Exam 2 (missing antibiotic stuff...for now) Flashcards Preview

x SCO summer 2015 Pharmacology > Exam 2 (missing antibiotic stuff...for now) > Flashcards

Flashcards in Exam 2 (missing antibiotic stuff...for now) Deck (177):
1

What is used to treat lymphomas?

Prednisone, Rituximab

2

What is the mechanism of Type 5 Phosphodiesterase inhibitors?

It inhibits PDE5 to allow for more cGMP (causes vasodilation). Muscarinic ACh > Nitric Oxide > cGMP.

3

What is good for seasickness?

Scopolamine and other muscarinic blockers

4

What is Tx for hypertension?

Clonidine (Alpha 2 agonist)

5

What are the side effects of beta blockers?

Increased airway resistance in the respiratory tract – CAUTION IN USE WITH AN ASTHMATIC PATIENT! Impair recovery from hypoglycemia; Increase VLDL and decrease HDL, Bradycardia, Mild sedation or depression, Cardiac decompensation, Caution in use in high cholesterol and diabetic patients!

6

What cancer drug is a powerful blistering agent?

Mechlorethamine

7

Which drugs Bind to microtubule protein and prevent polymerization?

Vinblastine and Vincristine (microtubule inhibitors)

8

Which drug has this MoA: Inhibits DNA polymerase. Also can be incorporated into cellular DNA

Cytarabine

9

Where are the nonsteroidal antigens drugs (anti-cancer)?

Flutamide, Nilutamide (can cause visual problems) Bicalutamide

10

What drug stops VEGF from stimulating new blood vessels?

Bevacizumab

11

Is tamoxifen cell-cycle specific or not?

Tamoxifen is NOT cell-cycle specific

12

Which adrenergic receptors lead to a blood pressure increase?

Alpha 1, Beta 1 (but there is a reflex decrease in HR)

13

What drug goes through P450 metabolism

Vinblastine and Vincristine and Docetaxel and Paclitaxel (microtubule inhibitors)

14

Curing cancer results in about ___% of patients. Overall 5-year survival rate for cancer patients is __%

10%. 65%

15

How do you test for Horner's syndrome?

Use phenylephrine. If it doesn’t dilate then it's probably not Horner's. then test with ophthalmic cocaine: No dilation = postganglionic lesion. Dilation= preganglionic lesion.

16

What are the steps of ACh production and use?

1 Choline enters and 2 combines with Acetyl CoA through Choline acetyltransferase. 3 Ach put in vesicles. 4 AP causes Ca++ to enter the axon > 5 vesicle fuses with axon terminal. 6 ACh eventually gets broken down by AChE. 7 Choline gets recycled

17

Which adrenergic receptors lead to a blood pressure decrease?

Alpha 2, Beta 2

18

What is the first line therapy for breast cancer?

Tamoxifen

19

Which drugs are analogs of gonadotropin releasing hormone?

Leuprolide and Goserelin

20

Which antimetabolite is given orally?

6-mercaptopurine (and Methotrexate can be oral)

21

What drugs bind to tubulin subunits and make microtubules more stable (cells are stuck in metaphase)

Docetaxel, Paclitaxel

22

What are the adverse effects of Muscarinic blockers?

Mydriasis, Cycloplegia, Dry mouth, Tachycardia, Flushed skin, Agitation, Delirium, Elevated body temperature

23

What receptor stimulates the iris dilator muscle?

Alpha 1

24

What is Tx for asthma?

Albuterol, Metaproterenol, Terbutaline

25

What happens if the miotic pupil does not dilate with phenylephrine?

It's probably not Horner's syndrome, then

26

What can cause Crystalline retinopathy and other vision probs?

Tamoxifen

27

Which drugs are Cholinomimetic Alkaloids?

Pilocarpine, nicotine, muscarine

28

What happens when you activate Alpha 1 receptors?

Vasoconstriction in skin increases blood pressure, Iris dilator muscle dilates pupil, urine retention, slows GI tract (but contracts sphincters)

29

Are alkylating agents cell cycle specific or non-cell cycle specific?

Not cell-cycle specific

30

What are the properties of Choline esters?

ACh, Carbachol, Bethanechol are hydrophilic (poorly absorbed), Carbachol and Bethanechol are more resistant to AChE --longer duration of action

31

Which receptor targets the Vascular smooth muscle, pupillary dilator muscle, and heart?

Alpha-1

32

Which drug's adverse effect? : Pulmonary toxicity Alopecia Hypertrophic skin changes and hyperpigmentation Fever and chills

Bleomycin

33

Which antibiotic cancer drug is cell cycle specific?

