Exam 2 Flashcards
(121 cards)
1
Q
in early heart formation, cells migrating through the anterior part of the primitive streak will form which of the components of the heart?
A
outflow tract
2
Q
in early heart formation, cells migrating through the middle part of the primitive streak will form which of the components of the heart?
A
ventricles
3
Q
in early heart formation, cells migrating through the posterior part of the primitive streak will form which of the components of the heart?
A
atria
4
Q
in the early embryo, during somitogenesis, how many somitomere pairs are found caudal to the most caudal somite pair
A
11 (12)
7- cranial
5
Q
opposing FGF8 and retinoic acid gradients associated with which theory regarding somite formation
A
wave front model
determination front
6
Q
sclerotome is derived from cells from what source (3)
A
paraxial mesoderm
7
Q
what is the source of the cardiogenic plate
A
splanchnic mesoderm
8
Q
an inductive stimulus from what source stimulates the transformation of the epithelial sclerotome into secondary mesenchyme
A
notochord
somite is what is being transformed
9
Q
intermediate mesoderm in the early embryo gives rise to which system(s)/structures?
A
pronephros and mesonephros (GV system)
10
Q
what type of embryonic defects are characters as primary errors of morphogenesis that are usually multifactorial and involve a number of etiological agents including genetic and env factors
A
malformation
11
Q
disturbance in otherwise normal morphological process is called and example
A
disruption
ex. amniotic bands
12
Q
disturbance caused by abnormal biomechanical forces is called and examples
A
deformation
ex. clubfoot, uterine constraints
13
Q
series of events triggered by one initiating factor is called
A
sequences
14
Q
disruptions in normal sequence of developmental sequence of events, not primary
A
syndrome
15
Q
what condition refers to the accumulation of edema fluid in the fetus during intrauterine growth
caused most commonly by hemolytic anemia
A
fetal hydrops
16
Q
what is the blood incompatability between mother and fetus
A
immune hydrops
17
Q
what is brain damage and high concentration of bilirubin
A
kernicterus
18
Q
folic acid deficiency is now through to be a major cause of what class of malformations
A
neural tube defects
19
Q
anal atresia can be attributed to what type of disturbance
A
tissue resorption
20
Q
what group of congenital malformations makes up the largest percentage of congenital malformations
A
unknown
21
Q
cleft palate is the result of a defect in what developmental mechanis
A
developmental arrest
^^ also leads to cleft lip, thyroglossal duct
22
Q
phocomelia is most likely to be seen after maternal exposure to which teratogenic agent during the first trimester of pregnancy
A
thalidomide
def: damage to proximal blood vessels destroying proximal limb segments
23
Q
what are the characteristic effects caused by exposure of the fetus to alcohol
A
growth/mental retardation, microencephaly, malformation of face and trunk
24
Q
what are the characteristic effects caused by exposure of the fetus to thalidomide
A
limb defects, ear defects, CV anomalies
25
what are the characteristic effects caused by exposure of the fetus to retinoic acid
cranial neural crest defect, affects Hox genes
26
supplementing the diet of women of childbearing age with which dietary supplement may reduce the incidence of neural tube defects such as anencephaly
folic acid
27
in fetal hydrops, the affected brain may become enlarged and edematous and, when sectioned, has a bright yellow color, particularly the basal nuclei, thalamus, cerebellum, cerebral gray and spinal cord. what term is related to this CNS damage
kernicterus
the yellow is bilirubin
28
an increased incidence of what condition(s) is strongly associated with increasing maternal age
down syndrome
29
an increased incidence of what condition(s) is strongly associated with increasing paternal age
achondroplasia
| aperts syndrome
30
during childbirth, which membranes/layers around the embryo rupture and which do not
amnion, decidua capsularis, placenta, embryonic membranes, remainder of umbilical cord
31
tendons of limb muscles arise from what source
lateral plate mesoderm
32
limb muscles arise from what source
ventrolateral dermomyotome
33
tendons of the muscles of trunk (2) arise from what source
epiaxial tendon: syndetome layer within somites
| hypaxial tendon: lateral plate mesoderm
34
muscles of the trunk arise from what source
epiaxial: dorsal lip of myotome
hypaxial: ventral buds of myotome
35
muscles of head nad neck arise from what
paraxial somitomeres
36
extraocular m from
prechordal plate
37
cranial m from
unsegmented paraxial mesoderm
38
lower jaw m from
splanchnic mesoderm
39
expression of what genes are involved in the separation of the dermomyotome into dorsal dermatome and ventral myotome
expression of pax 3, pax7, paraxis
40
hydatidform mole is related to which genetic related condition
paternal imprinting (46XX)
41
formation of ribs on the lumbar and sacral v occurs as a result of what genetic condition
all Hox 10 paralogs knocked out
42
minor morphological effects result from
single Hox knockout
43
impairment of sacral and coccygeal development results from
all Hox11 paralog knockout
