Exam 2 - Old Exams Flashcards
(161 cards)
1
Q
__________ _________ is the cause of bacillary white diarrhea in chicken.
A
Salmonella pullorum
2
Q
__________ ___________ is the cause of skin ulcers, furunculosis, and septicemia in salmonid fish.
A
Aeromonas salmonicida
3
Q
__________ _________ is a common cause of respiratory infections, septicemia, pericarditis, peritonitis, and granulomatous lesions in the intestines of commercial poultry.
A
Escherichia coli
4
Q
________ __________ is an organism that made headlines recently because several humans in a single hospital were infected with an Extreme Drug Resistant (XDR) strain that resulted in the deaths of several people.
A
Klebsiella pneumoniae
5
Q
________ __________ is the most common cause of actinomycosis in dogs.
A
Actinomyces viscosus
6
Q
__________________ is the cause of bacillary dysentery in primates.
A
Shigella dysenteria, sonnei, boydii, or flexneri
7
Q
_________ ________ is the organism almost always recovered from pyometra in dogs.
A
Escherichia coli
8
Q
___________ ____________ is the cause of swimming bool granuloma in humans and granulomatous lesions in cold-blooded animals.
A
Mycobacterium marinum
9
Q
____________ is the serotype of Salmonella that is adapted to mice.
A
Typhimurium
10
Q
__________ is the salmonella serotype found in pet turtles.
A
Arizonae
11
Q
__________ is/are the species of livestock in which Salmonella typhimurium DT104 is most virulent.
A
cattle
12
Q
________ is the leukocyte that can be killed by host-adapted salmonella.
A
macrophage
13
Q
_________ is the leukocyte in which mycobacteria like to grow.
A
macrophage
14
Q
__________ is the nutrient inhibited by the SRP vaccine against salmonellosis.
A
iron
15
Q
__________ is the target antigen (epitope) of most Salmonella bacterins that fail to produce good immunity.
A
O-antigen (somatic antigen)
16
Q
________ is a foreign animal disease primarily found in solipeds that is characterized by encapsulated nodules in the respiratory tract and infection of cutaneous lymph vessels.
A
glanders
17
Q
________ ________ is a disease of warm water fish that can result in the breakdown of the cartilagenous structure of the gills and formation of lesions on the fins and ulceration of the skin.
A
columnaris disease
18
Q
_________ is the antigenic formular for Escherichia coli isolates that were first implicated in hemolytic uremic syndrome in humans.
A
O157:H7
19
Q
_______ _________ ______ is the mechanism of action of the STa toxin of Escherichia coli.
A
Increases intracellular cGMP
20
Q
_______ and ________ are the two fimbrial subtupes of E. coli involved in edema disease in swine.
A
F18ab and F18ac
21
Q
Name the common organism from the Mycoplasma family that is associated with mastitis, pneumonia, otitis, and polyarthritis in cattle.
A
Mycoplasma bovis
22
Q
Name the species that Mycoplasma agalactiae causes mastitis and septicemia in.
A
goats and sheep
23
Q
Name the common organism from the Mycoplasma family that is associated with enzootic pneumonia in swine.
A
Mycoplasma hyopneumonia
24
Q
Name the common organism from the Mycoplasma family that is associated with contagious pleuropneumonia in cattle, buffalo, and bison.
A
Mycoplasma mycoides subspecies mycoides small colony
25
Name the common organism from the Mycoplasma family that is associated with contagious pleuropneumonia in goats.
Mycoplasma capricolum subspecies capripneumoniae
26
Name the common organism from the Mycoplasma family that is associated with infectious keratoconjunctivitis in sheep and goats.
Mycoplasma conjunctivae
27
Name the common organism from the Mycoplasma family that is associated with airsacculitis in newely-hatched poults in turkeys.
Mycoplasma meleagridis
28
Name the common organism from the Mycoplasma family that is associated with eperythrozoonosis/anemia in swine.
Mycoplasma suis
29
What does Mycoplasma pulmonis cause and in what species?
pneumonia in rats and mice
30
Explain how plants can serve as a unique source of food-borne salmonella infections.
Salmonella can enter into and survive within plant cells which are then ingested.