Bleomycin

34

AE: Hot flashes, nausea, vomiting, skin rash; Potential to cause endometrial cancer, Crystalline retinopathy and other vision problems

Tamoxifen

35

What kind of receptor is muscarinic?

g-protein.

36

Which drug has this MoA: Pyrimidine analog Forms a molecular complex that deprives the cell of thymidine (DNA synthesis stops)

5-fluorouracil

37

What are the effects of Beta blockers on the cardiovascular system?

Decrease in blood pressure in patients with hypertension (decrease in renin release), Slow atrioventricular conduction (Decrease heart rate and cardiac output). Can have an acute effect of increasing BP via the blocking of B2 mediated vasodilation

38

What are side effects unique to Direct-Acting Muscarinic Stimulants?

Nausea, Frontal headache (from accommodation stimulated), Urinary urgency, Salivation, Sweating, and flushing of the skin (vasodilation) . Both direct and indirect have Bronchial constriction, Vomiting, Diarrhea, convulsions

39

What adrenergic drugs are limited clinically?

Alpha 2 antagonists, but they are being used experimentally in diabetes and depression.

40

What's good for advanced breast cancer?

Leuprolide and Goserelin

41

Which drugs can cause buildup of uric acid in the urine?

Vinblastine and Vincristine (microtubule inhibitors)

42

What are side effects unique to cholinesterase inhibitors?

Miosis, Salivation, Sweating, and Muscle weakness. Both direct and indirect have Bronchial constriction, Vomiting, Diarrhea, Convulsions,

43

What is still used to treat ED outside US? What mechanism?

Yohimbine! It's alpha 2 antagonist that promotes NE release to increase sympathetic activation

44

Which drug has this MoA: Prevents folic acid conversion to THF leading to decreased DNA/ protein materials

Methotrexate

45

Which non-selective alpha agonist has greater affinity for alpha 1 over alpha 2?

Phenoxybenzamine

46

Which drugs contain a benzene ring with ethylamine side chain?

Sympathomimetic

47

AE: Severe nausea and vomiting Severe bone marrow depression Latent viral infections due to immunosuppression Patient will be very susceptible to infection. Must use caution.

Mechlorethamine

48

Nm nicotinic receptors are on ___

Skeletal Muscle

49

What can regenerate AChE?

Pralidoxime

50

What can cause chemical conjunctivitis at high doses?

Cytarabine (antimetabolite)

51

What are the clinical uses of alpha antagonists?

For tumors that secrete NE, hypertension, Urinary obstruction (enlarged prostate), ED

52

Which alkylating agent transforms into an active metabolite?

Dacarbazine

53

What drug induces cell-mediated cytotoxicity and must be infused slowly?

Rituximab

54

Why don't we use nicotinic blockers?

They are too nonspecific and would cause major side-effects

55

What is the neurotransmitter and receptor of preganglionic parasympathetics? Long or short?

Long, Ach nicotinic

56

What are the clinical uses of Cholinomimetics in the Eye?

Glaucoma (pilocarpine and carbachol are older treatments)

57

What do muscarinic blockers do to the urinary tract and sweat glands?

Slows voiding. Reduces sweating

58

Which ANS receptors are nicotinic?

All pre-ganglionic cells (and somatic skeletal muscle motor end plates)

59

Which Antibiotic cancer drugs can be given subcutaneously, IM, or IV?

Bleomycin

60

What happens when you apply Direct-Acting Cholinoceptor Stimulants to the eye

Contraction of iris sphincter (miosis), ciliary muscle (accommodation), and opening of trabecular meshwork (lower IOP)

61

What do muscarinic blockers do to the lungs?

They cause Bronchodilation, a reduce secretions in lung

62

What is good treatment of Uveitis

Homatropine or Cyclopentolate

63

What Tx for certain lymphomas and leukemias?

Rituximab

64

What is the tissue target and actions for Alpha 1?

Vascular smooth muscle (contraction), pupillary dilator muscle (contraction -- dilation), and heart (increase force of contraction)

65

How are Monoclonal antibodies administered.

NOT orally! IV

66

What is the short-acting Indirect Acting Cholinomimetic? How does it work?

Edrophonium. Forms reversible bond with the enzyme. Not actually a substrate for ACh-esterase

67

What receptor is only on the heart?

Beta 1

68

What happens when you apply Direct-Acting Cholinoceptor Stimulants to the heart and blood vessels?