44
minor anatomical defect result from
single Hox gene mutation
45
myoepithelial cells in the lactating breast contract in response to what hormone
answer: oxytocin - milk ejection
prolactin - milk synthesis
46
which components of the hair and its follicle are derived from ectoderm
hair follicle and hair shaft
47
which components of the hair and its follicle are derived from mesoderm
hair papilla and outer hair follicle
48
the proatlas anlage contributes to the formation of which structure(s)
basioccipial bone and dens of axis
49
what factor is antagonistic to BMP and, when down regulated, allows sutures to fuse
↓ Noggin, ↑BMP --> suture closing
| FGF2 --> ↓ Noggin
50
what structure(s) are derived from the trophoblast (2)
placenta and chorion
51
list the characteristics of the early placenta
thick, low permeability, small SA, total diffusion is minuscule
52
list the characteristics of the late placenta
thin, high permeability, large SA, large increase in placental diffusion
53
list/describe factors/conditions that facilitate the exchange of oxygen between the fetal and maternal blood
```
O2 pressure gradient; mom-50, fetus-30
fetal Hgb has high O2 affinity
bohr effect
fetal blood conc is about 50% higher than maternal
maternal blood: acidic
fetal blood: alkalinic
```
54
what factor is in the permanent cartilage pathway causes chondroblasts to secrete collagen 2 and cartilage matrix and is continually expressed in permanent cartilage
Sox9
55
what is/are the effects(s) of HCG on the corpus luteum
prevents involution of corpus luteum
causes CL to increase progesterone and estrogen
increase growth in CL
56
what cells can be considered immigrant with regard to the development of the integument (3) and where they come from
melanoblasts: neural crest
langerhans cells: bone marrow
merkel cells: neural crest
57
describe the characteristics of satellite cells in reference to muscle tissue differentiation
mitotic, myogenic, fuse with muscle fiber for growth
function as stem cells
HGF --> C met receptor
replace damaged muscles
58
what signaling molecules are expressed by the isthmic organizer
main: FGF8 (ant) and Wnt (post)
function: induce decrease gradients of EN1, EN2, Pax2, Pax5
59
what germ layers make up each of the extraembryonic membranes
chorium, amniotic cavity, yolk sac, allantois
ALL ARE MESODERM
ectoderm: amnion, chorion
endoderm: yolk sac, allantosis
60
what germ layers make up each of the intraembryonic membranes
splanchnic and somatic mesoderm
61
what germ layer is absent from the oropharyngeal membrane
mesoderm
62
name the factor(s) that is/are involved in the formation of rhombomeres 3 and 5
Krox20 and Hox
63
what are the three circulatory arcs in the 4 week embryo
vitelline, allantoic, embryonic
64
what are the components of the vitelline arc
vitelline vessels
65
what are the components of the allantoic arc
allantoic (umbilical) vessels
66
what are the components of the embryonic arc
dorsal aorta, aortic arches, anterior cardinal v, common cardinal v, posterior cardinal v, atrium, ventricle, ventral aorta
67
what TF suppress the formation of anterior gut structures and promotes hindgut development
cdx2
anterior intestinal portal: Shh expression (foregut)
posterior intestinal portal: Shh then BMP4 (hindgut)
68
what role does p63 play in the formation of the intermediate layer of the epidermis and what is its relation to miR-203
inactivation of p63 forms intermediate layer
| miR203 causes inactivation of p63
69
what is fillagrin and what is it specifically associated with
what the granulosum is interconnected with
| protein binding keratin
70
permissive induction
responding cell has all potentials it needs to be expressed and only needs the specific environment allowing that expression
71
instructive induction
1 germ layer (mesoderm) instructs another (ectoderm) how to differentiate when it originally wouldn't go that way
72
which intramembranous bone in the body is the first to become ossified
clavicle
73
prechordal (hypophyseal) cartilages contribute to the formation of which components of the embryonic skull
basooccipital portion of chondrocranium
74
characteristics of early cardiac muscle cells
from splanchnic mesoderm
express MADs
early has NO MyoD expression
75
what skull structures are derived from the membranous portion of the viscerocranium
maxillary process
| surrounds oral cavity and pharynx, cartilaginous and membranous
76
what skull structures are derived from the membranous portion of the neurocranium
parietal, frontal, part of skull surrounding brain
77
what skull structures are derived from the membranous portion of the chondrocranium
occipital, sphenoid, ethmoid
78
name the four components of the typical embryonic pharyngeal arch
skeletal element, muscles, branch of LN, artery
| 6 pairs
79
name the four components of the typical embryonic pharyngeal arch
skeletal element, muscles, branch of LN, artery
| 6 pairs
80
a long and thin upper lip, upwardly slanting palpebral fissures, and epicanthic folds, microcephaly, and micrognathia are characteristic effects caused by exposure of the fetus to what agent
fetal alcohol syndrome - alcohol
81
what embryonic/fetal defects are related to thalidomide when the embryo/fetus is exposed during a critical period