31
What is the molecular basis of Nocardia species being only partially acid fast while mycobacterium species are strongly acid fast?
The nocardic acids in Nocardia are only about 50 or so carbon atoms in length compared to the 90 or so carbon atom length of the mycolic acids found in mycobacteria. the shorter fatty acids do not retain the carbol fuchsin very well.
32
Why are PPD tuberculins preferred over oter types of tuberculins for use in DTH testing of most domestic animals and humans?
they are standardized for potency and are more purified to help eliminate non-specific reactions
33
Why are swine reared in confinement buildings less likely to be infected with Mycobacterium avium?
because there is less exposure to carrier birds and soil-borne mycobacteria
34
T or F: Melioidosis is caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
False
35
T or F: Salmonella typhimurium causes overt disease in poultry.
False
36
T or F: Burkholderia mallei is most often transmitted between horses via nasal exudate contaminating feed and water or through direct contact.
True
37
T or F: Burkholderia mallei is most often transmitted to large cats and canidae via nasal exudates contaminating feed and water or through direct contact.
False
38
T or F: All Enterobacteriaceae express enterotoxins but only about half of them express endotoxin.
False
39
T or F: Routine immunization of cows and sows with killed bacterins expressing the correct fimbrial antigens has led to a marked decrease in coliform enteritis in neonatal calves and pigs.
True
40
T or F: E. coli STb is most often associated with severe enteritis in newborn calves.
False
41
T or F: Klebsiella pneumoniae causes mastitis in dairy cattle and urinary tract infections in a variety of animals, but is not usually an enteric pathogen except in psittacine birds.
True
42
T or F: Enterobacter species cause mastitis in dairy cattle and urinary tract infections in a variety of animals, but are not usually enteric pathogens except in psittacine birds.
True
43
T or F: If correctly performed, formic acid treatment of milk and colostrum can kill Mycoplasma species.
True
44
T or F: Nocardia asteroides is less common than Nocardia braziliensis as a cause of infections in the U.S.
False
45
T or F: Treatment of infections with Nocardia species, usually requires relatively aggressive intervention that may include surgical debridement of lesions.
True
46
T or F: Oddly, Actinomyces suis is a more common cause of infections in cattle than it is in pigs.
False
47
T or F: Dermatophilus congolensis is commonly found in soil but is in highest concentrations in the soils in the desert Southwest.
False
48
T or F: Dermatophilus congolensis infections are more common in the desert Southwest because of a higher population of Culicoides (gnats or midges) found in this environment that bite the skin and create small lesions for the organism to colonize.
False
49
T or F: Most of the bacteria covered on this exam are sensitive to penicillin.
False
50
T or F: A tubercle is the same thing as an abscess.
False
51
T or F: In the treatment of tuberculosis, it is the fast-growing population of organisms that is first killed off by the antibiotic(s).
True
52
T or F: The incidence of Extensive Drug Resistant tuberculosis (XDR-TB) is surging due to problems with treatment of bovine tuberculosis.
False
53
T or F: Most cattle in the U.S. are required to be vaccinated against Mycobacterium bovis.
False
54
T or F: Calves in Johne’s disease positive herds in the U.S. are required to be vaccinated against Mycobacterium avium subspecies paratuberculosis.
False
55
It is thought that repeat infections with Mycoplasma pneumoniae often cause more severe clinical disease than earlier infections because.
a. The organism has several superantigens that stimulate exponentially wider array of T-cells with each repeat infection.
b. The organism stimulates a hypersensitivity response that becomes more pronounced with repeat infections.
c. The organism does not stimulate a cell-mediated immune response sufficient to prevent the development of a septicemia.
d. The organism does not stimulate an IgA immune response sufficient to prevent the development of a septicemia.
e. Even though repeat infections only occur every 4 to 6 years, the residual immunosuppression caused by the organism is not sufficiently resolved.
b. The organism stimulates a hypersensitivity response that becomes more pronounced with repeat infections.
