Exam 2 MSK review

Question 1

5 P’s

Answer 1

Pain, Paralysis, Paraesthesia, Pallor. Pulselessness

Question 2

higher risk for msk conditions

Answer 2

Female (b/c vitamin D, periods, fetus takes calcium from mother), sedentary lifestyle, being older

Question 3

What requires a focused MSK assessment

Answer 3

any of the 5 P’s
pain, paralysis, parasthesia, pallor, pulselessness

Question 4

What type of range of motion can i do during the clinical checkoffs

Answer 4

you say “patient will be doing RoM actively with me” or you move the patients arm/leg for them and say we are doing passive range of motion. you must do it BILATERALLY to assess for SYMMETRY

Question 5

Rombergs

Answer 5

The patient stands with their feet together and arms at their sides.
The patient closes their eyes.
The examiner observes the patient’s balance and stability for about 20 seconds.

proprioception

Question 6

TBI means

Answer 6

tramatic brain injury
ex: contact sports

Question 7

Systems affected by neuro

Answer 7

endocrine, msk, GI, cardiovascular, GU, respiratory etc. anything that the brain can control.

Question 8

What to remember about DTR

Answer 8

distract the patient while doing the reflex so that the reflex isn’t suppressed or upregulated. hit it with the pointed end.

Question 9

What is DTR hypoactive vs hyperactive

Answer 9

+2 is normal.
3 or 4 is hyperactive.
0 or 1 is hypoactive.

Question 10

What is clonus

Answer 10

A DTR that never has an off switch. You dorsiflex the foot and thats how it triggers. you make note of the number of beats. it can be indicative of a seizure oncomming.

Question 12

What is a cyst?

Answer 12

Elevated, encapsulated, and fluid filled, measuring 1cm or larger.

Cysts can occur in various tissues and may require medical evaluation.

Question 13

Define blister.

Answer 13

A collection of fluid below or within the epidermis.

Blisters can form due to friction, burns, or certain medical conditions.

Question 14

What is basal cell carcinoma?

Answer 14

Most common form of cutaneous malignancy; pearl white, dome shaped papule with overlying vascular dilation, enlarges slowly.

Basal cell carcinoma typically has a low risk of metastasis but can cause local tissue damage.

Question 15

Describe squamous cell carcinoma.

Answer 15

Malignant cutaneous malignancy arising from keratinocytes of the skin or mucosa; thick, rough, scaly, crusty, irregular borders, second most common type of skin cancer.

Squamous cell carcinoma can be more aggressive than basal cell carcinoma and may metastasize.

Question 16

What is malignant melanoma?

Answer 16

Malignancy of the melanocytes arising in the skin, develops from a preexisting lesion, increase in size, color change, appearance of new nevi, variable appearance, curable with early detection.

Malignant melanoma is the most dangerous form of skin cancer due to its potential to spread rapidly.

Question 17

Define lesion.

Answer 17

A circumscribed area of altered or diseased tissue.

Lesions can be benign or malignant and may require further investigation.

Question 18

What does the acronym ABCDE stand for in dermatology?

Answer 18

Asymmetry, Border irregularity, change in color, diameter, evolution

Reference: Thompson, 2018, pg. 122

Question 19

What factors influence skin and nail growth/health?

Answer 19

Nutritional status, stress, disease, hormone deficiency

Stress management is also an important factor.

Question 20

What is a wheal?

Answer 20

Raised swelling and itchy skin, usually red and caused by an allergic reaction

Wheals are often temporary and can vary in size.

Question 21

What is seborrheic dermatitis commonly known as?

Answer 21

Cradle cap

It is characterized by chronic, greasy scale that can accumulate on the scalp, with or without redness. Reference: Thompson, 2018, pg. 126

Question 22

What are the main symptoms of rosacea?

Answer 22

Redness, swelling, spider-like blood vessels on the middle of the face

Reference: Thompson, 2018, pg. 110

Question 23

What is acne vulgaris?

Answer 23

A skin condition originating from sebaceous glands that causes blemishes, cysts, bumps, pustules, and inflammation of the skin

Reference: Thompson, 2018, pg. 110

Question 24

How is acne defined?