Hyperpolarization of the SA and AV node (decreases AP and contractility), blood vessels release NO from endothelial cells to cause vasodilation

69

What receptor relaxes the smooth ciliary muscle?

Beta 2

70

What is the effect of activating muscarinic receptors of the GI tract?

Increased muscle tone and peristaltic activity

71

Name MOA: Forms a stable complex with DNA Intercalates into double helix between G-C base pairs Interferes with RNA polymerase and hinders DNA synthesis

Dactinomycin

72

Which receptors are rapid on/off and desensitize to constant activation?

Nicotinic receptors

73

Which non-selective alpha antagonist can potentially be used for ED treatment (injection)?


Phentolamine


74

What are some problems associated with chemotherapy?

Resistance, multidrug resistance, toxicity

75

What Tx for prostate cancer?

Flutamide, Nilutamide (can cause visual problems) Bicalutamide [all nonsteroidal antigens]. Also Leuprolide and Goserelin

76

What does a selective receptor mean?

It can become non-selective at high concentration

77

Which drug is an estrogen antagonist?

Tamoxifen

78

What is good for myasthenia gravis?

Indirect acting Cholinomimetic (Edrophonium for diagnosis, pyridostigmine for treatment and neostigmine)

79

What do adrenoceptor antagonists do (heart, and other effects)

They block vasoconstriction, lowering blood pressure. This can result in orthostatic hypotension and reflex tachycardia. They also cause pupil constriction, cause nasal stuffiness, and increase urine flow

80

Which anti-metabolite is not used for maintenance therapy?

6-thioguanine

81

What is Tx for acute hypotension?

Alpha agonists (NE, Phenylephrine)

82

What are the intermediate-acting Indirect Acting Cholinomimetics?

Neostigmine, Physostigmine, Pyridostigmine

83

What is effect of an Indirect Acting Cholinomimetic on the NMJ?

prolong and intensify the actions of acetylcholine

84

What drugs are mutagenic and carcinogenic?

Alkylating agents

85

What happens when you apply Direct-Acting Cholinoceptor Stimulants to the NMJ?

Causes depolarization followed by depolarization blockade

86

What is the tissue target and actions for Alpha 2?

CNS and PNS nerve terminal (inhibits NT release). Also decreases aqueous production and increase uveoscleral outflow

87

What is effect of an Indirect Acting Cholinomimetic on the heart and vessels? What is the NET result?

Decrease heart rate and force of contraction (decrease in cardiac output and BP). Increase in vascular resistance (vasoconstriction causes increase in BP because of sympathetic ganglia stimulation). Net result is mild BP increase but high dose will cause BP to fall.

88

MOA: steroid that Triggers production of specific proteins that reduce cell growth and proliferation

Prednisone

89

What does sympathetic activity do to the blood vessels in skeletal muscle and in the skin?

Symp causes dilation in muscles but constriction in the skin

90

Which antimetabolite is used in low doses to treat inflammatory diseases: severe psoriasis, rheumatoid arthritis, crohn disease?

Methotrexate

91

What can cause vasoconstriction?

Alpha agonists (Epi, Phenylephrine, Tetrahydrozoline)

92

What is effect of an Indirect Acting Cholinomimetic on the CNS?

Low concentrations: alerting response. High concentrations: convulsions

93

Which antimetabolite is given topically for skin cancer and the prevention of scar formation?

5-fluorouracil

94

What is the tissue target and actions for Beta 2?

Respiratory, uterine, and vascular smooth muscle (Relaxes smooth muscle). Skeletal muscle (promotes K+ uptake)

95

What can treat cholinergic poisoning?

Atropine (muscarinic blocker)

96

What drugs bind guanine in DNA to form cross links?

Cisplatin, Carboplatin, Oxaliplatin

97

Which cancer drug basically activates the immune system?

Interferons

98

What are the long-acting organophosphates? Where are they distributed?

Echothiophate, Malathion, Parathion, Sarin. All are distributed to CNS except echothiophate

99

What does a specific receptor mean?

Specific means it will stay specific regardless of concentration

100

What drug class would be bad for an asthma patient?

Direct and indirect acting cholinoceptor stimulant, Timolol (beta blocker)

101

What is the neurotransmitter and receptor of preganglionic sympathetics? Long or short?

Short, ACh nicotinic

102

Which alkylating agent is given orally?

Lomustine

103

What is a treatment of testicular cancer?

Bleomycin with vinblastine or etoposie

104

What can be used for Alzheimer's treatment?

Tacrine (not used as often due to side effects), Donepezil, Galantamine, Rivastigmine

105

What are the common adverse side effects of cancer treatment?