dorsal limb defects, ear defects, CV anomalies
82
what embryonic/fetal defects are related to retinoid acid when the embryo/fetus is exposed during a critical period
cranial neural crest defects
83
what embryonic/fetal defects are related to alcohol when the embryo/fetus is exposed during a critical period
growth/mental retardation, microencephaly, malformation of face and trunk
84
describe fetal hydrops
accumulation of edema fluid in fetus during intrauterine growth
85
describe erythroblastosis fetalis and list characteristics and causative factors
antibody causing hemolysis of Rh(+) fetal RBC
| can cause hydrops fetalis
86
describe kernicterus and list characteristics and causative factors
brain damage, increase conc of bilirubin
87
describe phenylketonuria and list characteristics and causative factors
recessive or X linked
| inborn errors of metabolism
88
derivatives of paraxial mesoderm
segmented to somites
89
derivatives of intermediate mesoderm
urogenital system
90
derivatives of lateral mesoderm
most internal organs and limbs
91
what role do Pax3 and pax7 play in the separation of the dermomyotome into dorsal dermatome and ventral myotome
dorsal signaling = dorsalizing effect
92
describe the causative factor for hydatidforom mole
chorionic villi characterized by nodular swelling
| looks like "bundles of grapes"
93
describe the causative factor for oligohydramnios
little amniotic fluid, causes renal agenesis
94
describe the causative factor for placenta previa
abnormal implantation site within uterine cavity
95
describe the causative factor for accessory placental lobes
umbilical cord attachment at incorrect site
96
Hox gene expression of vertebral column
| occipital-cervical, cervical-thoracic, attached floating ribs
occipital-cervical = Hox3
cervical-thoracic = Hox6
attached floating ribs = Hox9
97
what roles do progesterone and oxytocin play in lactation
progesterone: stimulation of formation of secretory alveoli
oxytocin: stimulates milk secretion
98
common bone/cartilage differentiation pathway
mesenchyme --> N-cadherin --> condensation --> TGFB --> fibronectin synthesis and NCAM
99
membranous bone/cartilage differentiation pathway
Runx2 + Osx
| mesenchymal cells --> osteoblasts
100
permanent bone/cartilage differentiation pathway
condensation --> chondroblast
| sox9 --> allow chondroblast --> collagen 11 + matrix
101
endochondral bone/cartilage differentiation pathway
runx2 + ihh + bmp6 --> induce cartilage hypertrophy --> bone protein secretion + VEGF (vascular endothelial growth factor)
102
what hormone prevents involution of the corpus luteum and causes and corpus luteum to increase secretion of progesterone and estrogen
HCG
103
what is the isthmic organizer
located between mesencephalon and melencephalon
| role: signaling center, organizes and polarizes dorsal midbrain and cerebellum
104
what molecule produced by the notochord in instrumental in inducing the floor plate of the neural tube
sonic hedgehog (ventral signaling)
105
motor neurons arise from which part of the developing neural tube
floor plate/ventral (by sonic hedgehog)
106
during neural tube histogenesis, what difference does it make if the metaphase plate of a dividing neuroblast daughter cell is parallel or perpendicular to inner margin
parallel: 1 proliferative (closest to lumen) and 1 postmitotic neuroblast expressing Notch
perpendicular: 2 proliferative daughter cells
107
what is the major derivatives of the alar plates of the mesencephalon
Shh restricts pax7 expression
108
what neurological structure forms in the region of the rhombic lips
cerebellum (rhombomeres 1-8)
lips: product of the roof plate and neural tuve via BMP signaling
109
embryonic pentapartite brain adult derivatives
myelencephalon, melencephalon = from rhombenecephalon
mesencephalon = undivided
diencephalon, telencephalon = from prosencephalon
110
what bones of the skull are derived from the membranous portion of the viscerocranium
maxillary process
111
where are RBC first formed in the developing embryo
blood islands
112
4 types of malformation that occur when the neural tube fails to close completely or incompletely
rachischisis, spina bifida occulta, meningocele, myelomeningocele
113
4 types of malformation that occur when the neural tube fails to close completely or incompletely
rachischisis, spina bifida occulta, meningocele, myelomeningocele
114
rachischisis
neural folds dont close
| skin does not close over tube
115
spina bifida occulta
vertebral arches don't close completely
| hair over defect area
116
meningocele
spinal cord in normal position
dura mater is open
arachnoid layer outside canal
vertebral arches not formed
117
myelomeningocele
spinal cord NOT in normal position
dura mater is open
arachnoid layer outside canal
vertebral arches not formed
118
which structure in the embryo is unsegmented
notochord
119
-mere
| somites
```
-mere = segment
somites = segmental
```
120
28 y.o rh (-) womans second son is born jaundiced. what describes her first child
Rh (+)
121
pelvis kidney=
cleft lip=
renal agenesis=
amputated digit in utero=
pelvis kidney: failure of kidney to migrate
cleft lip: lack of fusion between structures in face
renal agenesis: kidney does not form
amputated digit in utero: amniotic band