Answer 24

An inflammatory disease of the sebaceous follicles of the skin, marked by comedones, papules, and pustules

Reference: Thompson, 2018, pg. 107

Question 25

What is eczema?

Answer 25

A skin condition that causes the skin to be itchy and inflamed, often located at the joints, and may be familial ## Footnote Reference: Thompson, 2018, pg. 110

Question 26

What is Purpura?

Answer 26

Hemorrhagic red or purple spot or rash that is flat and non-blanchable, 3-10mm, may be associated with platelet disorders ## Footnote Reference: Thompson, 2018, pg. 124

Question 27

What are Petechiae?

Answer 27

Tiny, pinpoint hemorrhages caused by superficial bleeding from the capillaries of the skin, less than 3 mm, may be related to platelet deficiencies ## Footnote Reference: Thompson, 2018, pg. 124

Question 28

What is the Epidermis?

Answer 28

Avascular, outer layer of the skin that is replaced every 3-4 weeks, primarily composed of keratinocytes and melanocytes, pigmentation of skin is determined at this layer ## Footnote Reference: Thompson, 2018, pg. 104

Question 29

What does the Dermis contain?

Answer 29

Connective tissue, sensory nerve fibers, capillaries, collagen, and elastin ## Footnote Reference: Thompson, 2018, pg. 104

Question 30

What is the Subcutaneous layer composed of?

Answer 30

Adipose tissue and fat; provides protection and insulation; stores fat; roots of hair follicles exist here ## Footnote Reference: Thompson, 2018, pg. 105

Question 31

What is the Stratum corneum?

Answer 31

Part of the epidermis, thin layer of dead skin that changes in thickness depending on its location (thicker on the palms of hands and soles of feet) ## Footnote Reference: Thompson, 2018, pg. 104

Question 32

What are some risk factors for musculoskeletal issues?

Answer 32

Family history, past surgeries, past injuries, chronic diseases, nutrition, female sex, smoking, age (40-60 years at increased risk) ## Footnote Reference: Thompson, 2018, pg. 287

Question 33

Which imaging tests are used for musculoskeletal evaluation?

Answer 33

X-ray, MRI (soft tissues), CT (bones, ligaments, joints), DEXA (bone mineral density test) ## Footnote Reference: Thompson, 2018, pg. 285

Question 34

What blood test is used to assess muscular injury?

Answer 34

Creatine phosphokinase blood test (levels increased in the setting of muscular injury) ## Footnote Reference: Thompson, 2018, pg. 285

Question 35

What are key components of prevention and education for musculoskeletal health?

Answer 35

Prevent illness and disability, promote healthy diet, encourage physical activity and good body mechanics, encourage stretching and work safety ## Footnote None

Question 36

Fill in the blank: One risk factor for musculoskeletal issues is _______.

Answer 36

female sex

Question 37

True or False: Smoking is a risk factor for musculoskeletal issues.

Answer 37

True

Question 38

What dietary components are important for musculoskeletal health?

Answer 38

Calcium, vitamin D, magnesium, phosphorus ## Footnote None

Question 39

Fill in the blank: The DEXA test assesses _______.

Answer 39

bone mineral density

Question 40

What age range is considered at increased risk for musculoskeletal issues?

Answer 40

40-60 years

Question 41

What are hypoactive bowel sounds?

Answer 41

Decreased peristalsis; requires listening for up to 5 minutes before declaring hypoactive bowel sounds. ## Footnote Hypoactive bowel sounds suggest a reduction in intestinal activity.

Question 42

What is considered a normal range for bowel sounds?

Answer 42

5 to 34 clicks or gurgles per minute. ## Footnote This range indicates normoactive bowel sounds.

Question 43

What are hyperactive bowel sounds indicative of?

Answer 43

35+ clicks/min, indicative of early bowel obstruction or increased peristalsis. ## Footnote Hyperactive sounds may signal a potential gastrointestinal issue.

Question 44

What is the primary function of the pancreas?