Severe vomiting, Bone marrow suppression, Alopecia, Myelosuppression (patient prone to infection)

106

AE of "other" cancer drugs: Mild nausea, myelosuppression

carboplatin and oxaliplatin

107

What kind of receptor are the Alpha and beta receptors?

G-protein coupled receptors

108

Which drug has this MoA: Inhibits the first step of purine-ring biosynthesis and blocks formation of AMP

6-thioguanine and 6-mercaptopurine

109

Where are alpha 2 receptors located?

On the presynaptic membrane. They are "autoreceptors"

110

Which antibiotic cancer drug can make red urine and dark red veins?

Doxorubicin

111

What are the ocular side effects of type 5 Phosphodiesterase inhibitors?

Mild impairment of color vision, Blurry vision, Increased risk of ischemia

112

Which Cholinomimetic alkaloid is toxic?

Muscarine

113

What happens when you activate Alpha 2 receptors?

Reduces NE release from preganglionic neuron, reducing sympathetic effects. Insulin release is inhibited

114

What happens if the cocaine drops cause dilation?

Horner's syndrome is from preganglionic lesion

115

Which Cholinomimetic alkaloid can be absorbed across the skin?

Nicotine

116

Which cancer drug is hardly excreted?

Mechlorethamine

117

Why is a combination of drugs good for cancer treatment?

Provide maximal killing with tolerated toxicity, Effective against broad cell lines, May delay development of resistant cell lines. If use drugs with similar toxicities, dose of each must be reduced

118

What are the clinical uses of Cholinomimetics in the GI/urinary tract?

Postoperative atony, neurogenic bladder. Basically smooth muscle disorders where there is no obstruction. Pilocarpine and Cevimeline can increase salivary secretion in Sjogren's syndrome.

119

Do Adrenergic receptors desensitize?

They are non-desensitizing

120

Which "steroid hormone and antagonists" are actually steroids? Which are not steroids?

STEROIDS:

121

What is a Pharmacologic Sanctuary?

A place where some tumor cells can “hide” in tissues where chemotherapeutic agents cannot enter. Radiation "finds" these tumors

122

Which antibiotic cancer drug goes through extensive liver metabolism?

Doxorubicin.

123

Which adrenergic receptors lead to an increase in heart contractility and heart rate?

Beta 1

124

Activation of what receptor causes bronchodilation?

Beta 2

125

What does sympathetic/parasympathetic activity do to the Kidney?

Sympathetic alters the secretion of renin. Parasympathetic does nothing

126

What can produce a fever in younger patients?

Muscarinic blockers

127

What do muscarinic blockers do to the GI tract?

Decrease salivation, production of stomach acid, smooth muscle tone and propulsive movements

128

Which adrenergic drug is effective in topical administration to the eye?

Timolol

129

What is effect of an Indirect Acting Cholinomimetic on the respiratory tract?

Basically the same as direct. Contraction of bronchial smooth muscle: Bronchoconstriction. Stimulation of bronchial glands: Increase mucous secretion. This would be bad for an asthma patient

130

What happens when you apply Direct-Acting Cholinoceptor Stimulants to the respiratory system?

Contraction of bronchial smooth muscle: Bronchoconstriction. Stimulation of bronchial glands: Increase mucous secretion. This would be bad for an asthma patient

131

AE: Delayed hematopoietic depression, development of aplastic marrow, renal toxicity and pulmonary fibrosis

Carmustine, Lomustine

132

What drug should not be given to people undergoing cataract surgery?

Tamsulosin because it can cause IFIS (Floppy iris syndrome)

133

Which cancer drugs are aromatase inhibitors?

Aminoglutethimide, Anastrozole and Letrozole, Exemestane

134

What is Log kill?

The concept that destroying cancer cells follows first-order kinetics (that a steady dose kills a constant FRACTION of cells)

135

Which drugs help increase survival after a heart attack?

Propranolol (Beta blocker), Timolol (beta blocker), Metoprolol (Beta 1 blocker)

136

What is the process of making NE?

Tyrosine > DOPA > Dopamine, which enters vesicles > NE via Dopamine β hydroxylase. NE is metabolized by MAO and diffused into surrounding tissue

137

What is Tx for chronic orthostatic hypotension?

Midodrine (Alpha 1 agonist)

138

What happens when you activate Beta 1 receptors?

Affects HEART: higher bp, heart rate, increase contractility. Affects Kidney too (more renin > increase blood volume because more water)

139

What do nonsteroidal antigens do?