56
For diagnosis of which of the following would a hand-held, rapid (a few minutes) PCR system be most valuable to a practicing veterinarian?
a. Colibacillosis in newborn pigs.
b. Dermatophilosis in cattle, horses and lambs
c. Johne’s disease in cattle
d. Nocardiosis in dogs
e. Melioidosis in dogs.
c. Johne's disease in cattle
57
_______ ________ is the cause of granulomatous osteomyelitis in cattle and occasionally other animals.
Actinomyces bovis
58
__________ _________ causes severe enteritis and mesenteric lymphadenitis in humans.
Yersinia enterocolitica or Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
59
________ _______ is the cause of feline infectious anemia.
Mycoplasma haemofelis
60
_________ is a mycoplasma species that has largely been eradicated from turkey breeder flocks but which is harbored in wild birds.
gallisepticum
61
_______ _______ cause proliferative interstitial or atypical pneumonia in sheep and goats.
Mycoplasma oviipneumoniae
62
__________________________ is the major etiologic agent in contagious caprine pleuropneumoonia.
Mycoplasma capricolum subspecies capripneumoniae
63
__________ is the most important mycoplasma affecting swine.
hyopneumoniae
64
________ is the most important mycoplasma affecting rodents.
pulmonis
65
_________ ____________ iis the cause of meliodosis.
Burkholderia mallei
66
________ _________ is the cause of 'cold water disease' of freshwater salmon and trout.
Flavobacterium psychrophilum
67
_______ is the species of animal in which a respiratory route of transmission has been demonstrated for salmonella.
swine
68
_______ is the species of animal that harbors Salmonella arizonae.
Turtles
69
The O-antigen determines the Salmonella sero______.
group
70
The H-antigen determines the Salmonella sero______.
type
71
_______ is the fimbrial type associated with edema disease in swine.
F18
72
______ is the fimbrial type most commonly associated with neonatal diarrhea in calves and lambs.
F5
73
_______ _______ of catfish is caused by infection with Edwardsiella ictaluri.
Enteric septicemia
74
_______ and _____ are the two main toxins involved in the hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS) in humans.
STx1, STx2
75
_____________________ is the mechanism of action of the two HUS toxins.
Inhibition of protein synthesis (NAD-dependent ADP-ribosylation of elongation factor 2)
76
__________ _______ is the cause of 'yolk sac disease' in birds.
Escherichia coli
77
Which of these are host-adapted serotypes of Salmonella: Anatum, Typhimurium, Enteritidis, Dublin
Anatum and Dublin
78
A newly hired veterinarian in your clinic handles a case of recurrent cystitis in a dog. She performs a urine culture on a voided sample and streaks the sample on a blood agar plate. The result comes back as high numbers of Proteus species. The Proteus is susceptible to amoxicillin so she places the dog on Clavamox for 10 days. After 4 days, the owner brings the dog back and there is now blood in the urine and the dog is depressed. The new vet re-cultures the urine and finds a pure culture of Eschrichia coli resistant to amoxicillin. What happened and how could the mis-diagnosis been avoided?
Proteus overgrew the first culture but did not show up on the re-culture. It only takes a few contaminating Proteus to swarm over the whole plate. Could have been avoided by using a MacConkey’s or 4% agar plate. That should be standard procedure with urine cultures. Several students correctly stated that a cystocentisis could have been done but there isn’t anything horribly wrong with a voided sample especially if a quantitative count is performed.
79
Briefly explain why killed typhoid fever bacterins do not stimulate a very protective immune response.
A CMI response is needed to adequately protect vs salmonella because they are facultative intracellular pathogens. IgA in the intestine has less to do with salmonellosis because the organism is more invasive
80
Why do the J5 and similar bacterins need to be given more often than bacterins based on fimbrial antigens?
because they stimulate primarily a T-independent response and the production of IgM which has a short half-life and there is no memory with a T-independent response
81
Why is the oriental rat flea such a good vector for bubonic plague?
a. Yersinia pestis is normal flora in rats.
b. Yersina pestis does not cause any adverse health effects on the fleas.
c. Yersina pestis produces a coagulase that blocks the fleas’ proventriculus and makes them reguritate the organism into a bite wound.
d. The oriental rat flea multiplies to very high numbers on rats that are dying of plague.
e. The fleas’ second choice for hosts are humans because of a potent pheromone on human skin.