Answer 44

To release insulin (endocrine) and pancreatic juices (exocrine). ## Footnote The pancreas plays a crucial role in digestion and glucose regulation.

Question 45

What happens in pancreatic disorders regarding insulin?

Answer 45

Decreases insulin and therefore increases glucose. ## Footnote This imbalance can lead to various health issues, including diabetes.

Question 46

What is expiratory dyspnea?

Answer 46

Difficulty breathing associated with chronic obstructive lung disease; wheezing is usually present. ## Footnote Source: Thompson, 2018, pg. 206

Question 47

What condition is associated with paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea?

Answer 47

Shortness of breath when the patient is asleep in bed, often relieved by sitting upright; a sign of left ventricular heart failure. ## Footnote Source: Thompson, 2018, pg. 206

Question 48

What causes wheezing?

Answer 48

Narrow passageways in the trachea-bronchial tree due to secretions, inflammation, obstruction, or a foreign body. ## Footnote Source: Thompson, 2018, pg. 215

Question 49

What is Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)?

Answer 49

A condition where pursed-lip breathing is used to reduce the work of breathing, with lips appearing as if whistling. ## Footnote Source: Thompson, 2018, pg. 205

Question 50

What are normal assessment findings for respiratory health?

Answer 50

Transverse diameter approx. 2x the AP diameter, costal angle <90 degrees, conical shape to trunk, symmetry, uniform intact skin, normal respiratory rate, no increased work of breathing. ## Footnote Source: Thompson, 2018, pg. 209

Question 51

True or False: Wheezing is a sign of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.

Answer 51

True ## Footnote Wheezing often indicates narrow passageways, commonly seen in COPD patients.

Question 52

Fill in the blank: Pursed-lip breathing is used by clients with _______.

Answer 52

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease ## Footnote This technique helps reduce the work of breathing.

Question 53

What is the purpose of Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) measurement?

Answer 53

To measure the levels of O2 and CO2 in the blood ## Footnote Sites for ABG measurement include radial, brachial, and femoral arteries.

Question 54

What is bronchoscopy?

Answer 54

A diagnostic or therapeutic procedure to visualize the larynx, trachea, and bronchial tree ## Footnote It involves inserting a fiberoptic bronchoscope through the nose or mouth into the trachea and bronchi, performed under anesthesia or conscious sedation.

Question 55

What is thoracentesis?

Answer 55

Insertion of a needle into the thoracic cavity for analysis or removal of fluid from the pleural space ## Footnote This procedure can be either diagnostic or therapeutic.

Question 56

What are alveoli?

Answer 56

Smallest air sacs of the lungs, consisting of squamous cells, secrete surfactant; air is filtered through small capillaries into arterial blood; gases move across capillaries for gas exchange to occur. ## Footnote Reference: Thompson, 2018, pg. 202

Question 57

What is the function of the trachea?

Answer 57

Allows air to flow into the bronchi. ## Footnote Reference: Thompson, 2018, pg. 201

Question 58

What is the nasopharynx?

Answer 58

Start of respiratory cycle, warms, humidifies, and filters air. ## Footnote Reference: Thompson, 2018, pg. 201

Question 59

What is the oropharynx?

Answer 59

Passage between nose, sinuses, larynx, and trachea; major role is speech, breathing, prevents aspiration during swallowing, no air exchange. ## Footnote Reference: Thompson, 2018, pg. 201

Question 60

Fill in the blank: The smallest air sacs of the lungs are called _______.

Answer 60

alveoli ## Footnote Alveoli are crucial for gas exchange.

Question 61

True or False: The trachea is lined with pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium.

Answer 61

True ## Footnote This structure helps to trap and move particles out of the respiratory system.

Question 62

What are the main functions of the nasopharynx?

Answer 62

Warms, humidifies, and filters air. ## Footnote This is essential for preparing air for the lungs.

Question 63

What role does the oropharynx play in the respiratory system?

Answer 63

Speech, breathing, prevents aspiration during swallowing, no air exchange. ## Footnote It connects the nasal cavity to the larynx.

Question 64

What is the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)?