Nonsteroidal antigens that compete with natural hormone for the androgen receptor and prevent translocation of the hormone into the nucleus

140

Which nonsteroidal antigens drug can cause visual problems?

Nilutamide can cause visual problems

141

Which receptor is an "autoreceptor"?

Alpha 2

142

Which drugs are the choline esters?

ACh, Carbachol, Bethanechol

143

Which drugs can cause anorexia?

5-fluorouracil and 6-mercaptopurine

144

What do muscarinic blockers do to the cardiovascular system?

Increase HR but no strong net effect

145

What is effect of an Indirect Acting Cholinomimetic on the Eye?

Basically the same as direct. Contraction of iris sphincter (miosis), ciliary muscle (accommodation), and opening of trabecular meshwork (lower IOP)

146

What do muscarinic blockers do to the eye?

They cause mydriasis (constrictor is inhibited), cause cycloplegia (ciliary muscle is inhibited), and reduce lacrimal secretion.

147

Which ANS receptors are muscarinic?

Only post-ganglionic receptors

148

What are common steroid effects?

Predispose patient to infection, Hyperglycemia, Cataract formation, increased IOP, Osteoporosis, Mood changes: hyper and happy

149

What is the neurotransmitter and receptor of postganglionic sympathetics? Long or short?

Long, NE alpha/beta

150

Which antimetabolite should be avoided in pregnancy ?

Methotrexate

151

What adrenergic receptor prevents urination?

Alpha 1

152

What is the distribution and elimination of muscarinic blockers?

Most are widely distributed through CNS. They are eliminated via the kidney.

153

Which cancer drugs tend to have fewer adverse effects?

Monoclonal antibodies because they can be directed at specific targets.

154

What is Tx for cardiac arrest?

Isoproterenol, Epinephrine

155

Which cancer drug treats melanoma?

Dacarbazine

156

Vomiting and diarrhea are uncommon for which anticancer drug?

Docetaxel and Paclitaxel

157

What is good for accurate refraction?

Homatropine or cyclopentolate

158

What is the neurotransmitter and receptor of postganglionic parasympathetics? Long or short?

Short, Ach muscarinic

159

What is the tissue target and actions for Beta 1?

Heart (increases force and rate of contraction)

160

AE: Severe vomiting, Nephrotoxicity, Ototoxicity

Cisplatin

161

Nn nicotinic receptors are on ___

Neurons

162

What are beta blockers used for clinically?

Hypertension, Ischemic heart disease by regulating heartbeat and decreasing O2 demand, Cardiac arrhythmias, Heart failure, Glaucoma, Hyperthyroidism, migraines, tremors and stage fright/anxiety

163

What can treat COPD and Asthma?

Ipratropium or Tiotropium

164

What happens when you activate Beta 2 receptors?

Bronchodilation, elevates blood glucose (via glycogen breakdown) and increases glucagon secretion from pancreas. Also decreases blood glucose via insulin. Relaxes smooth ciliary muscle to decrease accommodation.

165

Which cancer drug Sensitizes the patient to radiation (sun)?

Dactinomycin

166

What is good for dilated fundus exam?

Tropicamide or Cyclopentolate

167

What treats breast cancer?

First line treatment: Tamoxifen Aminoglutethimide, Anastrozole and Letrozole, Exemestane [all aromatase inhibitors]. For advanced breast cancer: Leuprolide and Goserelin [GnRH analogs]

168

Which antibiotic cancer drug can cause irreversible cardiotoxicity?

Doxorubicin

169

What can treat urinary urgency or bladder spasm?

Oxybutynin (Muscarinic blocker)

170

Which alkylating agent can penetrate the CNS?

Carmustine, Lomustine

171

What is the goal of chemotherapy?

Goal is to cause a lethal cytotoxic event or apoptosis in the cancer cell or arrest tumor’s progression

172

What happens if the cocaine drops do not cause dilation?

Horner's syndrome is from postganglionic lesion

173

What was developed as a mustard gas during WWI

Mechlorethamine

174

AE: Severe reactions have been fatal: Must infuse slowly. Hypotension, bronchospasm, and angioedema; Chills and fever after first infusion; Cardiac arrhythmias; You don't see nausea vomiting hair falling out

Rituximab

175

Cholinomimetic alkaloid are easily or hardly absorbed from administration sites?

Cholinomimetic alkaloid are EASILY absorbed from administration sites?

176

Which is more potent: Docetaxel, Paclitaxel?

Docetaxel

177

What receptor is on respiratory, uterine, and vascular smooth muscle and skeletal muscles?

Beta 2