4 levels are too high.
316
________ is low thyroid activity. What are symptoms? How do you treat it?
- Hypothyroidism
- Sleep a lot, sluggish muscles, overeat, myxedema (swelling of skin)
- Treat with exogenous T3 and T4
317
Both hyperthyroidism and hypothyroidism have what symptom?
An enlarged thyroid
318
________ is swelling of the thyroid gland and neck.
Goiter
319
90% of people with hypothyrodism have the disease due to ________ disease. What is this?
- Hashimoto's
- Mutation in TPO gene so that thyroperoxidase is not made in high enough quantities. This Causes people to be unable to put iodine on thyroglobulin, leading to low T3 and T4
320
______ deficiency can cause hypothyroidism and ______.
- Iodine
| - Goiter
321
What is the ratio of prevalence of goiter in women versus men?
13:1
322
What kinds of foods can cause goiter?
Goitrogens, which are drugs or feed that interfere with thyroxin production
323
The ______ gland is a tuft of ____ cells in the thyroid gland. It makes ______ _____ and is released when _____ levels are low.
- Parathyroid
- Chief
- Parathyroid Hormone
- Calcium
324
True or False: The parathyroid gland utilizes the hypothalamo-pituitary axis.
False, it monitors blood going by
325
Calcitonin is made from _____ cells, also called _____ cells.
- C
| - Parafollicular
326
Parathyroid cells make _____ ,and C cells make ____.
- Parathyroid Hormone
| - Calcitonin
327
______ opposes PTH as it is released when caclium levels in the blood are too ____.
- Calcitonin
| - High
328
What three things does PTH do?
1. Calcium reabsorption in the kidney
2. Calcium demineralization from bone
3. Helps kidney activate vitamin D to reabsorb calcium from the intestine
329
What three things does calcitonin do?
1. Calcium secretion in kidney
2. Calcium uptake in bone
3. Deactivates vitamin D so less calcium is absorbed in the intestine
330
What is dihydroxycholecalciferol?
The active form of vitamin D, stimulated by PTH
331
Cortisol is a ________.
Gluticorticoid
332
Where to glucocorticoids, such as cortisol, come from>
The zona fasiculata of the adrenal cortex
333
In the adrenal cortex, the zona glomerulosa secretes _______, the zona fasiculata secretes ______, and the zona reticularis secretes ______.
- Aldosterone
- Cortisol
- Androgens
334
What is CRH and ACTH and what do they do?
Corticotrophic Releasing Hormone is made in the hypothalamus and travels to the anterior pituitary pit where it stimulates the release of Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone by corticotrophs. This hormone travels to the adrenal cortex and stimulates the release of cortisol.
335
Where are receptors for CRH found?
Corticotrophs in anterior pit
336
How does cortisol affect CRH production?
Negative feedback, it inhibits it
337
Cortisole is a _____ hormone. What are the six functions?
- stress
1. Anti-inflammatory
2. Released under stress
3. Inhibits fertility
4. Stimulates maturation of fetal lungs
5. Metaboic effect = increase glucose levels
6. Induces parturition
338
How can you measure cortisol without stressing the animal?
Measure cortisol in feces
339
What is Addison's disease? what are a few symptoms?
- Hypoadrenocorticism
- Low glucococorticoids (cortisol)
- Weakness, lethargy, weight loss
340
What is Cushing's disease in dogs? What are a few symptoms?
- Hyperadrenocorticism
- Excess cortisol/glucocorticoids
- Increae drinking urination, fluid in stomach, hair loss
341
What is Cushing's disease in horses? what are a few symptoms?
- Hyperadrenocorticism
- Excess cortisol/glucocorticoids
- Sway back, curly hair, laminitis
342
Why does Cushing's disease cause laminitis in horses?
High sugar levels cause chemical damage to the lamina
343
If you remove the parathyroid hormone, what symptom will occur to tell you that you have removed all of it?
Calcium levels will be low, leading to muscle tremors
344
The _____ is a secretory organ that monitors the blood and scretes things to the small intestine.
Pancreas
345
What is unique about the pancreas in dogs?
They have a well-developed left and right lobe of their pancreas
346
_____ cells in the pancreas make secretions. These are _____ cells.
- Acinar
| - Exocrine
347
_______ ______ _____ cells in the pancreas make hormones that will circulate in the blood. They are _____ cells. _____ cells secrete glucagon and _______ cells secrete insulin.
- Islets of Langerhans
- Ductless
- Alpha
- Beta
348
True or False: They hypothalamus and pituitary control the pancreatic islets.
False
349
How much of the pancreatic secretions are from the Islets? What are the rest from?
- 1-2%
| - Acinar exocrine cells
350
_____ is released when sugar levels are low. _____ is released when sugar levels are high.
- Glucagon
| - Insulin
351
What what the nickname for glucagon when it was being discoverd?
the "sugar drive hormone"
352
When sugar levels rise after you eat, what will happen to insulin levels?
Insulin will rise
353
Does the brain and muscles have receptors for insulin?
No, capillaries in the brain ensure sugar gets to the neurons and working muscle pulls sugar from the blood
354
How does sugar get into cells that aren't brain or muscle cells?
They must have receptors for insulin. When insulin binds, sugar can enter the cells.
355
The precursor to insulin is _____.
Proinsulin
356
In normal glucose handling in the kidney, how much glucose is reabsorbed? What about it diabetes mellitus?
- 100% normally
| - Some glucose escapes in urine
357
Sugar in the urine in the collecting duct is a _____. Why is this?
- diuretic
| - Not all glucose is reabsorbed in diabetes mellitus, so water enters the collecting duct to dilute the urine more
358
What is urine like in diabetes Mellitus? What are the types?
- Honey urine
| - Type 1, 2, and gestational
359
What is type 1 diabetes and what causes it?
- Homozygous recessive gene
- Lack beta cells and do not make insulin
- High sugar
360
What things play a factor in the risk of getting diabetes?
Genetic components, age, race, sedentary lifestyle, dropping levels of calling a person diabetic, and the lack of symptoms early on
361
Which type of diabetes is associated with obesity?
Type II diabetes mellitus
362
At the time of diagnosis of diabetes, what is pancreatic function like?
50% of normal function
363
What are the current measures for diagnosing diabetes?
- 100-125 = prediabetic
| - 126 or higher = diabetes
364
What is the issue with too much sugar in the blood?
-Glucose is stick and sticks to blood proteins and cell extracellular matrices. This thickens blood and reduces function.
365
Too much glucose in teh blood can cause _____ _____.
Glycosylated Hemoglobin
366
True or False: No link has been found between diabetes and the chance of heart disease or stroke?
False
367
Diabetes is the ____ leading cause of death in the US, most due to ____ ____ or ____.
- 6th
- Heart attack
- Stroke
368
What three things can diabetes cause?
1. New blindess in adults
2. Renal failure
3. lower limb amputations
369
What can help surgar levels?
Changing dietary patterns and exercising
370
WHat is A1C/HA1C?
A three month average of sugar levels
371
How does diabetes possibly lead to lower limb amputation?
-The thicker blood leads to less flexible endothelia and blockage of capillaries causing poor vasuclar health. This causes pain and nerve damage.
372
What does glucagon act on?
- THe liver to stimulate glucose production and release
| - Fat to cause breakdown
373
Insulin-Like Growth Factor-1 acts like _____.
Insulin