Answer 64

A neurological assessment that scores a client’s response based on best verbal response, best motor response, and best eye-opening response. ## Footnote Source: Thompson, 2018, pg. 322

Question 65

Define aphasia.

Answer 65

A complete impairment of comprehension and expression in the verbal, written, and signed modalities. ## Footnote Source: Thompson, 2018, pg. 317

Question 66

What is neuropathy?

Answer 66

Sensation of the skin; numbness and tingling in extremities caused by nerve damage or injury; loss of sensation that may feel like numbness, tingling, or the inability to feel. ## Footnote Source: Thompson, 2018, pg. 317

Question 67

What is neuropathic pain?

Answer 67

Occurs when nerves of the peripheral nervous system are damaged, caused by peripheral vascular disease, tissue ischemia, and diabetes; symptoms include tingling, numbness, a burning sensation, pain, or muscle weakness. ## Footnote Source: Thompson, 2018, pg. 317

Question 68

What is hemiparesis?

Answer 68

Loss of muscle tone/strength to unilateral side of body; indicative of stroke, neurological injury, or disease. ## Footnote Source: Thompson, 2018, pg. 329

Question 69

Define paraplegia.

Answer 69

Absence of movement and sensation in bilateral lower extremities; indicative of spinal cord injury/lesion at or below the thoracic spine level. ## Footnote Source: Thompson, 2018, pg. 329

Question 70

What is quadriplegia?

Answer 70

Absence of movement and sensation in upper and lower extremities; indicative of spinal cord injury/lesion at or below the cervical spine level. ## Footnote Source: Thompson, 2018, pg. 329

Question 71

What does lethargy refer to?

Answer 71

Drowsy; sometimes difficult to arouse. ## Footnote Source: Thompson, 2018, pg. 322

Question 72

What is unconsciousness?

Answer 72

Unable to be aroused or awakened. ## Footnote Source: Thompson, 2018, pg. 322

Question 73

Define ptosis.

Answer 73

Drooping of the eyelid caused by muscle or nerve dysfunction, injury, or disease. ## Footnote Source: Thompson, 2018, pg. 189

Question 74

What is neuralgia?

Answer 74

Pain that occurs along a nerve pathway. ## Footnote Source: Not specified

Question 75

Define encephalopathy.

Answer 75

Generalized brain dysfunction marked by varying degrees of impairment of speech, cognition, orientation, and arousal. ## Footnote Source: Taber, 2021, pg. 813

Question 76

Fill in the blank: Neuropathy is characterized by _______.

Answer 76

Numbness and tingling in extremities caused by nerve damage or injury. ## Footnote Source: Thompson, 2018, pg. 317

Question 77

What is a concussion?

Answer 77

Traumatic brain injury with proven temporary short term memory loss ## Footnote Long-term memory and temporary short-term memory loss are proven with concussion and traumatic injury from contact sports. (Thompson, 2018, pg. 316)

Question 78

What are the two main types of stroke?

Answer 78

* Ischemic: occlusion of oxygenated blood flow to the brain * Hemorrhagic: leaking of blood from an artery in the brain ## Footnote (Thompson, 2018, pg. 319)

Question 79

What does the acronym FAST stand for in stroke recognition?

Answer 79

* Face * Arm * Speech * Time ## Footnote (Thompson, 2018, pg. 342)

Question 80

What is a Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA)?

Answer 80

A temporary loss of blood flow to the brain, lasting only a few minutes ## Footnote May cause loss of sensation, numbness, dysphasia, double vision, dysphagia, dizziness, and motor/sensory deficits. (Thompson, 2018, pg. 317)

Question 81

What are some risk factors for stroke?

Answer 81

* Hypertension * High cholesterol * Cigarette smoking * Diabetes * Inactivity * Obesity ## Footnote (Thompson, 2018, pg. 342)

Question 82

Fill in the blank: Ischemic stroke is caused by _______ of oxygenated blood flow to the brain.

Answer 82

occlusion

Question 83

True or False: A Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA) can last for hours.

Answer 83

False ## Footnote A TIA may last only a few minutes.