C. Yersina pestis produces a coagulase that blocks the fleas’ proventriculus and makes them reguritate the organism into a bite wound.
82
The septicemic form of bubonic plague:
a. Does not involve the production of buboes.
b. Is a milder form of plague with a higher survival rate.
c. Was the most common form seen in the last pandemic.
d. Is not transmitted by fleas.
e. Is caused by a closely related organism
a. does not involve the production of buboes
83
Extraintestinal infections with Escherichia coli
a. Are common in domestic poultry
b. Are most common in neonatal swine.
c. Are largely dependent on the type of H-antigen produced.
d. Are rare in adult dairy cattle
e. Are very common in canines
a. are common in domestic poultry
84
Extreme drug resistance (XDR) is not usually seen as a problem with which of the following?
a. Mycobacterium bovis
b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c. Escherichia coli
d. Klebsiella pneumoniae
e. Enterobacter species
a. mycobacterium bovis
85
Which of the following is least likely to be caused by Klebsiella pneumoniae.
a. Nosocomial infections in humans
b. Mastitis in dairy cattle
c. Urinary tract infections in canines
d. Uterine infections in canines
e. Pneumonia in humans
d. uterine infections in canines
86
Which of the following is most frequent with Enterobacter species?
a. Enteritis in poultry
b. Mastitis in dairy cattle
c. Dermatitis in cats
d. CNS infections in reptiles
e. Ulcerative lesions in warm-water fish species
b. mastitis in dairy cattle
87
Which of the following is a virulence factor produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
a. Phospholipase C
b. Exotoxin A
c. Elastase A and B
d. Endotoxin
e All the above
f. Only a and b above
e. all of the above
88
T or F: Pseudomonas aeruginosa mastitis in cattle is often associated with a water source.
True
89
T or F: Tuberculosis in mammals is confined to the respiratory tract.
False
90
T or F: Tuberculosis in birds and swine is confined to the digestive tract.
False
91
T or F: The acid-fast stain is important because it is the only practical method for accurate diagnosis of Johne’s disease
False
92
T or F: Mycobacterium avium infections in humans are usually confined to individuals who are immunocompromised.
True
93
T or F: The acid-fast stain is important because acid fast bacteria are often slow growing and dangerous to work with in culture.
True
94
T or F: The acid-fast stain is important because it can be used to differentiate different genera of bacteria.
False
95
T or F: Salmonella pullorum causes overt disease in poultry.
True
96
T or F: Calcium intake by Salmonella is inhibited by the SRP vaccine.
False
97
T or F: Dermatophilus congolensis is relatively easy to isolate from lesions.
False
98
T or F: Dermatophilus congolensis is highly resistant to beta lactam antibiotics
False
99
T or F: Dermatophilus congolensis infections are associated with skin trauma such as insect bites and masceration (due to persistent dampness).
True
100
T or F: Hemolytic uremic syndrome only affects humans under the age of 12.
False
101
T or F: Hemolytic uremic syndrome is caused by infection with Shigella and Yersinia species.
False
102
T or F: Host-adapted servoars of Salmonella are more likely to produce severe disease and septicemia in the host to which they are adapted.
True
103
T or F: A Salmonella serovar that can switch from one H-antigen to an alternate H-antigen is said to be monophasic.
False
104
T or F: High numbers of Proteus species in a fecal sample from an animal with diarrhea indicate that this organism is most likely the cause of the diarrhea.
False
105
T or F: Pseudomonas aeruginosa is an obligate aerobe that can grow well in an anaerobic environment.
True
106
T or F: Scombroid poisoning is a true anaphylactic reaction to spoiled fish tissues.
False
107
What is the major natural habitat for Mycobacterium avium?
soil and intestinal tracts of birds
108
What is the major natural habitat for Mycobacterium bovis?
respiratory tracts of cattle, deer, and occasionally animals
109
What is the major natural habitat for Actinomyces bovis?
oral cavity and GI tracts of cattle and sheep
110
What is the major natural habitat for Aeromonas hydrophilia?
water
111
What is the major natural habitat for Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
soil, water, skin, mucous membranes
112
What is the major natural habitat for Nocardia asteroides?
soil
113
What is the major natural habitat for Dermatophilus congolensis?
soil
114
What is the major natural habitat for Mycobacterium avium ss paratuberculosis?
intestinal tracts of herbivores
115
________ __________ is the cause of feline infectious anemia.
Mycoplasma haemofelis
116
_______ ________ is the cause of chronic respiratory disease of chickens and infectious sinusitis of turkeys.
Mycoplasma gallisepticum
117
____________ __________ is the main agent involved in tuberculosis in non-human primates.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
118
____________ __________ is the main agent involved in mycobacterial infections in swine.
Mycobacterium avium
119
__________ _________ is the cause of enteric speticemia of catfish.
Edwardsiella ictaluri
120
_______ __________ is the cause of sylvatic plague in the U.S.
Yersinia pestis
121
_________ ______ is the cause of glanders in equidae, carnivores, and occasionally humans.
Burkholderia mallei
122
_________ _________ is a bacterial predisposing agent for pinkeye in cattle.
Mycoplasma bovoculi
123
_________ __________ is a foreign animal pathogen causing contagious agalactia, septicemia, and keratoconjunctivitis in sheep and goats.
Mycoplasma agalactiae
124
________ _________ is a cause of septicemia, skin ulceration, and furunculosis in cold water fish.
Aeromonas salmonicida
125
_________ is the most common serotype of salmonella causing disease in horses.
Typhimurium
126
___________________ is the name of the syndrome or disease caused by Escherichia coli O157:H7 and other Stx-producing E. coli.
Hemorrhagic uremic syndrome
127
________ is the type of poisoning that occurs due to eating spoiled fish with a high content of histamine.
scombroid
128
____ is the major toxin involved in Escherichia coli neonatal diarrhea of calves and lambs.
STa
129
___________ antigens are immunodominant but are ineffective targets for Salmonella vaccines.
Somatic (O)
130
________-receptor vaccine inhibits iron uptake by Salmonellae.
siderophore
131
________ is the most important Mycoplasma species causing disease in cattle in the U.S.
bovis
132
A lymphohistiocytic response is characteristic of:
a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa in horses.
b. Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae in pigs
c. Mycobacterium avium infection in cattle.
d. Citrobacter sp. infection in cats
e. Shigella sp. infection in non-human primates.
b. Mycoplasma hyponeumoniae in pigs
133
Which of the following organisms is never susceptible to a cephalosporin antibiotics?
a. Dermatophilus congolensis
b. Escherichia coli
c. Mycoplasma capricolum subspecies capripneumoniae
d. Proteus species
e. Shigella species
c. Mycoplasma capricolum subspecies capripneumoniae
134
Actinomyces bovis
a. Forms a microcolony in bovine tissues that is almost impossible for the immune system to clear on its own.
b. Is primarily transmitted by a fecal-oral route.
c. Does not infect the soft tissues of the head.
d. Is commonly involved in septicemic infections.
e. Is commonly found on stemmy roughage and thorns.
a. forms a microcolony in bovine tissues that is almost impossible for the immune system to clear on its own
135
Most animals and humans are exposed to moderate numbers of Nocardia asteroides but are never infected because:
a. Traumatic introduction with significant tissue damage and an anaerobic environment is required.
b. Its normal flora and can't cause disease.
c. It only infects individuals with severe combined immunodeficiency.
d. It requires a co-infecting agent such as a Mycobacterium species.
e. None of the above.
e. none of the above
136
PCR testing for Johne=s disease in cattle:
a. Is more rapid than fecal culture and costs about the same.
b. Is more accurate than fecal culture and acid fast staining of feces
c. Is easier to automate than fecal culture
d. Is more accurate than ELISA
e. All the above
f. Only a and d above
e. all of the above
137
Shigella species:
a. Are the causative agents of bacillary dysentery.
b. Are a minor cause of infant mortality in developing countries.
c. Usually attack the small intestine and cause an osmotic diarrhea.
d. Are usually transmitted by ingestion of improperly cooked beef.
e. All the above
a. are the causative agents of bacillary dysentery
138
Which of the following is the least likely to be caused by Proteus species?
a. Otitis externa in canines.
b. Urinary tract infection in canines.
c. Meat spoilage.
d. Septicemia in cattle.
e. Overgrowth in the intestinal tract subsequent to diarrhea from an unrelated cause.
d. septicemia in cattle
139
A diphasic serotype of Salmonella:
a. Has two different fimbrial antigen types.
b. Has three dominant O-Antigens
c. Can have two different flagellar antigen types.
d. Is capable of slow, prolonged growth in synthetic media.
e. Is non-pathogenic.
c. can have two different flagellar antigen types
140
Disease caused by Mycoplasma gallisepticum
a. Has been eradicated from birds in the U.S.
b. Causes chronic enteritis in chickens and turkeys.
c. Can be eliminated by heating eggs to 115 degrees centigrade for 15 minutes prior to hatching.
d. Is easily eliminated by free-range rearing of chickens and turkeys.
e. None of the above.
e. none of the above
141
T or F: The type of somatic antigen produced by Escherichia coli has little effect on the species of animal in which the organism produces disesase.
False
142
T or F: Dermatophilus congolensis infection requires some type of damage to the skin such as a wound, insect bite, maceration or persistently wet skin.
True
143
T or F: Bacterial organisms with hydrophobic (lipid) exterior components are less likely to be phagocytosed.
False
144
T or F: Dermatophilosis is confined to the southern half of the U.S.
False
145
T or F: Mammalian tubercle bacilli only produce pulmonary infections.
False
146
T or F: When exposed to a tuberculocidal drug, the slowest growing mycobacteria survive the longest.
True
147
T or F: Tubercles are composed primarily of neutrophils and mycobacteria.
False
148
T or F: The majority of human cases of tuberculosis in the U.S. involve XDR strains (extreme drug resistant).
False
149
T or F: Delayed-type hypersensitivity to mycobacterial proteins is the basis of the caudal fold, comparative cervical and single cervical tests for bovine tuberculosis.
True
150
T or F: Salmonella Gallinarum biovar Pullorum causes overt disease in poultry.
True
151
T or F: Some Mycoplasma species are thought to induce both immunosuppression and hypersensitivity.
True
152
T or F: The gills of fish with columnaris disease are usually hypertrophied.
False
153
Which of these are host-restricted serotypes of Salmonella: Anatum, Typhi, Enteritidis, Dublin, 1,4, {5}, 12:i:-
Typhi
154
List three toxins or virulence factors of Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
Phospholipase C, Exotoxin A, Elastase A and B, Proteases, Extracellular slime, or Pyocyanin
155
Why is it generally easier to stimulate a protective immune response against a Mycoplasma species that causes primarily a septicemia versus one that infects a mucosal surface?
A killed product can be used which tends to stimulate an IgG response which can be active against a septicemia whereas protection of a mucosal surface often requires an IgA response which usually requires a live vaccine
156
List one common disease or lesion caused by Klebsiella pneumoniae in each of the following: humans, cattle, and birds.
Humans: pneumonia, urinary tract infection, septicemia
Cattle: mastitis
Birds: enteritis and septicemia
157
Describe the transmission and pathogenesis of Escherichia coli infections in commercial poultry.
Transmitted usually from feces via dust to the respiratory tract. Disease is often secondary to other agents and the organism can cause airsacculitis and progress to a septicemia with pericarditis, peritonitis, serositis. Fecal-oral transmission can result in granulomatous lesions in the intestine. Also can have oophoritis or yolk sac disease from unsanitary eggs.
158
You perform a fecal culture on a poor-doing, captive Golden Eagle at a wildlife care facility and recover an almost pure culture of Escherichia coli on your MacConkey=s plate. What is the significance of the E. coli?
No significance: normal flora
159
Why are pigs immunized against edema disease only after 15 to 21 days of age?
because a modified live F18 fimbrial vaccine is used and pigs do not develop the receptors on their mucosal epithelium until that age
160
Explain the term apartially acid-fast.
the shorter length amycolic acids of a partially acid-fast organism do not retain the carbol-fuchsin dye when decolorized with strong decolorizer so a weak decolorizing agent is used
161
Recently, what bacterial species has been associated with high mortality in swine populations?
Streptococcus zooepidemicus
